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MEB multiple choice

Total questions: 230

Worksheet time: 38hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The heat of reaction remains the same even if stoichiometric coefficients are changed

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Why do heats of reaction change if different phases are given for products and reactants?

a)

The heat of reaction must account for the phase change

b)

The reaction occurs fundamentally differently and has a completely different heat of reaction if different phases are involved

c)

Phases do not affect the heat of reaction

3.

What conditions are used for the standard heat of reaction?

a)

It depends on the reaction

b)

0 C and 1 atm

c)

25 C and 1 atm

d)

20 C and 1 atm

4.

At the conditions of interest, the heat of reaction for the equation A + 2B -> C is -140 kJ. What is the enthalpy change in kJ if 2 moles of A are consumed in the reaction?

a)

140 kJ

b)

-140 kJ

c)

280 kJ

d)

-280 kJ

5.

At the conditions of interest, the heat of reaction for the equation 2A + 3B -> is -100 kJ. What is the enthalpy change in kJ if 9 moles of B are consumed in the reaction?

a)

-100 kJ

b)

300 kJ

c)

-300 kJ

d)

900 kJ

6.

What is the main problem with using a calorimeter to determine heat of reaction?

a)

They are hard to construct and operate

b)

It can be hard to isolate the reaction of interest

c)

Calories are not an SI unit

7.

Given the following reactions, what is the enthalpy change for the reaction 3D -> A + 3B + 5C in kJ?

(1) A -> 3B + C, Hr = 100 kJ

(2) A + C -> D + B, Hr = -200 kJ

a)

-600 kJ

b)

-300 kJ

c)

100 kJ

d)

800 kJ

8.

Given the following reactions, what is the enthalpy change for the reaction 4A + 2C -> 3D + 6B in kJ?

(1) A -> 3B + C, Hr = 100 kJ

(2) A+ C -> D + B, Hr = -200 kJ

a)

800 kJ

b)

-500 kJ

c)

300 kJ

d)

400 kJ

9.

Given the following data, what is the heat of reaction for A (g) + B(g) + O2 (g) -> C (g) in kJ?

a)

255 kJ

b)

180 kJ

c)

-150 kJ

d)

-175 kJ

10.

What expression would give the heat of reaction for the reaction CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) -> CH3Cl (g) + HCl (g)?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

11.

The standard heat of formation for the oxygen atom is zero.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Which of the following are assumptions made when determining and using heats of combustion? Select all that apply.

a)

All hydrogen forms H2

b)

All sulfur forms SO2

c)

All nitrogen forms N2

d)

All carbon forms CO

e)

All sulfur forms H2S

13.

For which of the following reactions would the heat of reaction be equal to the heat of combustion? Select all that apply.

a)

CH4 + 2O2 -> 2H2O + CO2

b)

H2S + 3/2 O2 -> SO2 + H2O

c)

C2H2 + 3/2 O2 -> 2 CO + H2O

d)

NH3 + 3/4 O2 -> 1/2 N2 + 3/2 H2O

e)

C2H6 + 4 O2 + H2 -> 4 H2O + 2 CO2

14.

Select all methods discussed for choosing enthalpy reference states and calculating specific enthalpies

a)

Heat of fusion method

b)

Heat of reaction method

c)

Heat of combustion method

d)

Heat of formation method

15.

In the heat of formation method, what reference states are most convenient to choose when there are reacting species?

a)

Any convenient temperature and pressure

b)

The state of the elemental species constituting the products and reactants at STP

c)

The reactant and product species in the states for which the heat of reaction is known

16.

In the heat of formation method, what is specific enthalpy determined from?

a)

Inlet - outlet enthalpy and heat of reaction

b)

Inlet - outlet enthalpy only

17.

When should the heat of formation method be used? Select all that apply.

a)

When multiple reactions occur

b)

When only a single reaction occurs

c)

When a single reaction occurs and Delta Hr is unknown

18.

In the heat of reaction method, what reference states should you choose?

a)

Any convenient temperature and pressure

b)

The state of the elemental species constituting the products and reactants at STP

c)

The reactant and product species in the states for which the heat of reaction is known.

19.

What does solving an adiabatic energy balance typically involve?

a)

Finding expressions for the enthalpy at an unknown outlet temperature

b)

Looking up enthalpies in tables at the outlet temperature

c)

Setting all enthalpy changes to zero and solving for work

20.

In an endothermic reaction, a greater extent of reaction would correspond to a higher outlet temperature?

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The absolute value of the internal energy at specified state (temperature, pressure, and phase) can be determined by comparing its energy to a reference state.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

A reference state is an arbitrary state set to have an internal energy of zero in order to aid in the determination of specific internal energies and enthalpies for different states

a)

True

b)

False

23.

We are allowed to use hypothetical process paths in our calculations for using the specific internal energy and enthalpy because these are both state properties and do not depend on the path chose.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

When constructing a hypothetical pathway for a system undergoing a phase change, in order to evaluate the change in specific enthalpy, Ĥ, one should first calculate the ΔĤ between the current state and the substance’s normal phase transition temperature and pressure, followed by the ΔĤ of the phase transition. Finally, one should calculate the between the state after its phase transition and its final state.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

What is the reference state used in Table B.5 to determine specific internal energies and enthalpies

a)

The triple point of water: T = 0.01 C, P = 0.00611 bar

b)

The melting point of water: T = 0 C, P = 1.01325 bar

c)

The boiling point of water: T = 100 C, P = 1.01325 bar

26.

Which of the following can be used as part of a hypothetic process path to calculate the specific internal energy or enthalpy change? Select all that apply.

a)

Changes in P at constant T and a state of aggregation

b)

  Changes in T at constant P and a state of aggregation

c)

   Phase change at constant T and P

d)

 Mixing of two liquids or dissolving of a gas or a solid in a liquid at constant T and P

e)

 Chemical reaction at constant T and P

27.

Which of the following are hypothetical pathways that could be used to calculate the change in specific enthalpy for a system containing liquid ethanol (Etoh) at an initial state of (l, 20°C, 1 atm) to a final state of (g, 100°C, 1 atm)?

a)

Etoh(l, 20°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(l, 78°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 78°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 100°C, 1 atm)

b)

Etoh(l, 20°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 20°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 100°C, 1 atm)

c)

   Etoh(l, 20°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(l, 100°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 100°C, 1 atm)

d)

All of the above

28.

Which of the following hypothetical pathways for the transition of ethanol (Etoh) from an initial state of (l, 20°C, 1 atm) to a final state of (g, 100°C, 1 atm) would be the easiest to calculate given the tables in Appendix B?

a)

 Etoh(l, 20°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(l, 78°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 78°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 100°C, 1 atm)

b)

Etoh(l, 20°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 20°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 100°C, 1 atm)

c)

   Etoh(l, 20°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(l, 100°C, 1 atm) → Etoh(g, 100°C, 1 atm)

29.

Which assumptions can be applied for the isothermal processes of O2 (l, 1 atm) → O2 (l, 1000 atm)?

a)

ΔÛ and ΔĤ ~ 0

b)

ΔÛ ~ 0 and ΔĤ ≠ 0

c)

None of the above

30.

Which assumptions can be applied for the isothermal processes of O2 (g, 1 atm) → O2 (l, 0.98 atm)?

a)

ΔÛ and ΔĤ ~ 0

b)

ΔÛ ~ 0 and ΔĤ ≠ 0

c)

None of the above

31.

Which assumptions can be applied for the isothermal processes of benzene (l, 1 atm) → benzene (l, 1000 atm)?

a)

ΔÛ and ΔĤ = 0

b)

ΔÛ = 0 and ΔĤ ≠ 0

c)

None of the above

32.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Answer

a)

Solids and liquids

b)

Non-ideal gas when P is constant

c)

Ideal gas

d)

All of the above

35.

The relationship between Cv and Cp does not depend on phase.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

If the heat capacity at constant pressure for an ideal gas is 38.01 J/mol K, what is the heat capacity at constant volume for this species?

a)

46.32 J/mol K

b)

38.01 J/mol K

c)

29.70 J/mol K

d)

None of the above

37.

Estimate the heat capacity at constant pressure for liquid ethanol using Table B.10.

a)

35.3 J/mol C

b)

157 J/mol C

c)

3.41 J/mol C

d)

55 J/mol C

38.

A solute has a heat capacity of 2 cal/g °C and is in a mixture with a solvent having a heat capacity of 3.5 cal/g °C. Knowing that the mixture contains 0.1% by mass solute, it can be said that the heat capacity of the mixture is 2.75 cal/g °C.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

40.

A spreadsheet program may provide an easier method of solving polynomial functions such as heat capacity formulas.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The trapezoidal rule method of numerical integration is more accurate than Simpson’s rule.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Equations should be solved analytically when a solution cannot be found using numerical integration.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

The heat of freezing can be found by taking the negative of the heat of fusion found in the literature.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

The latent heat is the enthalpy change associated with temperature changes for a single phase system.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The latent heat of a phase change is a constant value that represents the enthalpy change of the transition at any temperature and pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Answer

a)

Isothermal

b)

Ideal gas

c)

Solid or liquid species (isobaric and isochoric)

d)

All of the above

47.

Answer

a)

Isothermal

b)

Ideal gas

c)

Solid or liquid species (isobaric and isochoric)

d)

All of the above

48.

Watson’s correlation allows you to estimate the heat of vaporization at a different temperature given an initial heat of vaporization at an initial temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Calculating specific enthalpy changes in multiphase systems can be approached in a similar manner to single-phase systems with the addition of accounting for the phase transitions of all components.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Heat is defined as positive when it is transferred from the surroundings to the system.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is meant by the term potential energy?

a)

Energy that is due to rotational motion of a system

b)

 All energy possessed by a system

c)

Energy that is due to the position of a system in a gravitational field

d)

Energy that flows in response to any driving force

53.

The law of conservation of energy states:

a)

Two systems must be in thermal equilibrium with each other.

b)

Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.

c)

Energy lost from a system must be replaced in another form.

d)

Heat and work exist only as a transfer of energy.

54.

The rate of change in the kinetic energy of a fluid flowing in a system can be found by substituting the mass flow rate into the equation for kinetic energy.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Kinetic energy equals

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

56.

What is the potential energy of water that has been pumped at a rate of 10 kg/s for 10 seconds from the ground to a point 10 m above the ground?

a)

100 J

b)

-100 J

c)

9800 J

d)

-9800 J

57.

The basic form of the first law of thermodynamics is:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

58.

If a system is not accelerating, rising, or falling, then the first law reduces to:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.

A system to which no heat is added or withdrawn is said to be:

a)

Isothermal

b)

Isobaric

c)

Adiabatic

d)

Closed

60.

Shaft work is the rate of work done by the process fluid on a moving part within the system.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Flow work is defined to be:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

H = U - PV

a)

True

b)

False

63.

If the volume of a fluid is 10 m3 and the mass of the fluid is 5 g, what is the specific volume of the fluid?

a)

50 g.m3

b)

0.5 g/m3

c)

2 m3/g

64.

A property that is defined on a specific mass or molar basis is what type of quantity?

a)

Extensive

b)

Intensive

c)

Neither

65.

The first law of thermodynamics for an open system at steady-state has the form “input = output.”

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Simplify Eq. 7.4-15 for a system with all streams at the same height and no moving parts.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

67.

At the reference state, Ĥ = 0.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The changes in the enthalpy and internal energy of a substance depend on the path the substance follows from the initial state to the final state.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

The specific enthalpy of vapor A relative to liquid A at 0°C and 1 atm is 2000 J/kg. What is the Ĥ of the liquid A at 0°C and 1 atm? The reference state for this liquid is 0°C and 1 atm.

a)

2,000 J/kg

b)

0 J/kg

c)

1,000 J/kg

70.

Which of the following are state properties? Select all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

71.

In the superheated steam table, there are temperatures and pressures where the water is a liquid.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

In the superheated steam tables, if you are given a temperature and a pressure of water, you can locate the specific properties at the intersection of the column corresponding to the given temperature and the row corresponding to the given pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The reference state for Û or Ĥ in the saturated steam tables is relative to liquid water at the triple point.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

At points on the vapor–liquid equilibrium curve on a phase diagram, water may be:

a)

Saturated liquid

b)

Saturated Steam (vapor)

c)

Mixture of both saturated liquid and saturated steam

d)

All of the above

75.

The difference between the specific enthalpy of saturated liquid and saturated steam is the:

a)

Heat of vaporization

b)

Heat of condensation

c)

Heat of sublimation

76.

The change in internal energy equals the heat (Q) in open systems.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

What type of substance has a temperature above its critical temperature and a pressure above its critical pressure?

a)

Liquid

b)

Gas

c)

Supercritical fluid

78.

Mechanical and energy balances can be solved simultaneously.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

When process streams contain several components, the specific enthalpies of each component must be determined separately and substituted in the energy balance equation when the total change in enthalpy in all components is evaluated.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

It is important to distinguish the state of a species (i.e., solid, liquid, vapor) during energy balance calculations.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

It is not common to neglect the kinetic and potential energy changes relative to enthalpy changes for processes that involve phase changes, chemical reactions, or large temperature changes.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Refer to Figure 6.1-1. If the pressure is 3 mm Hg, at what temperature(s) would you expect water to be a solid? Select all that apply.

a)

-7 C

b)

20 C

c)

0.0098 C

d)

260 K

83.

Refer to Figure 6.1-1. If the temperature is 2°C, at what pressure(s) would you expect water to be a vapor?

a)

1 atm

b)

17.535 mm Hg

c)

3 mm Hg

84.

Above and to the right of the critical point is a phase called the supercritical fluid, which is where separate phases do not coexist.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

“Volatility” means tendency to explode.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Which of the following is a measure of volatility?

a)

Entropy

b)

Density

c)

Delta H rxn

d)

p*

e)

specific gravity

87.

What does latent heat of vaporization measure?

a)

  The temperature at which a substance vaporizes

b)

The energy per mole required to vaporize a liquid

c)

 The amount of energy left behind after a substance vaporizes

88.

Equal temperature reference-substance plots are intended to do what?

a)

Relate the vapor pressure of a substance of interest to the vapor pressure of a known (reference) compound.

b)

Relate the vapor pressure of a substance of interest to temperature linearly.

c)

 Show that the vapor pressures of all substances change in exactly the same way.

89.

Which of the following would be considered intensive variables? Select all that apply.

a)

Temperature

b)

Cost

c)

Cost per pound

d)

Pressure

e)

Weight

90.

Under which conditions should the Gibbs phase rule not be applied?

a)

No reactions occur.

b)

The compounds all have similar density.

c)

 The system contains a liquid phase.

d)

None of the above

91.

How many degrees of freedom are there if water and ethanol exist in equilibrium in both the liquid and vapor phases?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

92.

What term is applied to a gas phase saturated with a liquid that it coexists with?

a)

At equilibrium

b)

Wet

c)

Vapor

d)

Super-cooled

93.

If the partial pressure of component A exceeds the vapor pressure of component A, which of the following will occur?

a)

The substance will boil.

b)

 Temperature will increase.

c)

The substance will condense.

d)

Nothing; this is normal.

e)

None of the above.

94.

What is a possible cause of dry skin during the winter?

a)

Furnaces remove water from the air.

b)

There is less water in the air because the vapor pressure of water goes down, causing evaporation from skin.

c)

Heating causes the vapor pressure of water to increase without raising the partial pressure of water in the air.

95.

Which of the following systems most closely corresponds to having 100% humidity?

a)

A bottle filled to the top with water, containing no air

b)

A misty bathroom after a shower

c)

 A pot of boiling water

96.

You cannot change the pressure of an incompressible liquid.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

What does it mean for a substance to be “incompressible”?

a)

 The pressure of the substance cannot be changed.

b)

The density of the substance is not significantly affected when pressure changes.

c)

 The substance is in its most compressed form.

98.

The volume additivity assumption is most likely valid when dealing with which of the following?

a)

Mixtures of liquids with similar molecular structures

b)

  Mixtures of liquids with different molecular structures

c)

Mixtures of liquids with very large volumes

99.

The ideal-gas equation of state provides accurate results under all conditions of temperature and pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

At what pressure will a gas deviate from ideal behavior?

a)

At pressures above 1 atm

b)

 At pressures below 1 atm

c)

 Pressure does not affect ideal-gas behavior.

101.

An equation of state relates the molar quantity and volume of a gas to:

a)

 Pressure

b)

Temperature

c)

Both temperature and pressure

102.

For the SI system, standard temperature and pressure are:

a)

 273 K and 1 atm

b)

273°C and 1 atm

c)

273 K and 10 atm

103.

What happens to the volume of an ideal gas if you halve the temperature at a fixed pressure?

a)

The volume is halved.

b)

The volume remains the same.

c)

The volume doubles.

104.

A volumetric flowrate of 20 SCMH represents:

a)

20 mol/hr at STP

b)

  20 m3/hr at STP

105.

For an ideal-gas mixture, the mole fraction equals the volume fraction.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

The partial pressures of the component species of an ideal-gas mixture add up to the total pressure of the mixture.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

For a mixture that is 70% N2 and 30% H2O by volume at a total pressure of 10 atm, what is the partial pressure of N2?

a)

3 atm

b)

7 atm

c)

Need more information

108.

The critical pressure is the pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

The terms gas and vapor can be used interchangeably; there is no technical difference between these terms.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Using Table B.1, what is the critical temperature of toluene in Kelvin (K)?

a)

647.4 K

b)

593.9 K

c)

508.8 K

111.

What is the term used to describe the temperature point above which a gas cannot be liquefied, whatever pressure is applied?

a)

Critical temperature

b)

Critical pressure

c)

 Supercritical temperature

112.

If process conditions are such that the ideal-gas equation of state is a poor approximation, a more complex species-specific equation of state must be used.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

The ideal-gas equation of state cannot be obtained from the virial equation of state.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

The Pitzer acentric factor is a parameter that reflects the geometry and polarity of a molecule.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

The second virial coefficient, B, in the virial equation of state is a function of:

a)

Pressure

b)

Temperature

c)

Volume

116.

All equations of state are approximations.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

The compressibility factor, z, is a measurement used to determine the extent to which the gas is behaving nonideally.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

An ideal gas has a compressibility factor of 1.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

If the compressibility factor is greater than 1, the gaseous species behaves as:

a)

 A nonideal gas

b)

An ideal gas

c)

 A vapor

120.

The compressibility factor, z, depends on the temperature, pressure, and chemical species.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

According to the generalized compressibility charts, as pressure approaches the critical pressure there are decreasing deviations from ideal-gas behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Absolute temperature and pressure must be used when working with the law of corresponding states.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

A compressibility chart for each species would be required to find the compressibility factor if the critical temperature and pressure were not converted to a generalized reduced temperature and pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

For which gas(es) must Newton’s corrections be used? Select all that apply.

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Helium

d)

Carbon Dioxide

125.

Kay’s Rule estimates pseudocritical properties of mixtures as simple averages of pure-component critical constants.

a)


True

b)

False

126.

Pseudocritical constants can be calculated by weighting the critical constants for each mixture component by the mole fraction of that component in the mixture.

a)


True

b)

False

127.

Kay’s Rule can be used to accurately describe mixtures of nonpolar compounds whose critical temperature and critical pressure are within a factor of 100 of one another.

a)


True

b)

False

128.

Which values can be calculated using Kay’s Rule? Select all that apply.

a)


 Pseudocritical temperature

b)

Pseudocritical pressure

c)

Pseudocritical volume

129.

A continuous process is considered to be transient during the start-up phase and immediately following process changes.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

A continuous process is considered to be at steady-state during the initial start-up of a system and at unsteady-state after a long period of time has elapsed.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

Continuous processes are most commonly used to produce a relatively small amount of a particular product on a single occasion.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

Which of the following would be classified as a continuous process?

a)

1 kg/s of salt is mixed with a stream of water flowing through a mixing chamber at a rate of 100 kg/s.

b)

Water is stirred in a container to which sodium acetate is being slowly added.

c)

Chicken is baked for 45 minutes at 400°F.

133.

Which of the following would be classified as a semi-batch process?

a)

1 kg/s of salt is mixed with a stream of water flowing through a mixing chamber at a rate of 100 kg/s.

b)

Water is stirred in a container to which sodium acetate is being slowly added.

c)

Chicken is baked for 45 minutes at 400°F.

134.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

135.

What kind of balance (differential or integral) should be used to determine how many gallons of water are purified per minute in a purification process that operates continuously at steady-state?

a)

Differential

b)

Integral

c)

Both

d)

Neither

136.

Two gases are charged into a closed reaction chamber and allowed to react. What kind of balance (differential or integral) should be used to determine the mass of product produced after the system has come to equilibrium?

a)

Differential

b)

Integral

c)

Both

d)

Neither

137.

For a continuous, steady-state reactor, a mass balance on a nonreactive species would yield the material balance equation to be: Input = Output

a)

True

b)

False

138.

For a continuous, steady-state reactor, a mass balance on a nonreactive species would yield the material balance equation to be: Input = Output

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

139.

Which statement(s) is(are) false about a semi-batch process?

a)

It is neither a continuous nor a batch process.

b)

Accumulation is always greater than zero for all species present in the system.

c)

We can write a balance on the system between two intervals of time.

d)

All of the above.

140.

For a batch reactor, the material balance equation for a reactive species is the same as one for a continuous, steady-state reactor; therefore, we can conclude that accumulation is equal to zero in a batch reactor just as it is in a continuous, steady-state reactor.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

142.

Answer

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

H

143.

Answer

a)

The input stream would have a molar flow rate of 400 mol/hr.

b)

Both the output streams would have a molar flow rate of 200 mol/hr.

c)

In a scale-up, the mole fractions do not change because A and B still exist in the same distribution ratio regardless of the amount of feed.

d)

The input stream mole fractions would be 1.40 mol A/mol and 0.6 mol B/mol.

144.

Answer

a)

50 kg/hr

b)

70 kg/hr

c)

80 kg/hr

d)

200 kg/hr

145.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

146.

Answer

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

147.

Answer

a)

2

b)

0

c)

3

d)

4

148.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

149.

If the number of degrees of freedom in a system is greater than or equal to one, there is no point in doing any calculations, because a unique solution cannot be found for any of the unknowns in the system.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

A degree-of-freedom analysis can be performed before any calculations are performed.

a)

True

b)

False

151.

Answer

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

152.

How should we approach the degree-of-freedom (DOF) analysis for multiple-unit processes?

a)

Only carry out the DOF analysis on the overall process.

b)

Only carry out the DOF analysis on each subsystem of the process.

c)

Only carry out the DOF analysis on the individual process units.

d)

Carry out the DOF analysis on the overall process and subsystems of the process.

153.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

154.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

155.

When analyzing a multiple-unit process, one is required to solve the overall balance first before solving other subsystems.

a)

True

b)

False

156.

If the degrees of freedom for one subsystem are zero, one may assume that the variables in that subsystem are considered “known” when proceeding to solve the next subsystem.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

Answer

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

158.

Answer

a)

80

b)

20

c)

160

d)

40

159.

Which of the following cannot be said about a reactant that is present in 30% excess in the feed?

a)

The fractional excess of the reactant is 0.30.

b)

The reactant is present in more than its stoichiometric proportion relative to other reactants.

c)

The reactant is present in less than its stoichiometric amount relative to other reactants.

d)

0.30 is the ratio of the excess amount of reactant to the stoichiometric amount of reactant.

160.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

161.

Answer

a)

0.25

b)

0.3

c)

0.7

d)

3.5

162.

Systems that involve chemical reactions can be analyzed using atomic balances, which will reduce the general balance equation for a steady-state reactive process to be Input = Output.

a)

True

b)

False

163.

Answer

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

164.

In order for two molecular species to be considered independent in a reactive process, they must be present in the same ratio to each other when they appear in the process.

a)

True

b)

False

165.

When we utilize the technique of molecular species balance to determine unknown variables for a reactive process, then in the degree-of-freedom analysis, each chemical reaction introduces an additional unknown.

a)

True

b)

False

166.

Answer

a)

True

b)

False

167.

Every independent reaction in a system adds how many degrees of freedom?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

1 for generation + 1 for consumption

d)

The number of degrees of freedom depends on the stoichiometry of the reaction.

168.

When we utilize the technique of atomic species balance to determine unknown variables for a reactive process, then in the degree-of-freedom analysis, each chemical reaction is an additional unknown.

a)

True

b)

False

169.

Generally, in this course, we assume that atomic species are not created or destroyed.

a)

True

b)

False

170.

Material balances carried out via the molecular species method, the atomic species method, or the extent of reaction method will always yield the same results.

a)

True

b)

False

171.

When we utilize the technique of extent of reaction to determine unknown variables for a reactive process, then in the degree-of-freedom analysis, each chemical reaction introduces an additional unknown.

a)

True

b)

False

172.

The overall and single-pass conversions are calculated separately for each individual reactant.

a)

True

b)

False

173.

The single-pass conversion is based only on the streams entering and leaving the reactor, while the overall conversion is based on the streams entering and leaving the overall process.

a)

True

b)

False

174.

Answer

a)

The overall conversion is 100%.

b)

The overall conversion is less than 100%.

c)

The single-pass conversion is 100 %.

d)

The single-pass conversion less than 100%.

e)

The overall conversion is greater than the single-pass conversion.

175.

Purge streams are necessary mainly for inert or insoluble substances because they can accumulate and disrupt the steady-state process of a system.

a)

True

b)

False

176.

A purge stream can be used_________.

a)

In conjunction with a recycle stream

b)

To avoid unwanted material buildup in a process

c)

To allow some process to reach steady-state

d)

All of the above

177.

Partial combustion of butane will include CO2 as a product.

a)

True

b)

False

178.

Theoretical air is the amount of O2 needed for the complete combustion of all the fuel fed to a reactor.

a)

True

b)

False

179.

Which of the following is a product in the incomplete combustion reaction of ethane? Select all that apply.

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Carbon monoxide

c)

Water

d)

Ethane

180.

Propane undergoes an incomplete combustion reaction. We are told that 200 mol/min of propane is fed to a combustion chamber, and the fractional conversion of propane is 0.3. What quantities and values would be needed to calculate the theoretical amount of oxygen? Select all that apply

a)

The amount of propane fed to the reactor (200 mol/min)

b)

The stoichiometric coefficients of propane and oxygen in the complete combustion reaction

c)

The stoichiometric coefficients of propane and oxygen in the incomplete combustion reaction

d)

The fractional conversion of propane (0.3)

181.

The calculations for percent excess air and theoretical air do not consider the presence of incomplete combustion reactions.

a)

True

b)

False

182.

The value for theoretical air (in moles) will always be greater than the value for theoretical oxygen.

a)

True

b)

False

183.

The density of a given substance could either increase or decrease with an increase in temperature, depending on conditions and the nature of the substance.

a)

True

b)

False

184.

Which of the following are units of density? Select all that apply.

a)

g/cm3

b)

m3/kg

c)

lbm/km3

d)

lbf/ft3

185.

What is the most common reference density used in specific gravity calculations?

a)

 Ethanol at 20°C

b)

 Ethanol at 20°C

c)

Water at 4°C

d)

Mercury at 20°C

186.

If 5.0 mL of benzene has a density of 0.879 g/cm3, what is its mass in mg?

a)

5.7 mg

b)

4400 mg

c)

4.4 mg

d)

5700 mg

187.

It is possible to determine the volumetric flow rate from the mass flow rate and the specific gravity of a fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

188.

What is the mass flow rate of diethyl ether (in kg/s) given a volumetric flow rate of 0.36 m3/h and a density of 708 kg/m3?

a)

 0.07 kg/s

b)

250 kg/s

c)

0.55 kg/s

d)

2000 kg/s

189.

A rotameter can be used to measure the flow rate of both liquids and gases.

a)

True

b)

False

190.

Venturi meters measure flow rates by decreasing the cross-sectional area of a pipe and then increasing the area back to the original size and measuring the pressure drop between a point before the meter and when the pipe has the smallest diameter. Orifice meters also measure the pressure drop between two points to measure flow rates. However, between the measured points is an obstruction along the walls of the pipe. Which device, venturi or orifice meter, would you expect to have a lower pressure drop across the meter?

a)

Orifice meter

b)

Venturi meter

191.

How many tons of CO2 are in 2 ton-moles of carbon dioxide?

a)

56 tons

b)

44 tons

c)

22 tons

d)

88 tons

192.

The mass of a lb-mole is 1 lbm for every mole of substance.

a)

True

b)

False

193.

What is the molar flow rate (in lb-mole/min) of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) given a volumetric flow rate of 55.0 ft3/min? Ethylene has an SG of 1.113.

a)

0.887

b)

3820

c)

61.6

d)

0.987

194.

A basis of calculation can be taken if needed to convert a set of mole fractions to mass fractions.

a)

True

b)

False

195.

Mass and mole fractions are dependent on their units and require conversions to be expressed in alternate units.

a)

True

b)

False

196.

The average molecular weight of a mixture can be calculated by summing the individual molecular weights of each species and dividing by the total number of species.

a)

True

b)

False

197.

Which of the following have units corresponding to concentrations? Select all that apply.

a)

mol/L

b)

g/mL

c)

kg of A/kg of solution

d)

mL of A/L of solution

198.

It is possible to calculate the volume of a species in a solution given the concentration and number of moles of the species.

a)

True

b)

False

199.

All of the following are acceptable units of pressure except:

a)

Pa

b)

lbf/ft2

c)

mm of H2O

d)

N/m3

200.

You must know the densities of two fluids in order to convert between pressures expressed as heads of each fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

201.

An absolute pressure can have a negative value.

a)

True

b)

False

202.

Which of the following is not a correct value of atmospheric pressure?

a)

760 torr

b)

14.696 psi

c)

1.01325 kPa

d)

1.01325 bar

203.

Which of the following are equivalent to 15 torr of vacuum?

a)

745 mm Hg absolute

b)

14.696 psi

c)

1.01325 kPa

d)

1.01325 bar

204.

Two points in a manometer at the same height that are connected by the same fluid always have the same pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

205.

Suppose an angled differential manometer is made such that the U-shape of the manometer connects to a pipe at a 45-degree angle. Which manometer will more precisely detect a smaller difference in fluid heights?

a)

 The angled differential manometer is more precise.

b)

 The standard differential manometer is more precise.

c)

 Both manometers are equally precise.

206.

Which of the following temperature scales have the same intervals? Select all that apply.

a)

Rankine and Celsius

b)

Fahrenheit and Rankine

c)

Celsius and Kelvin

d)

Kelvin and Fahrenheit

207.

An equivalent temperature range of 293 to 310 Kelvin in Fahrenheit has a difference of 17 degrees

a)

True

b)

False

208.

At what temperature are both the Fahrenheit and Celsius temperature scales equivalent?

a)

-40°F

b)

0°C

c)

44°F

d)

40°C

209.

The bold term in the following statement is a dimension.“The acceleration due to gravity on earth is about 9.8 m/s2.”

a)

True

b)

False

210.

Any valid conversion factor will reduce to the dimensionless numerical value 1.

a)

True

b)

False

211.

m3, m/s, kg.m/s2, and cm are all examples of compound units.

a)

True

b)

False

212.

The unit of distance “feet” is a base unit of the American engineering system of units.

a)

True

b)

False

213.

When you multiply or divide two numbers, the number of significant figures in the result is equivalent to the lowest number of significant figures in either of the two numbers.

a)

True

b)

False

214.

In general, the greater the value of sample standard deviation, the greater the accuracy of the associated experimental value.

a)

True

b)

False

215.

In general, the more samples that are used to calculate a sample mean, the more accurate the sample mean will be.

a)

True

b)

False

216.

The following is a valid equation.C (cm/min) = Co (cm/min) + g (m/s2) t(s)

a)

True

b)

False

217.

The acceleration of gravity on earth is about 32.174 ft/s2. What would be the gravitational force (in lbf) of an object having a mass of 20 lbm, if that object were on the surface of a planet with a gravitational acceleration equal to 3 times that of Earth?

a)

20/3 lbf

b)

60 lbf

c)

1930.44 lbf

d)

20 lbf

218.

Which unit system is the unit of distance “meters” a base unit of?

a)

American Engineering

b)

SI

c)

CGS

219.

The unit of time “s” is what kind of unit?

a)

base

b)

derived

c)

multiple

220.

Which of the reasons below best explains why the weight of an object would be different on the moon than at sea level but the mass would stay the same?

a)

 An object weighs more on the moon.

b)

An object is heavier on the moon.

c)

The scale to measure weight is different on the moon.

d)

 The gravitational constant g is not the same on the moon as it is at sea level.

221.

The total mass of 6 identical cubes is reported to be 45.25 g. In order to determine the mass of a single cube, you enter 45.25/6 into your calculator. After completing the calculation, the screen of your calculator reads “7.5416666666667.” What is the mass of a single cube, rounded to the correct number of significant figures?

a)

7 g

b)

8 g

c)

7.542 g

d)

7.5416666666667 g

222.

Which of the following solutions is not physically possible? (Note: more than one response can be selected.)

a)

 The density of an alloy comprised mainly of copper is calculated to be 100 g/m3.

b)

The final temperature of steam at 1 atm in an expansion process is calculated to be 65°C.

c)

CO2 emissions in a power plant are calculated to be 3000 tons/h.

d)

 The growth rate of a population is calculated to be negative.

223.

You can validate quantitative results by:

a)

 Substituting the results back into the equation you used to solve for the values

b)

 Comparing the results to an estimated solution obtained using rounded values

c)

Checking to see if the results are logical

d)

All three choices

224.

Suppose you are producing ammonia in a batch process. After 1 hour, the reaction terminates and you withdraw n moles of ammonia. You perform 20 successive trials (keeping everything constant in each trial) and find that the sample mean of n moles of ammonia after 1 hour is 0.175 moles. Which of the following will most likely take place?

a)

In some runs, we withdrew 0.175 moles of ammonia after 1 hour.

b)

In all runs, we withdrew 0.175 moles of ammonia after 1 hour.

c)

In each successive run, the amount of moles of ammonia withdrawn after 1 hour could have been above or below 0.175.

d)

In some runs, we withdrew 0.175 moles of ammonia after 1 hour, and in each successive run, the amount of moles of ammonia withdrawn after 1 hour could have been above or below 0.175.

225.

Which is consistent through the following equation?W(Btu) = P(Pa)ΔV1(m3) + W0(Btu)

a)

 The dimensions

b)

 The units

c)

Both

d)

Neither

226.

Linear extrapolation would provide a reasonable estimate for y(x), where the value of x lies far outside of any two consecutive plotted points in the following figure:

a)

True

b)

False

227.

Exponential and power functions are just two examples of the many types of functions that can be rearranged to fit the form of a linear equation.

a)

True

b)

False

228.

In order to get a straight line for the following function of y in terms of x: y = a exp(b/x)ln(y) would be plotted on the vertical axis, and b/x would be plotted on the horizontal axis.

a)

True

b)

False

229.

Which of the following equations would appear as a straight line on a semilog plot? (Note: more than one response can be selected.)

a)

y = 5 exp(2.3x)

b)

 y = 3x5

c)

y = (2)·4x

d)

y = 5 exp(1.1x) + 400

230.

Suppose you have an exponential function in the form y = aebx. Plotting y vs. x using a semilog scale and plotting ln(y) vs. x using a rectangular scale will both yield the following formula for slope.Slope = ln (y2/y1)/(x2 − x1)

a)

True

b)

False