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FA FINAL MC

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
  1. In a perpetual inventory system, two entries usually are made to record each sales transaction. The purposes of these entries are best described as follows:

a)

One entry recognizes the sales revenue, and the other recognises the cost of goods sold.

b)

One entry records the purchase of the goods, and the other records the sale.

c)

One entry records the cost of goods sold, and the other reduces the balance in the Inventory account.

d)

One entry updates the general ledger, and the other updates the subsidiary ledgers.

2.
  1. In a periodic inventory system, the cost of goods sold is:

a)

Recorded as sales transactions occur.

b)

Determined by computation at year-end, after the taking of a complete physical inventory.

c)

Equal to the beginning inventory, plus purchases made during the period, less sales revenue for the period.

d)

Determined by subtracting the balance in the Gross Profit account from the amount of net sales.

3.
  1. Parkside Pool reports net sales of $625,000, gross profit of $275,000, and profit for the period of $15,000. The company's cost of goods sold is:

a)

$335,000

b)

$350,000

c)

$340,000

d)

$325,000

4.
  1. During the year 201X, the inventory of Debra’s Gift Shop was decreased by $50,000. If the income statement for the year 201X reported cost of goods sold of $350,000, purchases during the year must have amounted to:

a)

$400,000

b)

$310,000

c)

$300,000

d)

$350,000

5.
  1. Which of the following businesses is most likely to use a periodic inventory system?

a)

A jewelry shop

b)

A small boutique

c)

A supermarket chain

d)

A car dealership

6.
  1. Which of the following is NOT included in the financial assets?

a)

Cash.

b)

Investments in securities.

c)

Inventories.

d)

Accounts receivable.

7.
  1. An NSF check returned by the bank should be entered in the depositor's accounting records by a debit to:

a)

Accounts Receivable.

b)

An expense account.

c)

Cash.

d)

Cash Over and Short.

8.
  1. Which of the following can be considered as an effective control of cash?

a)

One person handles the receipts and disbursements of cash.

b)

Cash is deposited monthly into a bank.

c)

There is approval of cash payments.

d)

A reconciliation of the bank balance with the cash balance is prepared twice a year.

9.
  1. A bank reconciliation explains the differences between ____________.

a)

Cash receipts and cash disbursements for the period

b)

The balance of cash in the bank and the budgeted expenditures for the upcoming accounting period

c)

The balance per bank statement and the cash balance per the accounting records of the depositor

d)

The balance per bank statement and cash expected to be on hand according to the cash forecast

10.
  1. When preparing bank reconciliation, deposits in transit will:

a)

Increase the balance per depositor's records.

b)

Decrease the balance per depositor's records.

c)

Increase the balance per the bank statement.

d)

Decrease the balance per the bank statement.

11.
  1. The Allowance for Impairment will appear on the __________.

a)

Income statement

b)

Statement of Financial Position

c)

Cash flow statement

d)

Statement of Changes in Equity

12.
  1. Bert had accounts receivable of $280,000 and an allowance for impairment of $10,800 credit balance just before writing off as worthless an account receivable from Ernie Company of $1,600. After writing off this receivable what would be the balance in Bert's Allowance for Impairment?

a)

$10,800 credit balance.

b)

$12,400 credit balance.

c)

$9,200 credit balance.

d)

$9,200 debit balance.

13.
  1. The Allowance for Impairment represents:

a)

Cash set aside to make up for bad debt losses.

b)

The amount of uncollectible accounts written off to date.

c)

The difference between total credit sales and collections on credit sales.

d)

The difference between the face value of accounts receivable and the estimated collectible amount of accounts receivable.

14.
  1. At December 31, before adjusting and closing the accounts had occurred, the Allowance for Impairment of Seaboard Corporation showed a debit balance of $3,200. An aging of the accounts receivable indicated the amount probably uncollectible to be $2,100. Under these circumstances, a year-end adjusting entry for Impairment Loss of Receivables would include a:

a)

Debit to the Allowance for Impairment for $1,100.

b)

Credit to the Allowance for Impairment for $1,100.

c)

Debit to Impairment Loss of Receivable for $2,100.

d)

Debit to Impairment Loss of Receivable for $5,300.

15.
  1. Oceanside Company uses the Statement of Financial Position approach in estimating uncollectible accounts expense. It has just completed an aging analysis of accounts receivable at December 31, 201Y . This analysis disclosed the following information:

What is the appropriate balance for Oceanside's Allowance for Impairment at December 31, 201Y

a)

$95,000.

b)

2% of credit sales in 201Y .

c)

$1,560.

d)

$2,160.

16.
  1. The application of the matching principle to depreciation of property, plant and equipment can best be described as:

a)

The matching of the book value of an asset with its market value.

b)

Offsetting the revenue of an accounting period with the estimated decline in value of property, plant and equipment during the accounting period.

c)

Offsetting revenue of an accounting period with the portion of the cost of property, plant and equipment estimated to have been used up during the accounting period.

d)

The matching of the depreciation expense reported in the income statement for an accounting period with the accumulated depreciation reported in the statement of financial position.

17.
  1. Land is purchased for $256,000. Additional costs include a $15,300 fee to a broker, a survey fee of $2,400, $1,750 to construct a fence and a legal fee of $8,500. What is the cost of the land?

a)

$256,000

b)

$281,000

c)

$284,600

d)

$282,200

18.
  1. Capital expenditures are recorded as:

a)

An expense.

b)

An asset.

c)

A liability.

d)

Income.

19.
  1. Revenue expenditures are recorded as:

a)

An expense.

b)

An asset.

c)

A liability.

d)

Income.

20.
  1. Which of the following is not a capital expenditure?

a)

Advertising expenditures to introduce a new product line.

b)

Sales tax paid in conjunction with the purchase of new machinery.

c)

Installation of elevators to replace escalators.

d)

An amount paid to acquire a patent with a remaining life of only three years.

21.
  1. Coca-Cola's famous name printed in distinctive typeface is an example of:

a)

A trademark.

b)

A patent.

c)

A copyright.

d)

Goodwill.

22.
  1. When a depreciable asset is sold at a price equal to its book value, a journal entry would include

a)

A credit to the asset account for its book value

b)

A debit to accumulated depreciation

c)

A credit to accumulated depreciation

d)

A credit to cash

23.
  1. All of the following assets are amortized except:

a)

Patents

b)

Franchises

c)

Copyrights

d)

Natural resources

24.
  1. An asset which costs $18,800 and has accumulated depreciation of $6,000 is sold for $11,600. What amount of gain or loss will be recognized when the asset is sold?

a)

A gain of $1,200

b)

A loss of $1,200

c)

A loss of $7,200

d)

A gain of $7,200

25.
  1. The book value of PPE assets (other than land):

a)

Increases with the passage of time.

b)

Decreases with the passage of time.

c)

Remains the same with the passage of time.

d)

May increase or decrease depending upon the economy.

26.
  1. A company had a beginning balance in retained earnings of $65,000. Net profit for the current year was $122,000. A cash dividends of $8,500 was declared and to be paid out early next year. The ending balance in retained earnings equals:

a)

Cr. balance $113,500.

b)

Cr. balance $178,500.

c)

Dr. balance $ 48,500.

d)

Cr. balance $187,000.

27.
  1. A company so far has issued 900 shares at $2 par value for $2,000 cash. The total amount of contributed capital is:

a)

$900.

b)

$1,800.

c)

$200.

d)

$2,000.

28.
  1. Treasury share represents ___________________________.

a)

Shares of ownership in the Local Government Treasury Department

b)

A current asset

c)

Authorised shares that have never been issued

d)

Previously outstanding shares that have been repurchased by the issuing company

29.
  1. Skyhigh Co. has 10,000 shares authorized of which 5,000 shares are issued and outstanding. Mr. Koo bought 1,000 shares of Skyhigh Co. from Mr. Chan at $25,000, this transaction will:

a)

Increase the contributed capital of Skyhigh Co. by $25,000

b)

Increase the issued and outstanding shares of Skyhigh Co. to 6,00

c)

Decrease the issued and outstanding shares of Skyhigh Co. to 4,000

d)

Have no effect on Skyhigh Co

30.
  1. Tripod Co. has 100,000 authorized, issued and outstanding 6% cumulative preference shares, at par value $2. It also has 10,000 shares of $1 par value ordinary shares issued and outstanding. In the Company's first year of operations, no dividends were paid. During the second year, Tripod paid cash dividends of $18,000. The dividend should be distributed as:

a)

$12,000 preference; $6,000 ordinary.

b)

$8,000 preference; $10,000 ordinary.

c)

$0 preference; $18,000 ordinary.

d)

$18,000 preference; $0 ordinary.

31.
  1. Which of the following is not classified among the investing activities in a statement of cash flows?

a)

Purchase of equity securities for cash.

b)

Collection of the principal amount of cash loans made to others.

c)

Investment of cash made in the business by the owners.

d)

Purchase of property, plant, and equipment for cash.

32.
  1. Which of the following is a financing activity?

a)

Receipts of interest.

b)

Payment of dividends.

c)

Making sales on account.

d)

Paying off accounts payable.

33.
  1. Which of the following is not classified among the financing activities in a statement of cash flows?

a)

Re-issue of treasury shares.

b)

Payment of dividends to shareholders.

c)

Purchase of property, plant and equipment for cash.

d)

Short-term borrowing.

34.
  1. Which of the following would indicate a cash disbursement?

a)

Selling equipment at a loss.

b)

A decrease in accounts receivable.

c)

An increase in prepaid expenses.

d)

A decrease in inventory.

35.
  1. Profit for the year differs from net cash from operations because of all the following except:

a)

Depreciation expenses.

b)

Timing differences between recognizing revenue and expenses and their cash flows.

c)

Gains on disposal of Equipment.

d)

All of the above will cause a difference between profit for the year and cash flows.

36.
  1. Which of the following present financial information of parent and subsidiary companies as if they are a single business unit?

a)

Classified financial statement

b)

Comparative financial statement

c)

Consolidated financial statement

d)

Operating financial statement

37.
  1. Which of the following ratios is not considered measure of liquidity?

a)

Quick ratio

b)

Receivable turnover ratio

c)

Current ratio

d)

Earnings per share

38.
  1. All of the followings are an example of a quick asset except

a)

Cash.

b)

Inventory.

c)

Investment in security.

d)

Account receivable.

39.
  1. Working capital is the excess of current assets over

a)

current liabilities.

b)

total liabilities.

c)

long-term liabilities.

d)

equity.

40.
  1. Which of the following ratios is not considered measure of profitability?

a)

Earnings per share

b)

Gross profit rate

c)

Price earnings ratio

d)

Return on assets

41.
  1. Net Sales is total sales revenue less sales returns and sales discounts.

a)

True

b)

False

42.
  1. Inventories are assets that a company holds for sale in the ordinary course of business.

a)

True

b)

False

43.
  1. The income statements of merchandising companies have an additional expense item called Cost of Goods Sold.

a)

True

b)

False

44.
  1. When using a perpetual inventory system, the Purchases account is debited when goods is acquired.

a)

True

b)

False

45.
  1. In a periodic inventory system, the cost of goods sold is determined by the following end-of-period computation: Beginning Inventory + Purchases - Ending inventory = Cost of Goods Sold.

a)

True

b)

False

46.
  1. The physical count helps get the inventory records up to date to reflect what is actually on hand. Most companies take a physical count of inventory at least once a year.

a)

True

b)

False

47.
  1. In a perpetual inventory system, a detailed inventory record is maintained, recording each purchase and sale during the accounting period.

a)

True

b)

False

48.
  1. In a periodic inventory system, the Inventory and Cost of Goods Sold accounts are kept up-to-date throughout the accounting period.

a)

True

b)

False

49.
  1. A bank reconciliation explains the differences between the balance per bank statement and cash expected to be on hand according to the cash forecast.

a)

True

b)

False

50.
  1. When preparing bank reconciliation, the outstanding checks will be deducted from the balance per the bank statement.

a)

True

b)

False

51.
  1. When preparing bank reconciliation, the deposits in transit will be added to the balance per the depositor’s records.

a)

True

b)

False

52.
  1. An NSF check returned by the bank should be entered in the depositor’s accounting records by a debit to Accounts Payable.

a)

True

b)

False

53.
  1. Financial assets include cash, investments in securities and Inventories.

a)

True

b)

False

54.
  1. The Allowance for Impairment represents the difference between the face value of accounts receivable and the estimated collectible amount of accounts receivable.

a)

True

b)

False

55.
  1. Impairment Loss of Receivable is an estimate of uncollectible accounts and is an expense on the Income Statement.

a)

True

b)

False

56.
  1. To “write-off” an account receivable is to reduce the balance of the customer’s account to zero when an account is determined to be uncollectible.

a)

True

b)

False

57.
  1. To capitalise an expenditure means charging it to an asset account.

a)

True

b)

False

58.
  1. Charging an expenditure directly to an expense account is based on the assumption that the benefits of that expenditure have been used up in the current period.

a)

True

b)

False

59.
  1. It is an acceptable accounting practice to treat an expenditure that is not material in dollar amount as an expense of the current period even though the expenditure may benefit several periods.

a)

True

b)

False

60.
  1. Book value represents the market value of an asset.

a)

True

b)

False

61.
  1. The term PPE assets refer to long-lived assets acquired for use in business operations in multiple periods.

a)

True

b)

False

62.
  1. A liability that is known to exist but the precise dollar amount is not known is called a possible liability.

a)

True

b)

False

63.
  1. A contingent liability is recorded in the accounting records when it is probable that a loss has been incurred even the amount of the loss cannot be estimated.

a)

True

b)

False

64.
  1. Liabilities that fall due within one year or within the operating cycle are classified as current liabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

65.
  1. Contingent liabilities stem from past events.

a)

True

b)

False

66.
  1. Treasury shares are shares issued and are currently owned by shareholders.

a)

True

b)

False

67.
  1. The purchase of treasury share creates an asset for the corporation.

a)

True

b)

False

68.
  1. A corporation continues in existence even if a shareholder dies or withdraws from the organisation.

a)

True

b)

False

69.
  1. Outstanding shares are issued shares that are owned by shareholders.

a)

True

b)

False

70.
  1. The purchase of treasury share for cash causes no change in total assets.

a)

True

b)

False

71.
  1. When par value share is issued, share capital is credited with the par value of the shares issued, regardless of whether the issuance price is equal to par, more than par, or less than par.

a)

True

b)

False

72.
  1. Preference shareholders are owners of the corporation and have rights to receive the same dividends as the ordinary shareholders.

a)

True

b)

False

73.
  1. Preference shares have priority over ordinary shares in dividend distributions and distribution of assets in liquidation.

a)

True

b)

False

74.
  1. For cumulative preference shares, dividends in arrears must be paid before dividends may be paid on ordinary shares.

a)

True

b)

False

75.
  1. Preference shareholders generally have the same voting rights as ordinary shareholders in a corporation do.

a)

True

b)

False

76.
  1. Dividends paid belong in the operating section of the statement of cash flows.

a)

True

b)

False

77.
  1. The purchase of equipment for the manufacturing of inventory belongs in the operating section of the statement of cash flows.

a)

True

b)

False

78.
  1. All cash receipts and cash payments not classified as investing or financing activities are classified as indirect activities.

a)

True

b)

False

79.
  1. The indirect method of computing net cash from operating activities convert accrual-based income statement amounts into cash flows.

a)

True

b)

False

80.
  1. Under the indirect method, when machinery is sold at a gain, the gain is added in the operating section of the statement of cash flows.

a)

True

b)

False

81.
  1. Comparative financial statements show side-by-side financial data for two or more companies.

a)

True

b)

False

82.
  1. The gross profit rate is gross profit expressed as a percentage of net sales.

a)

True

b)

False

83.
  1. The trend in ratios is usually more useful than looking at a single year’s ratio.

a)

True

b)

False

84.
  1. Working capital is the excess of current assets over current liabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

85.
  1. Inventory is an example of a quick asset.

a)

True

b)

False

86.
  1. The lower the current ratio, the more liquid the company appears.

a)

True

b)

False

87.
  1. The acid test ratio is generally lower than the current ratio because inventory is not regarded as quick asset.

a)

True

b)

False

88.
  1. From a creditor’s point of view, the lower the debt ratio; the safer the creditor’s position.

a)

True

b)

False