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Final Exam Prep Review

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

_____ CASE tools provide support for the planning, analysis, and design phases.

a)

Vertical

b)

Front-end

c)

Horizontal

d)

Back-end

2.

Concurrent backups take place while the user is working on the database.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

_____ security breaches include database access by computer viruses and by hackers whose actions are designed to destroy or alter data.

a)

Preserving

b)

Corrupting

c)

Debilitative

d)

Destructive

4.

A security breach is a weakness in a system component that could be exploited to allow unauthorized access or cause service disruptions.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

_____ deals with ensuring that data is protected against unauthorized access, and if the data are accessed by an authorized user, that the data are used only for an authorized purpose.

a)

Availability

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Compliance

d)

Integrity

6.

The storage locations for multiple backups must include sites inside and outside the organization.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The _____ administrator is responsible for strategic planning.

a)

database

b)

program

c)

data

d)

system

8.

"A password must have a minimum of five characters" is an example of a _____.

a)

rule

b)

standard

c)

policy

d)

procedure

9.

In the context of developing a data administration strategy, a(n) _____ provides a framework that includes computerized, automated, and integrated tools such as a DBMS and CASE tools.

a)

security policy

b)

access plan

c)

information systems architecture

d)

active data dictionary

10.

In the context of the data-information-decision cycle, decisions made by high-level managers trigger actions in an organization's:

a)

top levels.

b)

target markets.

c)

customer base.

d)

lower levels.

11.

The browser’s interpretation and presentation capabilities are sufficient to develop web-based applications.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The only time the client and server computers communicate is when the client requests a page and the server sends the requested page to the client.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

HTML is designed to facilitate the extraction and manipulation of data from structured documents over the Internet.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What is a disadvantage of using an API web-server interface?

a)

It is slower than CGI scripts.

b)

An external program needs to run for each user request.

c)

It is inefficient because it uses DLLs.

d)

An API error can bring down the entire web server.

15.

Another name for a database server-side extension program is _____.

a)

database application server

b)

web-to-database middleware

c)

web server

d)

web application middleware

16.

The Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is a newer web server interface standard that is much more efficient and faster than a dynamic link library (DLL).

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Each time an end user clicks a hyperlink, the browser generates a(n) _____ page request that is sent to the designated web server using the TCP/IP Internet protocol.

a)

HTML

b)

HTTP GET

c)

XML

d)

API

18.

Among client-side extensions, _____ is a Microsoft specification for writing programs that run inside the Internet Explorer browser.

a)

COBOL

c)

ActiveX

d)

ODBC

19.

A client-side extension is a program that interacts directly with the web server to handle specific types of requests.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The ROLLUP extension is used with the GROUP BY clause to generate aggregates by the listed columns, including the last one.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The _____ schema must support complex (non-normalized) data representations.

a)

snowflake

b)

multidimensional database

c)

decision support database

d)

online analytical processing

22.

Relational data warehouses use the star schema design technique to handle multidimensional data.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

In a star schema, attributes are often used to search, filter, or classify _____.

a)

dimensions

b)

tables

c)

sales

d)

facts

24.

Computed or derived facts, at run time, are sometimes called _____ to differentiate them from stored facts.

a)

attributes

b)

metrics

c)

dimensions

d)

schemas

25.

_____ tools focus on the strategic and tactical use of information.

a)

Networking

b)

Relational database management

c)

Business

d)

Business intelligence

26.

Operational data and decision support data serve the same purpose.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Data _____ implies that all business entities, data elements, data characteristics, and business metrics are described in the same way throughout the enterprise.

a)

mining

b)

integration

c)

visualization

d)

analytics

28.

Advanced OLAP  feature become more useful when access to them is kept simple.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

A star schema is designed to optimize data query operations rather than data update operations.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

One of the advantages of a distributed database management system (DDBMS) is that the data is located near the site with the least demand.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

_____ fragmentation allows a user to break a single object into two or more segments, or fragments.

a)

Request

b)

Data

c)

Vertical

d)

Horizontal

32.

A distributed database is composed of several parts known as database _____.

a)

sections

b)

partitions

c)

fragments

d)

parts

33.

Distributed processing shares a database's logical processing among two or more physically independent sites that are connected through a network.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

A disadvantage of a distributed database management system (DDBMS) is:

a)

slower data access.

b)

site additions affects other operations.

c)

processor dependence.

d)

lack of standards.

35.

Distributed database systems do not require complex mechanisms to manage transactions and ensure the database's consistency and integrity.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

In the single-site processing, single-site data (SPSD) scenario, all processing must be done on the end user's side of the system.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Rapid ad hoc data became unnecessary in the quick-response decision-making environment.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The level of transparency supported by the distributed database management system remains the same for all systems.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

_____ distributed database management systems (DDBMS) integrate multiple instances of the same DBMS over a network.

a)

Combination

b)

Heterogeneous

c)

Fully heterogeneous

d)

Homogeneous

40.

A(n) _____ is a logical grouping of several data files that store data with similar characteristics.

a)

data cache

b)

procedure cache

c)

table space

d)

listener

41.

DBMS implementations are typically similar in complexity to two-tier client/server configurations.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

The DBMS _____ the SQL query and chooses the most efficient access/execution plan.

a)

fetches

b)

processes

c)

executes

d)

parses

43.

The _____ cache is used as a temporary storage area for ORDER BY or GROUP BY operations, as well as for index-creation functions.

a)

sort

b)

optimizer

c)

data

d)

SQL

44.

If there is no index, the DBMS will perform a _____ scan.

a)

row ID table access

b)

full table

c)

loop

d)

range

45.

In standard SQL, the optimizer hint FIRST_ROWS is generally used for _____ mode processes.

a)

transaction

b)

interactive

c)

real-time

d)

batch

46.

During the ____ phase, the DBMS retrieves the data and sends the result set back to the client.

a)

parse

b)

fetch

c)

execute

d)

process

47.

To generate database object statistics manually, following syntax should be used in Oracle:

a)

ANALYZE <TABLE/INDEX> object_name;

b)

CREATE <TABLE/INDEX> object_name;

c)

ANALYZE <TABLE/INDEX> object_name COMPUTE STATISTICS;

d)

CREATE <TABLE/INDEX> object_name COMPUTE STATISTICS;


48.

Most current-generation relational DBMSs perform automatic query optimization at the client end.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

_____ refers to the number of different values a column could possibly have.

a)

Bitmap index

b)

Clustering

c)

Data sparsity

d)

Database statistics

50.

An optimistic approach is based on the assumption that the majority of the database operations do not conflict.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Time stamps must only have the single property of uniqueness.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

_____ are required to prevent another transaction form reading inconsistent data.

a)

Schedules

b)

Stamps

c)

Logs

d)

Locks

53.

As long as two transactions, T1 and T2, access _____ data, there is no conflict, and the order of execution is irrelevant to the final outcome.

a)

shared

b)

locked

c)

unrelated

d)

common

54.

The phenomenon of uncommitted data occurs when two transactions are executed concurrently and the first transaction is rolled back after the second transaction has already accessed the uncommitted data—thus violating the isolation property of transactions.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Although the DBMS is designed to recover a database to a previous consistent state when an interruption prevents the completion of a required set of transactions, the transactions themselves are defined by the end user or programmer and must be semantically correct.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

What rule applies to the two-phase locking protocol?

a)

No data is affected until the transaction is in its locked position.

b)

No unlock operation can precede a lock operation in a different transaction.

c)

Two transactions cannot have conflicting lock.

d)

No data is affected until all locks are released.

57.

The scheduler establishes the order in which the operations within concurrent transactions are executed.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

One of the three most common data integrity and consistency problems is _____.

a)

deadlocks

b)

lost updates

c)

user errors 

d)

disk failures

59.

In the optimistic approach, during the _____ phase, changes are permanently applied to the database.

a)

read

b)

validation

c)

write

d)

shared

60.

_____ is a technique that creates logical representations of computing resources that are independent of the underlying physical computing resources. 

a)

Specialization

b)

Normalization

c)

Virtualization

d)

Generalization

61.

Selecting database management system (DBMS) software is part of the _____ phase of the Database Life Cycle (DBLC).

a)

implementation and loading

b)

testing and evaluation

c)

database design

d)

database initial study

62.

In DBLC, the phase after the database initial study is _____.

a)

implementation and loading

b)

database initial study

c)

operation

d)

database design

63.

The implementation phase of database design includes creating the database storage structure and loading the database, but does not provide for data management.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

A system is always at some stage of SDLC because every request for structural changes requires retracing the steps of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC).

a)

True

b)

False

65.

A system maintenance activity generated in response to changes in the business environment is referred to as corrective maintenance.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

The _____ phase of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) includes all the necessary technical specifications for the screens, menus, reports, and other devices used to make the system more efficient.

a)

maintenance

b)

implementation

c)

detailed systems design

d)

analysis

67.

Once the data has been loaded into the database, the _____ tests and fine-tunes the database for performance, integrity, concurrent access, and security constraints.

a)

database administrator

b)

systems administrator

c)

manager

d)

programmer

68.

The traditional Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is divided into _____ phases.

a)

five

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

69.

The overall purpose of the database initial study is to create the conceptual design.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

The tables on which a view, or a virtual table derived from a SELECT query, are based are called _____ tables.

a)

relation

b)

base

c)

indexed

d)

core

71.

Which statement describes a feature of Oracle sequences?

a)

Dropping a sequence does not delete values assigned to table attributes; it deletes only the sequence object from the database.

b)

Oracle sequences are tied to columns and tables.

c)

Oracle sequences generate a character string that can be assigned to tables.

d)

An Oracle sequence uses the identity column property to automatically number rows.

72.

U.S. state abbreviations are always two characters, so (a)   (2) is a logical choice for the data type representing a state column.

73.

The Oracle equivalent to an MS Access AutoNumber is a(n) _____.

a)

sequence

b)

trigger

c)

TO_NUMBER function

d)

auto-number

74.

A _____ is a block of code containing standard SQL statements and procedural extensions that is stored and executed at the DBMS server.

a)

cursor-style process

b)

persistent storage module (PSM)

c)

statement-level trigger

d)

base table

75.

BEFORE means before the changes are made in memory but after the changes are permanently saved to disk.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

To remedy the lack of procedural functionality in SQL, and to provide some standardization within the many vendor offerings, the SQL-99 standard defined the use of persistent stored modules.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Oracle recommends _____ for creating audit logs.

a)

stored procedures

b)

tables

c)

triggers

d)

stored functions

78.

SQL supports the conditional execution of procedures (IF-THEN-ELSE statements) that are typically supported by a programming language.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The _____ specification creates an individual index on a respective attribute; use it to avoid having duplicated values in a column.

a)

UNIQUE

b)

VARCHAR

c)

UPDATE

d)

NOT NULL

80.

A(n) (a)   character is a symbol that can be used as a general substitute for other characters or commands.

81.

The SQL data manipulation command HAVING:

a)

groups the selected rows based on one or more attributes.

b)

restricts the selection of rows based on a conditional expression.

c)

restricts the selection of grouped rows based on a condition.

d)

modifies an attribute’s values in one or more table’s rows.

82.

You can select partial table contents by naming the desired fields and by placing restrictions on the rows to be included in the output.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

A(n) _____ join returns not only the rows matching the join condition (that is, rows with matching values in the common columns) but also the rows with unmatched values.

a)

equi-

b)

cross

c)

outer

d)

inner

84.

The (a)   specification is used to avoid having duplicated values in a column.

85.

When using a(n) _____ join, only rows from the tables that match on a common value are returned.

a)

inner

b)

full

c)

set

d)

outer

86.

The basic SQL vocabulary has fewer than (a)   words.

87.

A(n) (a)   order sequence is a multilevel ordered sequence that can be created easily by listing several attributes, separated by commas, after the ORDER BY clause.