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Spring Semester Study Guide II

Total questions: 194

Worksheet time: 12hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which 3 of the following are the processes that increase genetic variation in sexual reproduction?

a)

Crossing Over

b)

Independent Assortment

c)

Mitosis

d)

Random fertilization

e)

Splitting Chromatids (Haploidy)

2.

Why is crossing over important in sexual reproduction?

a)

It combines the two sets of DNA from the mother's egg and the father's sperm

b)

It creates an identical copy of the original DNA

c)

It shuffles the DNA from your parents when you make gametes (sex cells)

d)

It randomly determines which gamete gets which copies of each chromosome.

3.

Worth 3 pts

Select the two genotypes of these two parents.

a)

CcHh

b)

ccHh

c)

CCHh

d)

Cchh

e)

ccHH

4.

Worth 3 pts

What percentage of the offspring from a BbLl x BbLl cross would be expected to be heterozygous for both traits?

Use either the FOIL method or the double-monohybrid method

(a)  

5.

This image is an example of:

a)

Codominance

b)

Multiple alleles

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Mendelian inheritance

e)

A polygenic trait

6.

If you breed two of the pink flowers together, what would be the phenotypes of the offspring?

a)

100% Pink

b)

75% Pink

25% White

c)

25% Red

50% Pink

25% White

d)

33% Red

33% Pink

33% White

e)

50% Red

50% White

7.

A woman has type AB blood and her husband has type O blood. The doctor tells them their child has type O blood. She thinks this is very strange. Why?

a)

She can't be the mother of a type O child.

b)

Her husband can't be the father of a type O child.

c)

Type O blood is very rare.

d)

There's nothing strange about it.

8.
Question Image

2 pts

Match the following heredity vocabulary terms

a)

Homozygous dominant

1.

AA

b)

Heterozygous

2.

Ao

c)

Homozygous recessive

3.

oo

d)

Blood Phenotypes

4.

Type A, Type B, Type AB, & Type O

e)

Blood Genotype

5.

AA, AB, BB, Bo, Ao, & oo

9.
Physical characteristic
a)
Trait
b)
Heredity
c)
Genetics
d)
Genotype
10.
Study of Heredity
a)
Biology
b)
Geology
c)
Genetics
d)
Cellology
11.
Passing of traits from parent to offspring
a)
dating
b)
holding hands
c)
heredity
d)
mitosis
12.
different forms of a gene
a)
big or little
b)
simple and complex
c)
alleles
d)
co-dominant
13.

_________is used to solve genetic crossing of parents and possible offsprings

a)

Genetics

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Phenotypes

d)

Probability

14.
The allele that is hidden unless paired with another allele of the same type
a)

dominant

b)
recessive
c)
homozygous
d)
hybrid
15.
A sequence of DNA that codes for a protein and determines a trait.
a)
Sister Chromatid
b)
Homologous Chromosomes
c)
Genetics
d)
Gene
16.
How many chromosomes are found in human sex cells?
a)
0
b)
23
c)
46
d)
50
17.

Which is not a factor that could increase the rate of mutations in a cell?

a)

exposure to a chemical carcinogen

b)

infection with a virus, such as HPV

c)

exposure of a cell to UV radiation

d)

environmental pressure to adapt for survival

18.

Using the pedigree, determine the possible genotype for individual 1.

a)

WW

b)

Ww

c)

ww

d)

WW or Ww

19.

Using the pedigree, determine the genotype for individual 5.

a)

WW

b)

Ww

c)

ww

d)

WW or Ww

20.

Results in four daughter cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

21.

In incomplete dominance:

a)

one parent doesn't take over the other

b)

the trait forgets what its doing

c)

the trait does not fully express the dominant trait

d)

the dominant trait does not show up

22.

When one allele is not dominant over another, resulting in a blended phenotype for heterozygous offspring is considered....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

23.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a speckled flower. What is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

2 red, 2 speckled

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

24.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross two speckled flowers.

a)

1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

d)

1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue

25.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
Mendelian dominance
d)
complete dominance
26.
Incomplete dominance or co-dominance?
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-dominance
c)
Complete dominance
d)
Mendelian dominance
27.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-dominance
c)
Mendelian dominance
d)
Complete dominance
28.
A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (SS) and a medium plant (TS) results. This is what type of inheritance pattern?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Codominance
29.
If you cross a black chicken with a white chicken, only checkered chickens would be produced.  What kind of inheritance pattern does this follow?
a)
incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
30.

What is a law Mendel discovered

a)

Law of Surpise

b)

Law of Dominance

c)

Law of Gravity

d)

Doppler Effect

31.

A mule is the result of a cross between a donkey and a horse. A mule is a

a)

tetrad

b)

phenotype

c)

genotype

d)

hybrid

32.

A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). If the tall F1 pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate.

a)

the offspring will be of medium height

b)

all of the offspring will be short

c)

all of the offspring will be tall

d)

the offspring can be tall or short

33.

The principles of probability can be used to

a)

predict the traits of the off spring of genetic crosses

b)

determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses

c)

determine which species should be used in genetic crosses

d)

decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses

34.

A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F1 plant will be tall is

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

35.

Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

a)

hybrid

b)

homozygous

c)

heterozygous

d)

dominant

36.

What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other's inheritance?

a)

principle of dominance

b)

principle of independent assortment

c)

principle of probabilities

d)

principle of segregation

37.

Variation in human skin color is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

polygenic traits

d)

multiple alleles

38.

After reading the excerpt, why did Thomas Hunt Morgan use fruit flies in his studies?

a)

Fruit flies produce a large number of offspring

b)

Fruit flies take a long time to produce offspring

c)

Fruit flies share certain characteristics with pea plants

d)

Fruit flies have a long life span

39.

If an organism's diploid number is 12, its haploid number is..

(Hint: n=2n)

a)

12

b)

6

c)

24

d)

3

40.

Gametes are produced by the process of

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing-over

d)

replication

41.

What is show in the figure?

a)

Independent Assortment

b)

Anaphase I of meiosis

c)

Crossing-Over

d)

Replication

42.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

a)

diploid cells

b)

haploid cells

c)

2N daughter cells

d)

body cells

43.

What is formed at the end of meiosis?

a)

2 genetically identical cells

b)

4 genetically different cells

c)

4 genetically identical cells

d)

2 genetically different cells

44.

Linked genes...

a)

are never separated

b)

assort independently

c)

are on the same chromosome

d)

are always recessive

45.

The farther apart two genes are located on a chromosome, the

a)

less likely they are to be inherited together

b)

more likely they are to be linked

c)

less likely they are to assort independently

d)

less likely they are to be separated by crossing over

46.

The probability that a gamete produced by a pea plant heterozygous for stem height (Tt) will contain the recessive allele is 100%.

a)

True

b)

False, 50%

47.

A trait in an unidentified plant is controlled by one gene that has two alleles. One allele is dominant over the other. According to Mendel's principles, one fourth of the offspring made from a cross between two heterozygous plants will show the recessive trait.

a)

True

b)

False, recessive

48.

Coat color in rabbits is determined by a single gene that has multiple alleles.

a)

True

b)

False, polygenic traits

49.

The plants that Gregor Mendel crossed to produce the F1 generation made up the (a)   generation.

50.

In the Punnett square shown, the genotypes of the offspring are (a)   .

51.

The characteristics of an organism are determined by two factors: (a)   and​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
genes
environmental factors
alleles
internal factors
52.

An organism's gametes have (a)   the number of chromosomes found in the organisms' body cells.

53.

The relative locations of each known gene can be shown on a (a)   map.


Choose from the below words
gene
allele
chromosome
gamete
54.

What attributes of the garden pea plant made it an excellent organism for Gregor Mendel's genetic studies?

4 lines
55.

What is the phenotype ratio of the off spring of the plants in the Punnett square in Figure 11-3?

4 lines
56.

How many sets of chromosomes are in a diploid cell?


(a)  
Choose from the below words
2 sets
1 set
3 sets
4 sets
57.

Describe a homologous chromosome.


(a)  
Choose from the below words
2 sets of chromosomes with 1 sperm & 1 egg
2 sets of alleles with 1 sperm & 1 egg cell
2 sets of genes with 2 sperm & 1 egg
1 set of chromosomes with 1 sperm & 2 egg
58.

Identify the genotype of the offspring that would be represented by the question mark?

a)

black, smooth texture

b)

BBRr

c)

white, rough texture

d)

bbRR

59.

Identify the phenotype of the offspring that would be represented by the question mark?

a)

white, rough hair

b)

BBRr

c)

black, smooth hair

d)

bbRR

60.

What are the different phenotypes of the offspring?

a)

black, rough hair

b)

black, smooth hair

c)

white, rough hair

d)

white, smooth hair

61.

Who developed the theory of natural selection?

a)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

James Hutton

d)

Gregor Mendel

62.

Does evolution describe a change in an individual or a population?

a)

Individual

b)

Population

63.

Artificial Selection can be defined as...

a)

the selective breeding of organisms by humans for specific, desirable traits

b)

the change in characteristics of a population from one generation to another

c)

the process where organisms with certain traits are better able to survive and reproduce

d)

what happens when there is a sudden decrease in population size, such as when there is a natural disaster

64.

Which is an example of artificial selection?

a)

A farmer collects seeds from his largest fruit and replants only these seeds

b)

A rancher chooses to breed his longest-horned bull to produce more long-horned cattle

c)

A dog breeder chooses which dogs to mate to produce offspring that do not shed

d)

All of these are correct

65.

Another name for natural selection is...

a)

hybridization

b)

bottleneck effect

c)

inheritable variation

d)

survival of the fittest

66.

What is an example of natural selection?

a)

tortoise population that eats tall cacti develops longer necks over time

b)

a dog breed becomes smaller because of human demand

c)

a white moth is predated on a dark tree

d)

a population of trees is killed by a large flood

67.

A trait that allows some organisms to survive while others do not is a/an...

a)

evolution

b)

mutation

c)

adaptation

d)

inheritable trait

68.

Which is an example of an adaptation?

a)

A group of rabbits have thick fur to stay warm in the winter

b)

A group of moths have darker wing colors to blend in to the trees

c)

A bird has a long thin beak to eat insects on cacti

d)

All of these are correct

69.

Which two species would have the fewest differences in their DNA?

a)

snakes and iguanian lizards

b)

snakes and geckos

c)

turtles and crocodiles

70.

Which two species would have the most differences in their DNA?

a)

snakes and iguanian lizards

b)

snakes and geckos

c)

turtles and crocodiles

71.
The theory of natural selection was a hypothesis first proposed by
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
James Waston and Francis Crick
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Robert Hooke
72.
1000 red and 1000 white ground beetles are placed in a cage on red clay containing beetle eating birds.  The beetles are counted after 2 days. What is expected? 
a)
Equal number of red and white beetles are left
b)
More red beetles are left
c)
More white beetles are left. 
d)
All the beetles are gone.
73.
Darwin's studies of finches on the Galapagos Island suggests that the finches' differences in beak structure were most directly due to:
a)
acquired characteristics in the parent finches
b)
the size of the island where the finches live.
c)
mating behaviors of the different finch species
d)
geographic isolation and adaptations of the finches to different environments 
74.
Which statement best describes evolution.
a)
evolution is a predictable change from simple to complex organisms
b)
evolution is a process of change through time
c)
evolution causes organisms to develop characteristics they need
d)
evolution often proceeds from complex to simpler organisms. 
75.
Characteristics of a species that make its members better able to live and reproduce in their environment are known as
a)
abiotic factors
b)
biotic factors
c)
homologous structures
d)
favorable adaptations. 
76.
Which of the following is true about natural selection?
a)
a population of organisms of the same species are all alike
b)
organisms posses genetic characteristics that sometimes make no difference on their lives
c)
organisms choose characteristics that help them adapt to their environment
d)
only those organisms that survive the environmental change pass on their traits to the next generation 
77.
Many scientists believe that the great number of different species of organisms which exist on the planet and the present time has resulted from billions of years of
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
recombinant DNA
c)
cloning
d)
evolution 
78.
A change in the gene pool due to death or isolation is called
a)
natural selection 
b)
biochemistry
c)
genetic drift
d)
mutations 
79.
The information in the chart provides data that can help in the identification of possible evolutionary relationships from the study of comparative __________ 
a)
cytology
b)
embryology
c)
anatomy
d)
biochemistry 
80.
Using the information from the chart, which two organisms are the closest in evolutionary distance from a common ancestor?
a)
horse-zebra
b)
human-gorilla
c)
human-chimpanzee
d)
horse-chimpanzee 
81.
A large population of bluejays living in the mountains is separated by the formation of a desert.  After millions of years, the populations of bluejays would most likely...
a)
become exstinct
b)
diverge into two new species 
c)
evolve into cats
d)
become two very small populations of the same species. 
82.
How are sudden changes and gaps in the fossil record explained?
a)
natural selection
b)
punctuated equilibrium
c)
acquired characteristics
d)
DNA evidence 
83.
The diagram shows undisturbed sedimentary strata at the bottom of the ocean.  The fossils found in layer B resemble the fossils found in layer A.  This similarity suggests that. 
a)
modern forms of life lay have evolved from earlier forms of life
b)
vertebrate fossils are only found in sediments 
c)
the fossils in layer A must be more complex than those in layer B
d)
the fossils in layers B were formed before the fossils in layer A
84.
The diagram below shows the gradual change over time in the anatomy of the horse.  Which concept is best illustrated by the physical variations in the horse as its body size and structure change over time?
a)
acquired characteristics 
b)
artificial selection
c)
intermediate inheritance
d)
evolution 
85.
Fossils of an extinct species of giant armadillo were found to be similar to a smaller species of armadillo presently inhabiting the same region.  This similarity could best be explained on the basis of...
a)
evolution from older forms
b)
use and disuse
c)
inheritance of acquired traits 
d)
the heterotroph hypothesis 
86.
A study of the position and shape of the bones in the forelimbs of a flying squirrel, a bat, and a beaver showed that the beaver and the flying squirrel appear to be most closely related.  This determination was most likely based on a study in the field of comparative
a)
anatomy
b)
biochemisty
c)
cytology
d)
embryology. 
87.
Fossils would most likely be found in
a)
amber (petrified sap) that is over 8 billion years old
b)
icebergs that are 500 billion years old
c)
sedimentary rocks that are 500 million years old
d)
volcanic rocks that are 50 million years old
88.
The diagrams below represent homologous structures.  The study of the evolutionary relationships between these structures is known as comparative... 
a)
embryology
b)
anatomy
c)
biochemistry
d)
cytology 
89.
The diagram shows a comparison of base sequences in the DNA of some organisms to those of a human.  According to this diagram, humans and gorillas last shared a common ancestor how many million of years?
a)
5 million years ago
b)
8 million years ago
c)
15 million years ago
d)
the present 
90.
Blood proteins in horses are chemically similar to blood proteins in moneys.  This similarity suggests that horses and monkeys
a)
can interbreed 
b)
evolved at the same time
c)
live in the same habitat
d)
have a common ancestor 
91.
The diagram below represent stages in the embryonic development of four organisms.  The similarities in embryonic development shown in the diagram suggests that these oranisms 
a)
all undergo external development
b)
have adaptations for the same enviroment
c)
are all members of the same species
d)
may have evolved from a common ancestor 
92.
The diagrams show embryos of three different vertebrate species.  According to one theory, similarities in these embryos suggest common ancestry.  As these embryos matures, they will most likely
a)
develop new organs according to the nutritional requirements of each organisms
b)
show no similarities 
c)
continue to closely resemble each other as adults
d)
develop distinctive characteristics of their species 
93.
The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation (p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1) allows geneticists to: 
a)
keep track of changes in phenotype frequencies from generation to generation in small families
b)
keep track of changes in phenotype frequencies from generation to generation in a population 
c)
determine what evolutionary mechanisms are causing changes in a population's gene pool frequencies 
d)
Let Mr. Pennell teach basic algebra to unsuspecting bio students 
94.

What is natural selection?

a)

The process by which organisms intentionally select their offspring's traits.

b)

The process by which organisms randomly produce offspring.

c)

The process by which organisms worse adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring.

d)

The process by which organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring.

95.

What is evolution?

a)

The process of change in only human life over generations

b)

The process of change in all forms of life over a single generation

c)

The process of change in non-living things over generations

d)

The process of change in all forms of life over generations

96.

What is adaptation?

a)

The process by which organisms change their genetic makeup to better fit their environment.

b)

The process by which organisms migrate to a different environment to survive and reproduce.

c)

The process by which organisms become extinct due to changes in their environment.

d)

The process by which organisms adjust to changes in their environment in order to survive and reproduce.

97.

Who is Charles Darwin?

a)

An American inventor known for his work on electricity

b)

An English naturalist, geologist and biologist known for his contributions to the science of evolution.

c)

A French mathematician known for his contributions to calculus

d)

A German philosopher known for his theories on metaphysics

98.

What did Charles Darwin contribute to the field of biology?

a)

Theory of Lamarckian inheritance

b)

Theory of evolution through natural selection

c)

Theory of spontaneous generation

d)

Theory of intelligent design

99.

What is speciation?

a)

The process by which new species are formed from existing ones.

b)

The process by which existing species become extinct

c)

The process by which species evolve into plants

d)

The process by which species migrate to different regions

100.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of natural selection?

a)

Genetic drift

b)

Adaptation

c)

Mutation

d)

Gene flow

101.

What is convergent evolution?

a)

The process by which unrelated or distantly related organisms evolve different traits or characteristics in response to different environmental conditions.

b)

The process by which unrelated or distantly related organisms evolve similar traits or characteristics in response to similar environmental conditions.

c)

The process by which closely related organisms evolve different traits or characteristics in response to similar environmental conditions.

d)

The process by which unrelated or distantly related organisms evolve similar traits or characteristics in response to different environmental conditions.

102.

What is divergent evolution?

a)

The process by which species that were once similar to an ancestral species evolve and accumulate differences, resulting in the formation of new species.

b)

The process by which species that were once similar to an ancestral species evolve and accumulate similarities, resulting in the extinction of the species.

c)

The process by which species that were once similar to an ancestral species evolve and accumulate similarities, resulting in the formation of new species.

d)

The process by which species that were once similar to an ancestral species evolve and accumulate differences, resulting in the extinction of the species.

103.

What is coevolution?

a)

The process in which two or more species evolve in the same direction due to environmental factors.

b)

The process in which two or more species evolve through genetic mutation.

c)

The process in which two or more species reciprocally affect each other's evolution through natural selection.

d)

The process in which two or more species evolve independently without any interaction.

104.

What is the main factor influencing natural selection?

a)

Mutation

b)

Environment

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Random chance

105.

Which of the following is an example of an adaptation in a desert environment?

a)

Plants storing water in their leaves or stems

b)

Cacti having thorns to protect against predators

c)

Animals migrating to cooler areas during the day

d)

Plants growing tall to reach sunlight

106.

Which of the following is an example of an adaptation in an aquatic environment?

a)

Wings in insects

b)

Fur in mammals

c)

Gills in fish

d)

Lungs in birds

107.

Which of the following is an example of an adaptation in a cold climate?

a)

Short fur

b)

Thick fur or blubber

c)

Sweating

d)

Hibernation

108.

Which of the following is an example of an adaptation in a forest environment?

a)

Migration

b)

Hibernation

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Camouflage

109.

Individuals with variations that make them best suited to their environment are, on average, more likely to ________.

a)

evolve

b)

change over time

c)

survive and reproduce

d)

become larger

110.

Natural selection acts on ________, and ________ evolve.

a)

individuals; individuals

b)

individuals; populations

c)

populations; populations

d)

populations; individuals

111.
Bird wings and butterfly wings are an example of
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Mimicry
d)
Camoflague
112.

An anatomical feature that no longer seams to have a purpose in the current form of an organism

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial structure

d)

None of the above

113.
a segment of DNA is called a 
a)
gene 
b)
allele 
c)
phenotype
114.

Mutations are

a)

Long Time evolutionary events

b)

Short time evolutionary events

c)

Mistakes in the genetic code

d)

When an organism looks very similar win physical resemblance to other objects

115.

Mimicry is

a)

Long Time evolutionary events

b)

Short time evolutionary events

c)

Mistakes in the genetic code

d)

When an organism looks very similar win physical resemblance to other objects

116.

An example of high fitness (the ability to survive and reproduce) is

a)

A man with 1 child and 10 grandchildren

b)

A man with 10 children ad 80 grandchildren

117.

Natural selection is the process that passes down ____________________ traits.

a)

Same

b)

Old

c)

Useless

d)

Favorable

118.

The process in which an animal cannot reproduce any more and dies out is known as _________________________.

a)

Speciation

b)

Extinction

c)

Evolution

d)

Natural Selection

119.

When there is a difference in population based on genes, it is said to be a _______________.

a)

Mutation

b)

Speciation

c)

Extinction

d)

Genetic Variation

120.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
121.

Which were first on earth?

a)

eurkaryotes

b)

prokaryotes

c)

mammals

d)

reptiles

122.
A well-tested concept that explains a wide range of observations is called a(an):
a)
hypothesis
b)
experiment
c)
cause and effect
d)
scientific theory
123.
The information provided by fossils about the Earth's history.
a)
Fossil Record
b)
Extinction
c)
Evolution
d)
Genetic Variation
124.

Which of the following is the collection of life's remains found in sedimentary rock?

a)

natural selection

b)

homologous structures

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

the fossil record

125.
Which layer is the youngest
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
126.
How do fossils provide evidence that evolution has happened on Earth?
a)
Fossils show how the sizes of certain animals has changed drastically over millions of years
b)
Fossils show that some species have gone extinct
c)
Fossils show how life forms present today are different than those from the past
d)
Different sedimentary rock layers provide evidence for how the environment has changed over time
127.

Similarities in bone arrangements, like those in the picture, support the hypothesis that...

a)

these organisms are not well adapted

b)

these organisms share a common ancestor

c)

these organisms all share the same DNA sequences

d)

these organisms are members of the same species

128.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
129.

What is this an example of?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Functional adaption

130.

The picture shows a/an ___________

a)

homologous structure

b)

vestigial structure

131.
Structures are similar in appearance but not in structure
a)
Vestigial 
b)
Homologous 
c)
Analogous Structures 
d)
Embryonic 
132.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
133.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
134.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
135.
What does Darwin's theory of evolution suggest?
a)
species change over time
b)
extinct species are not related to living species
c)
different species can interbreed
d)
animals that look alike are most closely related
136.
Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures.  These are known as
a)
vestigial structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil structures
137.
If modern organisms have a lot of homologous structures, what inference might paleontologists make about those organisms?
a)
They are reptiles
b)
One organism evolved from the other.
c)
The organisms have a common ancestor
138.
Which is not evidence for evolution?
a)
many animals have homologous structures due to common ancestry
b)
Many animals have vestigial structures from an ancestor
c)
We can observe changes in life forms by observing the fossil record
d)
All of these are evidence for evolution
139.
What is a structure that is similar across species?
a)
vestigial
b)
homologous
c)
adaptaion
d)
variation
140.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light 
b)
dark
141.
How do fossils provide evidence that evolution has happened on Earth?
a)
Fossils show how the sizes of certain animals has changed drastically over millions of years
b)
Fossils show that some species have gone extinct
c)
Fossils show how life forms present today are different than those from the past
d)
Different sedimentary rock layers provide evidence for how the environment has changed over time
142.
Scientists compare organisms' DNA to support the theory that all species share a common _________________
a)
separation
b)
ancestor
c)
population
d)
environment
143.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.

Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
144.

Recently, scientists have been able to use ___________to find common proteins and amino acids to determine how closely related species are.

a)

DNA

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Fossils

d)

Homologous structures

145.
Structures are similar in appearance but not in structure
a)
Vestigial 
b)
Homologous 
c)
Analogous Structures 
d)
Embryonic 
146.
The changes of species over time
a)
Embryonic 
b)
Natural selection 
c)
Mimicry 
d)
Evolution 
147.
Which layer is the youngest
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
148.
Which layer is the oldest
a)
B
b)
A
c)
E
d)
C
149.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
150.
Yellow toucan birds seek out one another to make babies together and tend to avoid the green toucan birds.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Non-random mating
c)
Gene flow
d)
Mutation
151.

During gestation (pregnancy), a developing male pig had a change in his genetic code. The result was that he to produce less nitrogenous solid waste.

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Non-random mating

c)

Mutation

d)

Natural Selection

152.
Five hundred years after the deer had established a flourishing population in the park, a few of them venture back to their original woods and have babies with the deer there.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Mutations
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Gene flow
153.
Wolves from the Arizona mesa were transferred to the Colorado Rockies after a forest fire destroyed their habitat. They quickly became part of the local pack and had offspring.
a)
Mutation
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Gene Flow
154.
7 Wild Mustangs were taken from the prairies of Iowa after a Texan Rancher purchased them and provided them with their own pasture. Those 7 Mustangs eventually became 122.
a)
Genetic Drift (small popultaion)
b)
Non-random mating
c)
Gene flow
d)
Mutations
155.
Which of the following is an example of the bottle neck effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
156.

All of the genetic information found in a population.

a)

population

b)

genetic drift

c)

evolution

d)

gene pool

157.
Gene Flow tends to ___________ genetic variation (diversity)
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Stabilize
d)
Exaggerate 
158.
Which of the following is an example of the bottleneck effect?
a)
Cheetah populations reach their lowest levels with reduced diversity and as they rebound are so genetically similar they appear to be inbred.
b)
Affected individuals with blue skin can trace their ancestry back to one of the first settlers in the region.
c)
The environment of a fox population changes and over time foxes who are white survive and pass on their genes to their offspring.
d)
Humans choose two dogs they like the characteristics of and breed them together.
159.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection? 
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
160.
Which of the following is an example of the founder effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
161.

Bats are common in Texas, especially in rocky regions. Bats with longer hang claws have demonstrated higher fitness because of their ability to cling to rock while resting. This adaptation is becoming more frequent in the population. What mechanism of evolution is this?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Non-random mating

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Genetic Drift

162.
Which is a pioneer species?
a)
trees
b)
flowers
c)
mushrooms
d)
lichen
163.
Which is an effect of climate change?
a)
melting of sea ice 
b)
burning of fossil fuels
c)
cutting down trees 
d)
vehicle exhaust
164.
What is biodiversity?
a)
a population of a species 
b)
the growth of cities
c)
destruction of natural habitats
d)
a variety of organisms 
165.

The presence of wastes, such as plastic bags and motor oil, in lakes and streams miles away from developed areas suggests that

a)

ecosystems are interconnected and human action can alter ecosystem equilibrium.

b)

recycling programs have failed to conserve biotic resources.

c)

natural processes can alter ecosystem stability.

d)

direct harvesting practices have led to irreversible destruction of ecosystems.

166.
When fertilizers run off farmland into streams and ponds, the nitrogen content of the water increases. This can lead to rapid growth of algae in a process called eutrophication. How can this process affect other organisms in the water?
a)
Oxygen is used up as algae is decomposed, reducing the amount available to other organisms.
b)
The water becomes better able to support aerobic organisms.
c)
The algae provide food for fishes and other organisms, leading to decreased algae populations.
d)
The extra nitrogen provides additional food for the other organisms, increasing their population.
167.
Global warming has been linked to a decrease in 
a)
the size of the polar ice caps 
b)
the temperature of Earth 
c)
the rate of species extinction 
d)
the rate of carbon dioxide production
168.
Which human activity is correctly paired with its likely future consequence?
a)
overfishing in the Atlantic — increase in supply of flounder and salmon as food for people 
b)
development of electric cars or hybrid vehicles — increased rate of global warming 
c)
use of fossil fuels — depletion of fossil-fuel based resources and increased CO2 in atmosphere
d)
genetically engineering animals — less food available to feed the world’s population
169.
In lakes in New York State that are exposed to acid rain, fish populations are declining.  This is primarily due to changes in which lake condition?
a)
Biotic Factors
b)
ozone levels
c)
increased sunlight (optional)
d)
pH
170.
A large tract of land is purchased by a commercial agricultural company. The land is cleared of its native flora (plants), and a single crop is planted instead. What is the effect of this action?
a)
There is an increase in the variety of foods.
b)
The biodiversity of the area is reduced.
c)
There is a reduction in the size of the land
d)
The cost of the planted crop increases
171.
 Which of the following activities contributes the most to carbon emissions globally?
a)
Deforestation
b)
Agriculture
c)
Burning fossil fuels
d)
Respiration
172.
How can people reduce the amount of natural resources they use?
a)
make more landfills and garbage dumps
b)
buy products with lots of packaging 
c)
use water, electricity, and gas conservatively and recycle metal, paper, and glass
d)
Think only about what you need right now and don’t worry about the future
173.
Why is biodiversity important?
a)
It removes mercury and other pollutants
b)
It stops acid rain
c)
It creates more fossil fuels
d)
Biodiversity helps an ecosystem survive impacts such as natural disasters or human impact
174.
A drought has hit this grassland biome. How will this effect the rabbit population?
a)
The rabbits will increase in number.
b)
The rabbit population will stay the same.
c)
The rabbit population will decrease.
d)
The rabbit population will become extinct immediately.
175.
Increased industrialization will most likely
a)
decrease available habitats 
b)
increase environmental carrying capacity 
c)
increase the stability of ecosystems 
d)
decrease global warming
176.

Deforestation by burning has been described as a "double whammy" to the environment, meaning it has 2 negative impacts. Why is this description accurate?

a)

Forest burning creates more CO2 rather than allowing the trees to remove it while decreasing oxygen, which disrupts cycles

b)

Deforestation reduces the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere, which depletes the ozone layer

c)

Forest clearing is often followed by land development, which often leads to increased noise pollution

d)

Deforestation increases the number of plant and animal species by destroying habitat

177.
The number one threat to biodiversity
a)
pollution
b)
fragmentation
c)
habitat destruction
d)
limiting factors
178.
Invasive species are:
a)
non-native
b)
harmful to an ecosystem
c)
organisms that can lack predators in the new environment
d)
all of the answers are correct
179.
What long-term impact could the destruction of large areas of forests have on Earth?
a)
decreased rates of erosion
b)
increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels
c)
decreased amounts of acid rain
d)
increased atmospheric oxygen levels
180.
Pollution _________________________.
a)
is harmful materials put into the environment
b)
found in air, water, and land
c)
effects plants, animals, and people
d)
All of the above
181.
Which of the following does NOT cause water pollution?
a)
oil spills
b)
garbage
c)
fertilizers from farms
d)
smoke
182.
How can trash effect wildlife?
a)
Wildlife animals cannot hunt prey because of the smell of garbage.
b)
Trash makes it hard for wildlife to camouflage.
c)
Wildlife could eat trash that they think is food.
d)
Wildlife animals are afraid of trash.
183.
What is one thing humans can do to positively impact the environment?
a)
They can throw their trash away anywhere. 
b)
They can recycle items if possible.
c)
They can empty their drinks into rivers and other water sources.
d)
They can work in factories that produce a lot of smoke.
184.

Why is plastic trash harmful to marine animals?

a)

Plastic trash breaks down too quickly.

b)

Animals get tangled in plastic trash and can strangle.

c)

Plastic trash is salty.

d)

Plastic trash floats and blocks sunlight.

185.
How do lichens contribute to primary succession?
a)
Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants
b)
Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil
c)
Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
d)
Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.
186.

Natural disturbances, such as fires or hurricanes, can result in

a)

parasitism.

b)

competition.

c)

commensalism.

d)

succession.

187.

What is the primary reason for the increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

a)

Increased use of solar panels

b)

Decreased use of fossil fuels

c)

Burning of fossil fuels

d)

More efficient public transportation systems

188.

How does reforestation help in reducing global warming?

a)

It increases the use of land for agriculture

b)

It reduces the amount of trees that absorb carbon dioxide

c)

It provides more habitats for wildlife

d)

It helps in capturing more carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

189.

What effect does urban sprawl have on natural habitats?

a)

Increases biodiversity

b)

Decreases land available for wildlife

c)

Enhances water quality in nearby rivers and lakes

d)

Reduces pollution

190.

​ (a)   have put more CO2 in the atmosphere.

CO2 makes carbonic acid in the ocean ​ (b)   the pH.

With acid in the ocean, marine organisms have trouble making ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
Human activities
lowering
shells
Volcanoes
raising
food
191.

Match the following statements with the correct words.

a)

biodiversity

1.

The variety of life found on Earth.

b)

ecological

2.

This type of diversity refers to the ways that species interact with each other & their environment

c)

Genetic

3.

This type of diversity is the variation in genes within a species.

d)

Surviving

4.

Organisms with a large gene pool have a great chance of ____ than a population w/limited variability

e)

Species

5.

This type of diversity refers to the number of species & abundance of species in a particular place

192.

Match the following

a)

Ecosystem Diversity

1.

Variety of habitats in biosphere

b)

Species Diversity

2.

Different types of organisms in area

c)

Genetic Diversity

3.

Different alleles present in species

193.

​ (a)   is the relative proportion of individuals within the different species in a given area.

Choose from the below words
Species evenness
species richness
194.

​ (a)   : measurable long-term changes in
averages of temperature, clouds, winds, precipitation, and
the frequency of extreme weather events

(b)   : increase in average global temperatures

Choose from the below words
Climate change
Global warming

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