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Cell Bio 1

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a major type of phospholipid found in cells?

a)

Phosphatidylserine

b)

Phosphatidylcholine

c)

Phosphatidylethanolamine

d)

Triglyceride

2.

What effect do cis double bonds in fatty acids have on membrane fluidity?

a)

Increase membrane fluidity

b)

Decrease membrane fluidity

c)

Have no effect on membrane fluidity

d)

Make the membrane rigid

3.

Which type of fatty acid has straight chains that stack neatly and result in low membrane fluidity?

a)

Saturated fats

b)

Unsaturated fats

c)

Trans fats

d)

Essential fats

4.

What is the function of cholesterol at low temperatures in the membrane?

a)

Increases fluidity

b)

Decreases fluidity

c)

Acts as a receptor

d)

Creates kinks in fatty acids

5.

Which factor increases membrane fluidity?

a)

High temperature

b)

Low temperature

c)

Saturated fatty acids

d)

High cholesterol at high temperature

6.

What is the main function of receptor proteins in the cell membrane?

a)

Communication and detection of external signals

b)

Transport of molecules across the membrane

c)

Providing structural support

d)

Increasing membrane fluidity

7.

Which type of protein spans the entire membrane and is embedded within the bilayer?

a)

Integral (Transmembrane) proteins

b)

Peripheral proteins

c)

Lipid-bound proteins

d)

Glycoproteins

8.

What is the main function of channel proteins?

a)

Passive transport of molecules

b)

Active transport of ions

c)

Cell recognition

d)

Anchoring the cell

9.

Which type of protein is loosely attached to the membrane surface and is easily detached?

a)

Peripheral proteins

b)

Integral proteins

c)

Carrier proteins

d)

Lipid-bound proteins

10.

What is required for carrier proteins to move substances against the concentration gradient?

a)

ATP/energy

b)

Water

c)

Oxygen

d)

Glucose

11.

Where are lipid-bound proteins located?

a)

Inside the lipid bilayer

b)

On the outer surface of the membrane

c)

Spanning the membrane

d)

Attached to glycoproteins

12.

What do carbohydrates attach to in the membrane?

a)

Lipids or proteins

b)

Water molecules

c)

DNA

d)

Cholesterol

13.

What is the function of carbohydrates on the outer surface of the membrane?

a)

Cell recognition and communication

b)

Active transport

c)

Anchoring the cell

d)

Passive transport

14.

Which protein type is involved in passive ion/molecule transport and does not require energy?

a)

Channel (integral)

b)

Carrier (integral)

c)

Peripheral

d)

Lipid-bound

15.

Which protein type is rare and has limited function?

a)

Lipid-bound

b)

Integral

c)

Peripheral

d)

Carrier

16.

What is the direction of transport for channel (integral) proteins?

a)

High to low concentration

b)

Low to high concentration

c)

Either direction

d)

No direction

17.

What does the term "extracellular" refer to?

a)

Inside the cell

b)

Outside the cell

c)

Between cells

d)

Facing the intracellular side

18.

Which type of movement involves phospholipid flipping from one leaflet to the other and is very slow?

a)

Lateral diffusion

b)

Transbilayer diffusion (Flip-Flop)

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Osmosis

19.

Which enzyme moves phospholipids from the outer leaflet to the inner leaflet and uses ATP?

a)

Floppase

b)

Scramblase

c)

Flippase

d)

Kinase

20.

What is the direction of movement for floppase?

a)

Outer → Inner leaflet

b)

Inner → Outer leaflet

c)

Bidirectional exchange

d)

Side-to-side within the same leaflet

21.

Which type of passive transport involves the movement of water?

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Transbilayer diffusion

22.

In facilitated diffusion, what happens after the Cl⁻ ion binds to the protein channel?

a)

The protein channel closes

b)

The protein flips, exposing the chloride to the inside of the cell

c)

The protein is degraded

d)

The ion is pumped out of the cell

23.

Which type of movement is described as "fast and frequent" and occurs within the same leaflet?

a)

Transbilayer diffusion

b)

Lateral diffusion

c)

Flippase activity

d)

Osmosis

24.

What is required for catalyzed movement of phospholipids in most cases?

a)

Water

b)

ATP

c)

Oxygen

d)

Glucose

25.

Which protein catalyzes bidirectional exchange of phospholipids and does not require ATP?

a)

Flippase

b)

Floppase

c)

Scramblase

d)

Kinase

26.

During osmosis, water moves from regions of:

a)

High solute (hypertonic) to low solute (hypotonic)

b)

Low solute (hypotonic) to high solute (hypertonic)

c)

High pressure to low pressure

d)

High temperature to low temperature

27.

What is required for active transport to occur in cells?

a)

Energy (usually ATP)

b)

Oxygen

c)

Light

d)

Water

28.

Which pump moves 3 Na⁺ ions out and 2 K⁺ ions into the cell?

a)

Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump

b)

H⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump

c)

Ca²⁺/Na⁺ exchanger

d)

SGLT2 transporter

29.

What type of transport moves molecules against their concentration gradient using energy?

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

c)

Filtration

d)

Diffusion

30.

Which of the following is an example of a symporter?

a)

SGLT2 (Na⁺ + glucose into cell)

b)

Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump

c)

H⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump

d)

Digoxin

31.

What is the main function of exocytosis?

a)

To move materials out of the cell

b)

To move materials into the cell

c)

To break down proteins

d)

To synthesize DNA

32.

Where are proteins synthesized before being transported in vesicles?

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosome

33.

Which process requires a vesicle with cargo to fuse with the membrane and release contents inside the cell?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Filtration

d)

Diffusion

34.

What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in vesicular transport?

a)

Processing vesicles

b)

Synthesizing proteins

c)

Producing ATP

d)

Breaking down waste

35.

What does the term "hypertonic" refer to?

a)

Higher solute concentration

b)

Lower solute concentration

c)

Equal solute concentrations

d)

No solute present

36.

Which type of receptor binds particles coated with IgG antibodies or complement proteins?

a)

Opsonin receptors

b)

Scavenger receptors

c)

Toll-like receptors

d)

Antibodies

37.

What is the main function of phagocytosis?

a)

To engulf and digest target particles

b)

To produce antibodies

c)

To transport oxygen

d)

To synthesize proteins

38.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the phagocytosis process?

a)

Contact

b)

Binding

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Engulfing

39.

What is the typical intracellular potassium concentration in cells?

a)

~150 mM

b)

~5 mM

c)

~50 mM

d)

~500 mM

40.

Which molecule is a reactive compound that enhances damage by forming other reactive molecules inside the phagolysosome?

a)

Nitric oxide

b)

Antimicrobial peptides

c)

Binding proteins

d)

Antibodies

41.

What is the main role of antimicrobial peptides in the phagolysosome?

a)

Disrupt bacterial membranes

b)

Bind to nutrients

c)

Produce antibodies

d)

Lower pH

42.

Which of the following is true about isotonic solutions?

a)

They have equal solute concentrations on both sides of a membrane.

b)

They have higher solute concentration outside the cell.

c)

They have lower solute concentration inside the cell.

d)

They contain no solutes.

43.

Which enzyme is responsible for actively pumping K+ in and Na+ out of the cell?

a)

Na+/K+ ATPase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Amylase

44.

What is the net intracellular charge when K⁺ inside is balanced by anions such as proteins, phosphate, and chloride?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

Variable

45.

What type of channels does the membrane have that allow K⁺ to leave the cell?

a)

Sodium-selective leak channels

b)

K⁺-selective leak channels

c)

Calcium-selective leak channels

d)

Chloride-selective leak channels

46.

What happens to the membrane potential when K⁺ efflux increases?

a)

Membrane potential becomes more positive

b)

Membrane potential becomes more negative

c)

Membrane potential stays the same

d)

Membrane potential becomes zero

47.

Which force pushes K⁺ out of the cell during membrane potential development?

a)

Electrical gradient

b)

Concentration gradient

c)

Osmotic pressure

d)

Hydrostatic pressure

48.

At equilibrium, what is true about K⁺ movement across the membrane?

a)

K⁺ movement in is greater than out

b)

K⁺ movement out is greater than in

c)

K⁺ movement in equals out

d)

No K⁺ movement occurs

49.

What is the equilibrium potential for K⁺ (K⁺: ) as given in the material?

a)

+40 mV

b)

0 mV

c)

-92 mV

d)

-70 mV

50.

According to the injection thought experiment, what happens to Vm if only K⁺ permeability exists and the K⁺ concentration gradient is maintained?

a)

Vm always returns to -92 mV

b)

Vm stays at -46 mV

c)

Vm becomes positive

d)

Vm becomes zero

51.

Which two conditions must be met for a membrane potential to exist?

a)

Concentration gradient and temperature

b)

Permeability to K⁺ and membrane thickness

c)

Concentration gradient and permeability to K⁺

d)

Permeability to Na⁺ and membrane thickness

52.

What is the formula for membrane potential (Vm) for monovalent ions as given in the material?

a)

Vm = 61.5 × log([ion]in / [ion]out)

b)

Vm = 61.5 × log([ion]out / [ion]in)

c)

Vm = 58 × log([ion]out / [ion]in)

d)

Vm = 58 × log([ion]in / [ion]out)

53.

What is the formula used to calculate the membrane potential (Vm) for divalent ions such as Ca²⁺?

a)

Vm = (61.5 / z) × log([ion]out / [ion]in)

b)

Vm = (58 / z) × log([ion]in / [ion]out)

c)

Vm = (70 / z) × log([ion]out / [ion]in)

d)

Vm = (61.5 × z) × log([ion]in / [ion]out)

54.

Which ion, when it exits the cell, makes the cell membrane potential negative and close to -92 mV?

a)

Potassium (K⁺)

b)

Sodium (Na⁺)

c)

Chloride (Cl⁻)

d)

Calcium (Ca²⁺)

55.

What is the approximate membrane potential when Na⁺ enters the cell?

a)

+67 mV

b)

-92 mV

c)

-86 mV

d)

+123 mV

56.

In a real cell, what does the resting membrane potential depend on?

a)

Ion concentration gradients and relative permeability of each ion

b)

Only the concentration of potassium ions

c)

The size of the cell

d)

The temperature of the environment

57.

What is the result when the membrane potential calculation is dominated by potassium (K⁺) with 95% permeability?

a)

Membrane potential close to K⁺'s preference

b)

Membrane potential close to Na⁺'s preference

c)

Membrane potential close to Cl⁻'s preference

d)

Membrane potential close to Ca²⁺'s preference

58.

What is exocytosis used for in a cell?

a)

To remove waste or insert proteins into the cell membrane

b)

To break down glucose for energy

c)

To replicate DNA

d)

To transport oxygen

59.

What is a vesicle in the context of exocytosis?

a)

A membrane-bound bubble that encloses material inside the cell

b)

A type of protein channel

c)

A DNA segment

d)

A type of ion

60.

What happens during waste removal via exocytosis?

a)

A vesicle with waste proteins travels to the membrane, fuses, and ejects contents

b)

The cell absorbs nutrients from the environment

c)

The cell divides into two daughter cells

d)

A vesicle forms around incoming material

61.

What is the main function of endocytosis in a cell?

a)

To expel waste from the cell

b)

To bring needed substances into the cell

c)

To produce energy for the cell

d)

To divide the cell into two

62.

Which type of endocytosis is also known as "cell eating"?

a)

Pinocytosis

b)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

63.

What is a key feature of receptor-mediated endocytosis?

a)

It is non-specific

b)

It uses a lock-and-key recognition system

c)

It only occurs in plant cells

d)

It digests large particles

64.

Which type of cell junction allows direct passage of water, ions, and electrical signals between adjacent cells?

a)

Tight junctions

b)

Desmosomes

c)

Gap junctions

d)

Plasmodesmata

65.

What proteins are gap junctions made of in vertebrates?

a)

Claudins

b)

Connexins

c)

Cadherins

d)

Inexins

66.

Where are tight junctions commonly found?

a)

Cardiac muscle and neurons

b)

Organs like bladder, kidneys, and intestines

c)

Skin and heart muscle

d)

Plant cell walls

67.

Which cell junction acts like "spot welds" and is found in tissues subject to stretching?

a)

Gap junctions

b)

Tight junctions

c)

Desmosomes

d)

Plasmodesmata

68.

What is unique about plasmodesmata compared to other cell junctions?

a)

They are only found in animal cells

b)

They are specialized for plant cells and punch holes through cell walls

c)

They prevent all molecules from passing between cells

d)

They are made of connexin proteins

69.

What can mutations in gap junctions cause?

a)

Ectodermal dysplasia

b)

Skin blistering disorders

c)

Increased hormone action

d)

Enhanced nerve impulses

70.

What is a possible result of desmosome mutations?

a)

Skin blistering disorders

b)

White matter breakdown

c)

Muscle hypertrophy

d)

Enhanced cell division

71.

What is the first step in the signal transduction process?

a)

Ligand binds to a receptor

b)

Intracellular signaling proteins are activated

c)

Cellular response occurs

d)

Receptor undergoes conformational change

72.

What do ligand-gated ion channels convert?

a)

Chemical signal to electrical signal

b)

Electrical signal to chemical signal

c)

Hormone to enzyme

d)

Protein to carbohydrate

73.

Where is the binding site usually located in ligand-gated ion channels?

a)

Extracellular

b)

Intracellular

c)

On the nucleus

d)

On the mitochondria

74.

Which type of receptor is only found in eukaryotes and is the most abundant class?

a)

G-Proteins Coupled Receptors

b)

Ligand-Gated Ion Channels

c)

Voltage-Gated Ion Channels

d)

Enzyme-Linked Receptors

75.

What do G-proteins bind when they are active?

a)

GTP

b)

GDP

c)

ATP

d)

ADP

76.

What is the function of G-Proteins Coupled Receptors?

a)

Regulate smell, taste, vision, and mood

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Synthesize DNA

d)

Store calcium ions

77.

What happens to the alpha subunit of a G-protein after it exchanges GDP for GTP?

a)

It dissociates from the beta-gamma dimer

b)

It binds to the receptor

c)

It is degraded

d)

It produces ATP

78.

What do target proteins generate in the G-Protein Coupled Receptor mechanism?

a)

Second messengers

b)

Primary messengers

c)

Enzymes

d)

Hormones

79.

What is hydrolyzed to GDP to reset the system in G-protein signaling?

a)

ATP

b)

GTP

c)

cAMP

d)

ADP

80.

Which protein accelerates GTP hydrolysis to turn off the signal in G-protein signaling?

a)

Adenylate cyclase

b)

SH2 protein

c)

RGS protein

d)

Kinase

81.

What is the ligand in the example of adrenergic receptor signaling?

a)

Insulin

b)

Epinephrine

c)

NGF

d)

PDGF

82.

What does adenylate cyclase convert ATP into?

a)

GDP

b)

GTP

c)

cAMP

d)

ADP

83.

What type of proteins are enzyme-linked receptors?

a)

Transmembrane proteins

b)

Cytoplasmic proteins

c)

Nuclear proteins

d)

Extracellular proteins

84.

What is the function of enzyme-linked receptors?

a)

Store genetic information

b)

Speed up biochemical reactions

c)

Transport oxygen

d)

Break down glucose

85.

What is the ligand-binding site of enzyme-linked receptors called?

a)

Intracellular domain

b)

Extracellular domain

c)

Cytoplasmic domain

d)

Nuclear domain

86.

Which of the following is the most common type of enzyme-linked receptor?

a)

G-protein coupled receptor

b)

Receptor tyrosine kinase

c)

Ion channel receptor

d)

Steroid receptor

87.

What do receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) phosphorylate to activate signal pathways?

a)

Serine residues

b)

Threonine residues

c)

Tyrosine residues

d)

Histidine residues

88.

What can mutations in RTKs cause?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Cancer

c)

Heart disease

d)

Arthritis

89.

What is the main function of the nucleus in a cell?

a)

DNA storage

b)

Energy production

c)

Lipid destruction

d)

Protein breakdown

90.

Which organelle is responsible for energy (ATP) production in the cell?

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Lysosome

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Peroxisome

91.

What is the analogy for the Golgi Apparatus in a cell?

a)

Shipping department

b)

Powerplant

c)

Security

d)

Blueprint room

92.

Which organelle is involved in lipid/steroid production and detoxification?

a)

Smooth ER

b)

Rough ER

c)

Nucleus

d)

Lysosome

93.

What is the function of lysosomes in the cell?

a)

Protein breakdown

b)

Energy production

c)

DNA storage

d)

Lipid destruction

94.

What structure surrounds the nucleus and allows molecular exchange?

a)

Nuclear envelope

b)

Cell wall

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Mitochondrial membrane

95.

Where does transcription (DNA to RNA) occur in the cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Mitochondrion

96.

What is the site of ribosome production in the cell?

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Lysosome

d)

Peroxisome

97.

Which endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

98.

What is the main function of peroxisomes?

a)

Lipid destruction and ROS detox

b)

Protein production

c)

DNA storage

d)

Energy production