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Final Exam prep chapters 5, 6, 11

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

DNA replication

c)

Energy production

d)

Lipid metabolism

2.

Where is most of the cellular DNA located in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

3.

What is the role of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Lipid storage

d)

DNA replication

4.

Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?

a)

Synthesizes proteins

b)

Regulates traffic of materials into and out of the cell

c)

Stores genetic material

d)

Produces energy

5.

What is the cell membrane primarily composed of?

a)

A single layer of proteins

b)

A phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

c)

Carbohydrate particles

d)

Nucleic acids

6.

Which part of the cell contains everything except the nucleus?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

7.

What is the cytosol?

a)

The part of the cytoplasm that includes organelles

b)

The entire content inside a cell

c)

Fluid cytoplasm not contained inside another compartment

d)

The nucleus of the cell

8.

What is the primary function of the cell membrane as described in the text?

a)

To provide structural support to the cell

b)

To maintain a constant internal environment

c)

To store genetic information

d)

To produce energy for the cell

9.

Why is the cell membrane considered selectively permeable?

a)

It allows all substances to pass through freely

b)

It prevents any substances from passing through

c)

It selectively allows certain substances to pass through while blocking others

d)

It changes permeability based on the temperature

10.

Which of the following is a role of the proteins found in the cell membrane?

a)

To replicate DNA

b)

To bind and adhere to adjacent cells

c)

To catalyze metabolic reactions inside the cell

d)

To transport hormones to the brain

11.

What is the primary function of ribosomes in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Energy production

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Lipid synthesis

d)

DNA replication

12.

What are the components of ribosomes?

a)

Ribosomal proteins only

b)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) only

c)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and more than 50 different protein molecules

d)

DNA and proteins

13.

What distinguishes the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Presence of ribosomes

b)

Ability to synthesize proteins

c)

Larger surface area

d)

Absence of a membrane

14.

Which organelle is responsible for the chemical modification of proteins?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondrion

15.

Where do protein-containing vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum first transfer substances?

a)

trans face of the Golgi apparatus

b)

cis face of the Golgi apparatus

c)

medial face of the Golgi apparatus

d)

lysosome

16.

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Lipid synthesis and chemical modification of proteins

c)

DNA replication

d)

Packaging of proteins

17.

What is the primary function of vacuoles in plant cells?

a)

To store waste products and toxic compounds

b)

To provide structure by creating turgor pressure

c)

To produce energy for the cell

d)

To synthesize proteins

18.

What is the first step in the infection process of a bacteriophage?

a)

The phage DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome.

b)

The bacteriophage binds to the bacterium.

c)

The host DNA is digested.

d)

New phage DNA is synthesized.

19.

During the lysogenic cycle, what significant event occurs involving phage DNA?

a)

The phage DNA is digested.

b)

The phage DNA enters the host cell.

c)

The phage DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome and becomes a noninfective prophage.

d)

The host cell transcribes and translates phage DNA.

20.

What triggers the transition from the lysogenic to lytic cycle in bacteriophages?

a)

The bacteriophage binds to another bacterium.

b)

The host cell transcribes and translates phage DNA.

c)

Under certain conditions, the prophage excises itself from the host chromosome.

d)

New phage DNA is synthesized using nucleotides from former host DNA.

21.

What is the outcome of the lytic cycle in bacteriophages?

a)

The phage DNA integrates into the host's DNA.

b)

The host cell remains intact and continues normal functions.

c)

New phages are assembled and the host cell lyses, releasing them.

d)

The phage DNA is digested.

22.

What phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle is characterized by DNA replication?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

M phase

d)

G2 phase

23.

During which phase of the cell cycle does cytokinesis occur, completing the process of cell division?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

M phase

d)

Interphase

24.

At which point do cells that do not divide typically arrest in the cell cycle?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

S

d)

G2

25.

What type of cell division is responsible for the reproduction of the entire single-celled prokaryotic organism?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Binary fission

d)

Cytokinesis

26.

Which factors usually signal cell division in prokaryotes?

a)

Genetic mutations

b)

Internal cellular damage

c)

Nutrient concentration and environmental conditions

d)

Cellular age

27.

What occurs during the prophase stage of mitosis in an animal cell?

a)

The nuclear envelope breaks down and kinetochore microtubules appear.

b)

Chromosomes line up at the cell's equator.

c)

The paired sister chromatids separate.

d)

The daughter chromosomes reach the poles.

28.

During which phase of mitosis do the centromeres become aligned at the cell's equator?

a)

Telophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase

29.

In which phase of mitosis do the paired sister chromatids separate and begin to move toward the poles?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

30.

What marks the end of telophase in mitosis?

a)

Chromosomes reach the poles.

b)

Nuclear envelope re-forms.

c)

Chromosomes line up at the equator.

d)

Sister chromatids separate.

31.

What are chromatids called after they separate during mitosis?

a)

Sister chromatids

b)

Daughter chromosomes

c)

Parental chromosomes

d)

Mitotic spindles

32.

What do chromatids share before they separate during mitosis?

a)

A nucleus

b)

A centrosome

c)

A centromere

d)

A cell membrane

33.

What is the key difference between metaphase of mitosis and metaphase I of meiosis?

a)

In metaphase of mitosis, homologous chromosomes pair at the metaphase plate.

b)

In metaphase I of meiosis, individual chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.

c)

In metaphase of mitosis, individual chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.

d)

In metaphase I of meiosis, centromeres separate.

34.

During anaphase of mitosis, what significant event occurs?

a)

Homologous chromosomes pair.

b)

Centromeres do not separate.

c)

Centromeres separate, and sister chromatids separate.

d)

DNA replicates.

35.

What is the outcome of meiosis II in terms of the cells produced?

a)

Two diploid daughter cells.

b)

Four diploid daughter cells.

c)

Four haploid daughter cells.

d)

Two haploid daughter cells.

36.

Which phase of meiosis involves the pairing and crossing over of homologous chromosomes?

a)

Prophase of mitosis

b)

Metaphase I of meiosis

c)

Prophase I of meiosis

d)

Anaphase of mitosis

37.

What is the orientation of the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts of phospholipids in a biological membrane?

a)

Hydrophilic heads face inward and hydrophobic tails face outward

b)

Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails both face outward

c)

Hydrophilic heads face outward and hydrophobic tails face inward

d)

Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails both face inward

38.

Which factor does NOT vary among phospholipids in biological membranes?

a)

Presence of fatty acid chains

b)

Length of fatty acid chains

c)

Degree of unsaturation

d)

Number of phosphate groups

39.

What role does cholesterol play in the membrane structure?

a)

Decreases membrane fluidity

b)

Increases membrane permeability

c)

Modulates membrane fluidity

d)

Eliminates membrane fluidity

40.

How do unsaturated long-chain fatty acids affect the fluidity of the membrane compared to saturated fatty acids?

a)

They decrease fluidity by packing more densely.

b)

They increase fluidity by packing less densely and having kinks.

c)

They have no effect on membrane fluidity.

d)

They increase fluidity by packing more densely.

41.

What adaptation do some organisms use to maintain membrane fluidity in cold temperatures?

a)

They increase the number of saturated fatty acids.

b)

They decrease the overall lipid content of the membrane.

c)

They replace saturated membranes with unsaturated fatty acids and shorter tails.

d)

They remove all fatty acids from the membrane.

42.

What is the function of aquaporins in cell membranes?

a)

They transport ions across membranes.

b)

They facilitate the diffusion of water across membranes.

c)

They synthesize proteins within the cell.

d)

They convert glucose into energy.

43.

What is diffusion in the context of substances crossing membranes?

a)

The process where substances move from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration until equilibrium is reached.

b)

The process of random movement toward equilibrium where substances move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

c)

The movement of substances facilitated by transport proteins across a membrane.

d)

The active transport of molecules against the concentration gradient using energy.

44.

Until when does the net movement of substances continue during diffusion?

a)

Until all molecules are evenly distributed.

b)

Until the concentration gradient disappears.

c)

Until equilibrium is reached.

d)

Until the membrane becomes impermeable.

45.

What is osmosis?

a)

Movement of solutes from high to low concentration

b)

Diffusion of water molecules

c)

Active transport of ions

d)

Energy-dependent transport of molecules

46.

What does isotonic mean in the context of osmosis?

a)

Lower solute concentration

b)

Higher solute concentration

c)

Equal solute concentrations

d)

No solute concentration

47.

Which term describes a solution with higher solute concentration relative to another solution?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Equitonic

48.

What does hypotonic mean in terms of solute concentration?

a)

Equal solute concentrations

b)

Higher solute concentration

c)

Lower solute concentration

d)

No solute concentration

49.

What happens to an animal cell if placed in a hypotonic solution?

a)

It will swell and burst

b)

It will stiffen but retain its shape due to the cell wall

c)

It will undergo crenation

d)

It will undergo plasmolysis

e)

No change will occur

50.

What happens to a plant cell if placed in a hypertonic solution?

a)

It will undergo crenation (shriveling)

b)

It will undergo plasmolysis

c)

It will become turgid

d)

It will be flaccid

e)

No change will occur