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Derm Exam 1 - Minor Burns, Sunburns, and Wounds

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 8hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two healing methods

a)

regeneration

b)

scarring

c)

bandaging

2.

What type of wound healing does regeneration deal with

a)

superficial wounds

b)

involving only the epithelial layer

c)

deep wounds

d)

involving deeper layers

3.

What type of wound healing does scarring deal with

a)

superficial wounds

b)

involving only the epithelial layer

c)

deep wounds

d)

involving deeper layers

4.

What are the phases of scarring

a)

inflammatory phase

b)

proliferative phase

c)

maturation phase

d)

regeneration phase

5.

What are parts of the inflammatory phase

a)

hemostasis

b)

inflammation

c)

epithelialization

d)

fibroplasia

6.

When does the inflammatory phase occur and how long does it last

a)

immediately in response to injury

b)

~ 3-4 days

c)

~ day 3 - 3 wks

d)

~ 3 wks - 2 yrs

7.

What does the inflammatory phase prepare the wound for

a)

tissue development

b)

epithelialization

c)

collagen breakdown

d)

repigmentation

8.

What happens during the inflammation phase

a)

nutrients and immune cells migrate to area

b)

bacteria and debris are removed (phagocytosis)

c)

epithelial cells migrate into wound (moist environ)

d)

new connective tissue is formed

9.

What is the best environment for epithelial cells to migrate

a)

Moist Environment

b)

Dry Environment

c)

Necrotic Surfaces

d)

Blood Vessels

10.

When does hemostasis happen & what does it do

a)

immediately upon skin injury

b)

stop blood loss

c)

restore perfusion

d)

collagen crosslinking & remodeling

11.

What happens when hemostasis stops blood loss & restores perfusion

a)

vasoconstriction

b)

platelet aggregation

c)

clotting cascade

d)

fibroplasia

12.

Injury to large vessels may require

a)

pressure application

b)

ligation

c)

hemostatic agents (topical vs systemic)

d)

electrocautery

e)

hemostatic energy devices

13.

When does the proliferative phase occur and how long does it last

a)

immediately in response to injury

b)

~ 3-4 days

c)

~ day 3 - 3 wks

d)

~ 3 wks - 2 yrs

14.

What is epithelialization

a)

migration of basal and epithelial cells

b)

new connective tissue

c)

new capillaries

d)

inflammatory cells

15.

What does the formation of granulation tissue consist of

a)

migration of basal and epithelial cells

b)

new connective tissue

c)

new capillaries

d)

inflammatory cells

16.

What does new connective tissue include

a)

Fibroplasia

b)

Mediated by cytokines from stimulated macrophages

c)

New capillaries

d)

Inflammatory cells

17.

What is fibroplasia

a)

proliferation of fibroblasts

b)

collagen synthesis

c)

inflammatory cells

d)

neoangiogenesis

18.

What process forms new capillaries

a)

neoangiogenesis

b)

fibroplasia

c)

epithelialization

d)

wound closing

19.

At what phase does the wound begin to close

a)

inflammatory phase

b)

hemostasis

c)

proliferative phase

d)

maturation phase

20.

What phase is the longest phase of wound healing

a)

inflammatory phase

b)

hemostasis

c)

proliferative phase

d)

maturation phase

21.

When does the maturation phase begin and end

a)

~ 3 wks

b)

~ 4 wks

c)

up to 2 years

d)

up to 3 years

22.

What causes the maturation phase to be the longest phase

a)

continual process of collagen synthesis and breakdown

b)

the breakdown and reformation of the scab from scratching

c)

the new skin being more sensitive and needing time to "toughen up"

23.

Why does collagen continue to crosslink and remodel during the maturation phase

a)

increase strength

b)

increase area

c)

decrease time

d)

decrease risk of infection

24.

What happens during the continual process of collagen synthesis and breakdown

a)

early collagen breakdown

b)

collagen crosslinking & remodeling

c)

repigmentation with melanocyte migration

d)

results is a scar with 70-80% strength of original skin

e)

it is a more sensitive area

25.

What are some examples of factors that affect wound healing

a)

Tissue perfusion/oxygenation

b)

Nutrition

c)

Age and Weight

d)

Exercise

26.

What are some examples of factors that affect wound healing

a)

Infection

b)

Coexisting Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Medications

d)

Travel

27.

What are some examples of factors that affect wound healing

a)

Wound Characteristics

b)

Smoking

c)

Hiking

d)

Swimming

28.

Why does tissue perfusion/oxygenation affect wound healing?

a)

impaired migration of immune cells and delivery of nutritents/oxygen

b)

impaired migration of blood cells and delivery of nutrients/oxygen

c)

impaired migration of collagen and delivery of nutrients/oxygen

29.

What conditions is it common to have tissue perfusion/oxygenation affecting wound healing

a)

diabetics

b)

severe anemia

c)

hypotension

d)

PVD

e)

heart failure

30.

What type of nutrition affects wound healing

a)

not having adequate macro- and micronutrients needed for collagen synthesis & cell energy

b)

lack of Vitamin C

c)

lack of Vitamin E

d)

lack of Vitamin A

31.

How could Vitamin C and E potentially help with wound healing

a)

reduce inflammation/scarring

b)

improve nutrient distribution in the body

c)

help white blood cells react faster

32.

Which would slow down wound healing

a)

increased age and increased weight

b)

decreased age and decreased weight

c)

increased age and decreased weight

d)

decreased age and increased weight

33.

Why would infection slow down wound healing

a)

traumatic wounds may be contaminated with skin flora

b)

localized infection prolongs inflammatory phase, delaying new tissue growth

c)

impaired blood flow

d)

impaired cellular division

34.

What are some local signs/symptoms of infection

a)

erythema

b)

edema

c)

pain

d)

purulent exudate

e)

fever

35.

What are some systemic symptoms of infection from a wound

a)

fever

b)

leukocytosis

c)

flu-like symptoms

d)

edema

e)

pain

36.

Why does Diabetes Mellitus slow down wound healing

a)

impaired blood flow - reduced immune response/nutrient delivery

b)

predisposes the patient to infection

c)

elevated blood sugar causes insulin block healing

d)

low blood sugar causes patient to ignore wounds and focus on raising blood sugars

37.

Why would medications affect wound healing

a)

impair immune/inflammatory response and may predispose infection

b)

anticoagulants impair hemostasis

c)

impair cell division

d)

creates necrotic tissue

38.

What types of medications impair immune/inflammatory response and may predispose someone to infection

a)

corticosteroids

b)

immunosuppressants

c)

antianxiety

d)

diuretic

39.

What medication/treatment impairs cell division, affecting wound healing

a)

antineoplastics

b)

radiation therapy

c)

anticoagulants

d)

immunosuppressants

40.

What wound characteristics would impair wound healing

a)

necrotic tissue

b)

eschar formation

c)

foreign bodies/infection

d)

lack of moisture

e)

dead space

41.

What are considered acute wounds

a)

abrasions

b)

punctures

c)

lacerations

d)

burns

e)

ulcers

42.

What are considered chronic wounds

a)

pressure ulcers

b)

arterial ulcers

c)

venous ulcers

d)

capillary ulcers

43.

What are the classifications of wounds

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

e)

Unstagable

44.

What are the ways you can classify wounds

a)

classification by depth

b)

classification by acuity

c)

classification by severity

d)

classification by duration

45.

What are Stages I-IV based on

a)

# of skin layers involved

b)

# of inches deep the wound is

c)

amount of tissue lost

d)

# of cuts made

46.

What is an unstageable wound

a)

full thickness tissue loss, unable to stage due to slough or eschar covering wound

b)

partial thickness tissue loss, unable to stage due to slough or eschar covering wound

47.

What are the classifications of acuity

a)

acute

b)

chronic

c)

deep

d)

shallow

48.

What is a Stage I wound?

a)

No loss of any skin layer

b)

Intact or ruptured serum-filled blister

c)

Full-thickness skin loss - fat visible

d)

Full-thickness skin loss - muscle, tendon, or bone visible

49.

What is a Stage II wound?

a)

No loss of any skin layer

b)

Intact or ruptured serum-filled blister

c)

Full-thickness skin loss - fat visible

d)

Full-thickness skin loss - muscle, tendon, or bone visible

50.

What is a Stage III wound?

a)

No loss of any skin layer

b)

Intact or ruptured serum-filled blister

c)

Full-thickness skin loss - fat visible

d)

Full-thickness skin loss - muscle, tendon, or bone visible

51.

What is a Stage IV wound?

a)

No loss of any skin layer

b)

Intact or ruptured serum-filled blister

c)

Full-thickness skin loss - fat visible

d)

Full-thickness skin loss - muscle, tendon, or bone visible

52.

Which stage has unbroken skin

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

53.

Which stage has a blister and a red-pink wound bed

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

54.

Which stage has visible subcutaneous fat

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

55.

Which stage has visible muscle, tendon, and/or bone

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

56.

What are the burn classifications

a)

Superficial

b)

Superficial partial thickness

c)

Deep partial thickness

d)

Full thickness

e)

Degrees

57.

Which burn classification describes a painful area of erythema that only involves the epidermis

a)

Superficial

b)

Superficial partial thickness

c)

Deep partial thickness

d)

Full thickness

58.

Which burn classification describes painful blistering with damage to the epidermis

a)

Superficial

b)

Superficial partial thickness

c)

Deep partial thickness

d)

Full thickness

59.

Which burn classification describes a patchy white to red area with some blistering involving the epidermis and part of the dermis

a)

Superficial

b)

Superficial partial thickness

c)

Deep partial thickness

d)

Full thickness

60.

Which burn classification describes dry, leathery, painless area with no feeling

a)

Superficial

b)

Superficial partial thickness

c)

Deep partial thickness

d)

Full thickness

61.

What are the different types of burns

a)

Thermal

b)

Electrical

c)

Chemical

d)

Sun

e)

Water

62.

How do you get a thermal burn

a)

skin contact with hot objects

b)

inhalation of smoke or hot vapors

c)

flash burns

d)

overexposure to UV radiation

63.

What are the different types of electrical burns

a)

flash burn

b)

contact burn

c)

acidic burn

d)

radiation burn

64.

What is a flash burn

a)

result from high-temp arc of current close to the skin

b)

contact with a high voltage source

c)

inhalation of hot vapors

d)

skin contact with acidic or alkaline substance

65.

What is a contact burn

a)

result from high-temp arc of current close to the skin

b)

contact with a high voltage source

c)

inhalation of hot vapors

d)

skin contact with acidic or alkaline substance

66.

What is a chemical burn

a)

result from high-temp arc of current close to the skin

b)

contact with a high voltage source

c)

inhalation of hot vapors

d)

skin contact with acidic or alkaline substance

67.

What is sun exposure

a)

result from high-temp arc of current close to the skin

b)

contact with a high voltage source

c)

inhalation of hot vapors

d)

overexposure to UV radiation

68.

What are abrasions and how do you treat them

a)

rubbing/friction injury

b)

a sizable cut

c)

involves epidermis and possible the uppermost portion of dermis

d)

self-treatment unless wounds are deep

e)

need to see a physician for treatment

69.

What describes punctures and how do you treat them

a)

result of a sharp object piercing epidermis

b)

difficult to cleanse - need to check for foreign bodies

c)

self-treatment not advised

d)

self-treatment - disinfect and bandage

70.

What are lacerations and how do you treat them

a)

sharp object cutting/slicing through skin

b)

self-treatment depending on depth

c)

professional help if stiches are needed

d)

rubbing/friction injury

71.

What describes chronic wounds

a)

wounds that do not proceed through the 3 phases in a timely fashion

b)

underlying disease/external factors contribute to poor healing

c)

wounds that heal quickly

d)

wounds that become infected

72.

When should a chronic wound be referred for further medical evaluation

a)

after 1 month

b)

after 3 months

c)

after 1 year

d)

all wounds should be evaluated

73.

How do you get pressure ulcers

a)

unrelieved pressure

b)

shearing forces

c)

friction

d)

moisture

e)

stress

74.

What are the risk factors for increased chances of pressure ulcers

a)

advanced age

b)

obesity

c)

malnutrition

d)

incontinence

e)

immobility

75.

What are characteristics of arterial ulcers

a)

secondary to PVD

b)

often occur in lower extremities

c)

can be very painful

d)

result from dysfunction of venous valves

76.

What are venous ulcers

a)

result from dysfunction of venous valves

b)

incompetent/damaged valves allow pooling of blood and high venous pressure in legs

c)

result of dysfunction from arterial valves

d)

incompetent/damaged valves allowing pooling of blood and high arterial pressure in legs

77.

What are the treatment goals for wounds

a)

promote healing

b)

protect from further trauma

c)

prevent infection

d)

minimize pain, scarring, deformity, loss of function

78.

What are some exclusions for self-treatment of sunburn

a)

fever, extreme pain, severe swelling

b)

large areas of blistering, signs of infection

c)

headache/confusion, visual changes/dizziness

d)

redness, peeling, minimal pain

79.

What are some exclusions for self-treatment for minor burns and wounds

a)

chemical, electrical, inhalation burns; deep partial thickness/full thickness burns

b)

wounds due to human/animal bite; signs of infection; wounds with foreign bodies after irrigation

c)

non-accidental injuries, chronic wounds, larger than 3 inches

d)

wounds on face, hands, genitals, feet, or perineum

e)

worsening/unhealed after 7 days

80.

What is wound debridement

a)

cleans the wound removing dirt, debris, bacteria, eschar

b)

cleans area around wound but does not touch wound

81.

What are different types of debridement

a)

surgical

b)

enzymatic

c)

biologic

d)

saline

82.

When would surgical debridement be used and how

a)

devitalized tissue removed with sharp instrument

b)

devitalized tissue removed by pulling it out

c)

preferred for large necrotic areas and infection

d)

preferred for small delicate necrotic areas and infection

83.

When would enzymatic debridement be used and how

a)

exogenous enzymes remove necrotic tissue

b)

using Collagenase (FDA approved), Papain, Bromolain

c)

good option if unable to use surgical

d)

preferred for large necrotic areas

84.

When would biologic debridement be used and how

a)

medical maggots applies to wound area

b)

secrete proteolytic enzymes that digest necrotic tissue

c)

active chemicals work to digest necrotic tissue

85.

What are the types of irrigation used and why

a)

normal saline (preferred)

b)

sterile water

c)

removes dirt and debris

d)

begins the healing process

e)

use of antiseptics/iodine are generally unecessary

86.

What could potentially happen if you use hydrogen peroxide as an antiseptic

a)

tissue toxicity

b)

good bactericidal activity

c)

toxic to bacteria

d)

thyroid dysfunction

87.

Is isopropyl alcohol/ethyl alcohol recommended for wound cleaning

a)

yes

b)

no

88.

Is povidone/iodine recommended for wound cleaning

a)

yes

b)

no

89.

What pharmacological treatments are involved in wound care

a)

protectants

b)

analgesics

c)

complementary therapies

d)

antibiotics

e)

alcohol

90.

When should you use topical anesthetics

a)

temporary relief on minor wounds

b)

application to large wounds for pain relief

91.

What are nonpharmacological treatment options

a)

wound dressings

b)

negative pressure therapy (wound-vac)

c)

skin grafts

d)

hyperbaric oxygen therapy

92.

What would the ideal wound dressing include

a)

remove excess exudate and maintain moist (not wet) wound environment

b)

permeable to O2, thermally insulate wound, protect from infection

c)

be free of particulate or toxic contaminants

d)

be easily removable without disrupting new tissue

e)

conforms to wound shape eliminating dead space

93.

Where and what would you use "open" or absorptive dressing

a)

most useful on heavily exuding wounds

b)

adhesive bandages, gauze, composite/island dressings, carbon impregnated, alginates, foam dressings

c)

Xeroform, transparent adhesive films, liquid bandages

d)

when healing process moves to proliferative phase

94.

Where and what would you use for "semi-open" or moisture maintaining dressing

a)

most useful on heavily exuding wounds

b)

adhesive bandages, gauze, composite/island dressings, carbon impregnated, alginates, foam dressings

c)

Xeroform, transparent adhesive films, liquid bandages

d)

when healing process moves to proliferative phase

95.

Where and what would you use for "semi-occlusive" or moisture providing dressings

a)

most useful on heavily exuding wounds

b)

adhesive bandages, gauze, composite/island dressings, carbon impregnated, alginates, foam dressings

c)

dry wounds covered with dead tissue

d)

hydrocolloids, hydrogels