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A320 EXAM CHAPTER 2

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When both Flight Management Guidance Computers (FMGCs) are operative, the PFDs and NDs are supplied with Flight Management information from :

a)

the slave FMGC.

b)

the master FMGC.

c)

their onside FMGCs.

d)

their hot standby FMGC.

2.

Windshear warning is a function of :

a)

Flight Guidance.

b)

Flight management.

c)

Flight envelope Protection.

d)

Engine performance in emergency condition.

3.

A call from the ground mechanic to the cockpit is indicated by a buzzer and :

a)

An ECAM message.

b)

The MECH light flashing on the captain ACP.

c)

The MECH light flashing on all ACPs.

d)

Flight Attendant Panel.

4.

Which is CIDS director activated when both are in healthy condition?

a)

Director 1

b)

Director 2

c)

Director 3

d)

Both Director 1 and Director 2.

5.

The cabin loudspeakers are connected to the :

a)

Directors.

b)

Audio Control Panel

c)

Audio Management Unit.

d)

Type A Decoder-Encoder Units (DEUs).

6.

The signals exchanged between the Audio Control Panels (ACP) and the Audio Management Unit (AMU) are:

a)

Analog signal.

b)

Audio signal and analog signal.

c)

Digital signals (ARINC 429).

d)

Discrete signal from MIC.

7.

On the forward attendant panel, the CIDS caution light will comes on:

a)

In case of smoke detection.

b)

In case of cabin evacuation.

c)

When cargo door is open

d)

When the CIDS system is affected by a malfunction.

8.

Which communication system is used by ATIMS in normal operation?

a)

DIR1

b)

VDR3

c)

RMP2.

d)

SELCAL.

9.

The cockpit indications of a SELCAL call on VHF 2 are :

a)

Buzzer sound and a flashing amber CALL light on the VHF2 key on ACP.

b)

Buzzer sound and three green bars on the VHF2 key on ACP.

c)

A single chime in the flight deck and a memo message on ECAM.

d)

Three green bars on the VHF2 key on ACP.

10.

Which transmission key would you use on the ACP to communicate on the Service Interphone?

a)

MECH

b)

CAB

c)

INT

d)

SER

11.

On the overhead panel, If the Audio Switching selector is in CAPT 3 position:

a)

The captain can only receive on VHF3.

b)

The FO radio is unusable.

c)

The captain uses the 3rd occupant audio equipment.

d)

The captain uses his acoustic equipment on the 3rd occupant ACP

12.

Which of the following indication when the Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) failure …

1. Message "DATALINK ATSU FAULT" appears on the EWD,

2. On the SD STATUS page, the ATSU fault message appears’

3. Automatically call ATSU Page on the System Display (SD)

4. MASTER CAUTion light and Single Chime (SC) will be activated.

a)

1 , 2 , and 3

b)

1 , 2 , and 4

c)

1 and 3

d)

3

13.

Which of the data link application active in ATSU pre-FANS configuration?

a)

ATC function.

b)

AOC function (ACARS).

c)

MCDU Manual function

d)

Both AOC and ATC functions.

14.

At the OFF position of the switches after operated, the landing lights are :

a)

Retracted

b)

Extended

c)

Illuminated

d)

Half Retracted and OFF

15.

The duration of EPSU Battery Capacity TEST need around 3 hours and can only be triggered from :

a)

ECP

b)

MCDU

c)

2000VU CB Panel

d)

External Power Panel

16.

How can the lavatory fluorescent lamps be turned off?

a)

By unlocking the lavatory door.

b)

With EMER SW at Light Panel in the cockpit

c)

With the LAV POWER switch or the MAIN OFF SWITCH on the FAP .

d)

It is not possible as the lights illuminate at 50% or 100% brightness depending upon the door lock position.

17.

All reading light can be turned on simultaneously through:

a)

FAP.

b)

FCU.

c)

MCDU.

d)

LIGHT PANEL.

18.

All emergency lights will be supplied from the EPSU integral batteries, except whenever …

a)

EMER EXIT LT switch is at ON position.

b)

EMER LIGHT push button on the FAP is pressed.

c)

LIGHT page on the FAP is selected.

d)

AC BUS 1 and DC ESS BUS have failed with the EMER EXIT LT switch at ARM position.

19.

If the 28V DC SHED ESS BUS voltage falls below 16V, the EPSUs internal batteries will continue to supply the all emergency light for at least :

a)

10 minutes

b)

15 minutes

c)

20 minutes

d)

30 minutes

20.

The VOR can be tuned automatically from:

a)

RMP 1 or 2.

b)

RMP 1 only.

c)

MCDU.

d)

FMGC.

21.

Which of the following is a part of the MMR?

a)

GPS and ILS receiver.

b)

Marker receiver.

c)

VOR part.

d)

ATC part

22.

How do Pitot and Static probes supply the ADIRUs?

a)

Directly with digital format.

b)

Directly with total and static pressures.

c)

Using ADC analog sinyal from its synchro transmitter.

d)

Using ADMs which convert pressure into digital format.

23.

The WXR/PWS transceiver is de-energized, When both EFIS control panels are selected in

a)

LS mode

b)

VOR mode

c)

ARC mode

d)

PLAN mode

24.

A red square on ND indicates:

a)

Crowded traffic.

b)

Proximate traffic.

c)

Traffic Advisory.

d)

Resolution advisory.

25.

ADIRU 2 receives TAT information from ..

a)

Standby TAT sensor.

b)

Captain TAT sensor.

c)

Firsts officer TAT sensor.

d)

Alternate ADM unit.

26.

If Radio Altimeter (RA) 1 fails, the Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS) will:

a)

Receive radio altitude data from RA 2.

b)

Receive radio altitude data from Flight Management Guidance Computer (FMGC) 1.

c)

No longer receive radio altitude.

d)

Use RADIO data from VDR1.

27.

FMGC interface with the CFDS is via a Fault Isolation Detection System which is located and active in:

a)

FMGC 1.

b)

FCU.

c)

FAC 1.

d)

FAC 2.

28.

What key is selected to display Flight Path Director and Vector symbols on the PFD?

a)

APPR.

b)

HDG/VS.

c)

TRACK/FPA.

d)

LS and A/THR.

29.

Which of the following is not a function of yaw damper?

a)

Turn coordination.

b)

Dutch roll damping.

c)

Rudder travel limitation.

d)

Autopilot not engage.

30.

The following pitot static pressure line is not equiped with a water drain connection, EXCEPT ..

a)

Standby static ports

b)

F/O's pitot port.

c)

F/O's TAT sensor.

d)

Captain's static ports.

31.

The Air Traffic Control (ATC) transponders and Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) transponders ar connected by:

a)

An ARINC 429 bus to exchange distance data.

b)

A suppressor coaxial cable to prevent simultaneous transmission.

c)

A suppressor coaxial cable to enable simultaneous transmissions.

d)

Analog connection

32.

In APPROACH phase, what happen if AP2 pushbutton is pressed while AP1 is engaged?

a)

AP1 to disengage and AP2 to engage.

b)

Both AP1 & 2 will be engaged.

c)

AP1 & 2 to disengage.

d)

FD automatically engage.

33.

The Digital Distance Magnetic Indicator (DDRMI) can be supplied with heading information from Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs):

a)

1 or 2.

b)

1 or 3.

c)

2 or 3.

d)

1 only.

34.

If a High Frequency (HF) transmits continuously for more than 1 minute, it will result in:

a)

display of a HF 1(2) EMITTING amber message on ECAM.

b)

automatic shutdown of the HF tranceiver.

c)

a 1000Hz tone being heard in the headset.

d)

a 800Hz tone being heard on loudspeaker.

35.

To obtain ADR data in case of total failure of ADIRU 2 performance:

a)

Set ATT HDG switch to CAPT 3 position.

b)

Leave the ATT HDG switch in the NORM position.

c)

Set the AIR DATA switch to the F/O3 position.

d)

Set AIR DATA switch to F/O 3 position.

36.

The basic functions performed by the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) are:

a)

Flight management and flight envelope protection.

b)

Rudder control and flight envelope protection.

c)

Flight guidance and rudder control.

d)

Thrust guidance system.

37.

When both Flight Management Guidance Computers (FMGCs) are operative, the PFDs and NDs are supplied with Flight Management information from:

a)

the slave FMGC.

b)

the master FMGC.

c)

their onside FMGC

d)

their hot standby FMGC.

38.

The Pilot's interface for short-term inputs to the FMGC is

a)

MCDU.

b)

FCU.

c)

Overhead panel.

d)

Side panel.

39.

For flight envelope protection the various characteristic speeds for aircraft operation in AFS is computed by:

a)

FMGC.

b)

FAC.

c)

EIU.

d)

CIDS.

40.

If FMGC 2 has failed, the VHF Omni Range (VOR) receiver 2 (VOR 2) can be tuned from:

a)

FMGC 1.

b)

FMGC 2.

c)

Radio Management Panel (RMP) No.3.

d)

RMP No.1

41.

What is the Flight Management function of Auto Flight System?

a)

Performance management and predictions.

b)

Autopilot, Flight Director and Auto Thrust.

c)

Rudder control and flight envelop protection.

d)

Flight Plan, Lateral And Vertical function.