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153 Exam 1 review

Total questions: 194

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes systematics from phylogeny in biology?

a)

Phylogeny focuses on identifying anatomical functions

b)

Systematics draws trees showing only living species

c)

Systematics classifies organisms and infers relationships

d)

Phylogeny names organisms using formal ranks

2.

In a branching diagram, what does a node most directly represent?

a)

A reversal to an ancestral trait in one lineage

b)

The most recent living species in a clade

c)

A common ancestor shared by descendant lineages

d)

A point where similar traits independently evolved

3.

Which description best matches a clade (monophyletic group)?

a)

An ancestor and all of its descendants

b)

A group formed by similar body shapes

c)

An ancestor and only some descendants

d)

Multiple unrelated groups with shared traits

4.

Which statement about similarity and evolutionary relationship is most accurate?

a)

Similarity always predicts shared ancestry

b)

Greater differences always mean older divergence

c)

Similarity proves species evolved at the same rate

d)

Similarity can mislead because evolution rates vary

5.

Which scenario illustrates convergent evolution?

a)

Features inherited from one immediate ancestor

b)

Wings in bats and insects evolving independently

c)

Loss of a derived trait returning to ancestral state

d)

Traits shared by all members of a single clade

6.

What is an evolutionary reversal?

a)

Replacement of a common ancestor by a new one

b)

Independent evolution of similar traits in species

c)

Emergence of a novel derived character in a clade

d)

Re-evolution of an ancestral character in a lineage

7.

Which term correctly pairs with its definition: synapomorphy?

a)

A trait unique to a single individual

b)

A primitive trait present in an outgroup

c)

A shared derived character uniting a clade

d)

A naming system using hierarchical ranks

8.

In cladistics, which practice helps determine relationships most reliably?

a)

Using shared derived characters to group taxa

b)

Grouping species by overall appearance alone

c)

Counting the total number of similarities

d)

Prioritizing the fastest-evolving lineages

9.

Which statement best defines a cladogram in evolutionary biology?

a)

A diagram showing trait frequencies across populations

b)

A chart depicting ecological niches over time

c)

A hypothesis of relationships using shared derived characters

d)

A timeline of fossil ages for different taxa

10.

In cladistics, what is a taxon?

a)

A group such as species, genus, or family

b)

An outgroup used for comparison

c)

A specific derived character state

d)

A single organism used as a model

11.

Which feature is a synapomorphy of mammals in basic examples?

a)

Amniotic eggs with leathery shells

b)

Seven cervical vertebrae in the neck

c)

Hair covering at least part of the body

d)

Presence of lungs in adults

12.

What role does an outgroup play in cladistic analysis?

a)

It provides the oldest fossil dates for calibration

b)

It helps infer which character states are ancestral

c)

It ensures each clade has equal species counts

d)

It determines which taxa are ecological competitors

13.

Which term refers to a shared ancestral character state within a clade?

a)

Synapomorphy

b)

Parsimony

c)

Plesiomorphy

d)

Homoplasy

14.

Homoplasy most often results from which process?

a)

Horizontal gene transfer among bacteria

b)

Convergent evolution or evolutionary reversal

c)

Hybridization between closely related species

d)

Random genetic drift in small populations

15.

According to the principle of parsimony, which cladogram should be preferred?

a)

One showing equal branch lengths for all taxa

b)

One requiring the fewest evolutionary events

c)

One with the most detailed character list

d)

One matching traditional taxonomic ranks

16.

Why do lungs fail to group mammals separately from lizards in cladistics?

a)

Lungs are present in amphibians and reptiles

b)

Lungs are a shared derived trait of reptiles

c)

Lungs evolve too rapidly to be informative

d)

Lungs are unique to mammals only

17.

Which statement correctly contrasts ancestral and derived characters?

a)

Ancestral states are unique to one species only

b)

Derived states occur due to random mutations only

c)

Derived states cannot be shared by multiple taxa

d)

Ancestral states existed in the common ancestor

18.

When using DNA characters in rapidly evolving regions, what complication can arise?

a)

Many similarities that are homoplasies

b)

Excessive plesiomorphies masking clades

c)

Parsimony failing to produce any tree

d)

Outgroups becoming identical to ingroups

19.

Which part of a scientific name is capitalized and which is not in binomial nomenclature?

a)

Both genus and species lowercase

b)

Both genus and species capitalized

c)

Species capitalized, genus lowercase

d)

Genus capitalized, species lowercase

20.

What is the primary purpose of taxonomy within biology?

a)

Name and classify organisms

b)

Predict habitat suitability

c)

Calculate population growth

d)

Measure molecule evolution rates

21.

Which sequence correctly lists the taxonomic hierarchy from most inclusive to least inclusive?

a)

Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain

b)

Domain, phylum, kingdom, class, order, family, genus, species

c)

Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

d)

Kingdom, domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

22.

What defines a monophyletic group (clade)?

a)

Most recent common ancestor and all descendants

b)

Most recent common ancestor and some descendants

c)

Organisms from different clades without shared ancestor

d)

Species grouped by similar traits only

23.

Which description best matches a paraphyletic taxon?

a)

Includes only unrelated species with similar traits

b)

Includes the ancestor but not all descendants

c)

Includes multiple clades without shared ancestor

d)

Includes the ancestor and all descendants

24.

Which situation illustrates a polyphyletic group?

a)

Species drawn from different clades without their most recent common ancestor

b)

Species including an ancestor but excluding some descendants

c)

Species including an ancestor and all descendants

d)

Species grouped strictly by shared derived characters

25.

Why is binomial nomenclature useful for avoiding confusion?

a)

It measures evolutionary relationships

b)

It identifies habitats for each species

c)

It standardizes names across languages

d)

It ranks species by abundance

26.

In the phylogenetic species concept, what criterion is central for defining species?

a)

Shared derived characters indicating independent evolution

b)

Shared habitats indicating ecological similarity

c)

Similar physical size indicating relatedness

d)

Ability to interbreed across all populations

27.

Which statement about the phylogenetic species concept is accurate?

a)

Applicable to both sexual and asexual organisms

b)

Limited to sexually reproducing organisms

c)

Only works for sympatric populations

d)

Requires identical morphology across populations

28.

Traditional groups like "reptiles" often fail to be monophyletic because they

a)

Combine species from unrelated clades

b)

Include all descendants of a common ancestor

c)

Are based on shared derived characters

d)

Exclude some descendants of a common ancestor

29.

Which statement best distinguishes homologous from homoplastic traits?

a)

Homoplastic traits always come from common ancestry

b)

Homologous traits arise by similar selection pressures

c)

Homologous traits share an ancestral origin

d)

Homoplastic traits are unique to a single lineage

30.

Which example illustrates homoplastic convergence rather than shared ancestry?

a)

Hollow bones passed down in theropods

b)

Saber teeth evolving in cats and marsupials

c)

Feathers shared by all modern birds

d)

Parental care inherited across crocodiles

31.

Complex characters like flight typically evolve how?

a)

From identical changes in all lineages

b)

Instantly as a single mutation event

c)

Only by horizontal gene transfer

d)

Through a sequence of evolutionary steps

32.

How can phylogenetic methods help explain beetle diversification?

a)

By assuming diversification is random

b)

By measuring only body size changes

c)

By ignoring specialization on plants

d)

By testing hypotheses about resource use

33.

What is the most supported origin of HIV in humans?

a)

Spontaneous mutation in human cells

b)

Transmission from SIV in other primates

c)

Direct evolution from influenza virus

d)

Hybridization between unrelated viruses

34.

Why are phylogenies useful in tracking diseases like AIDS and COVID-19?

a)

They only show symptoms in patients

b)

They prevent mutations in the pathogen

c)

They replace clinical testing entirely

d)

They reveal paths of transmission over time

35.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
36.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
37.

What is the common ancestor of Letters A, B, C, D, E?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

38.

Which statement best defines speciation in evolutionary biology?

a)

The extinction of all members of a species

b)

The process of one species giving rise to another

c)

The migration of individuals between populations

d)

The accumulation of mutations without lineage splitting

39.

According to the Biological Species Concept, what primarily delineates species boundaries?

a)

Common ancestry inferred from phylogenies

b)

Shared ecological niches and resources

c)

Reproductive isolation among natural populations

d)

Similar anatomical structures and shapes

40.

What is a gene pool?

a)

All of the alleles present in a species

b)

All DNA sequences in an ecosystem

c)

The set of genes found in one organism

d)

The sum of phenotypes in a population

41.

In the Biological Species Concept, members of a species are populations that

a)

Actually or potentially interbreed and produce fertile offspring

b)

Share the same geographic location at all times

c)

Look identical across their entire range

d)

Occupy the same trophic level in food webs

42.

Reproductively isolated populations are those whose members

a)

Exhibit identical morphological traits

b)

Avoid competition for the same resources

c)

Do not mate or cannot produce fertile offspring

d)

Share genes through hybrid vigor

43.

Which scenario illustrates sympatric species?

a)

Identical species occupying distant islands

b)

Species that migrate seasonally across regions

c)

Populations separated by a mountain range

d)

Distinct species occurring together in one locale

44.

Geographic variation within a species often involves

a)

Instantaneous formation of new species

b)

Uniform morphology across all habitats

c)

Complete reproductive isolation across all ranges

d)

Intervening populations with intermediate traits

45.

Which mechanism primarily reduces the chance of different species producing hybrids?

a)

Increased mutation rates in gametes

b)

Reproductive isolating mechanisms

c)

Genetic drift within small groups

d)

Directional selection on one trait

46.

Prezygotic isolating mechanisms act by

a)

Eliminating deleterious alleles in a gene pool

b)

Separating populations with physical barriers

c)

Reducing hybrid fertility after birth

d)

Preventing mating or fertilization between species

47.

Postzygotic isolating mechanisms typically result in

a)

Mechanical mismatch of reproductive organs

b)

Behavioral differences in courtship signals

c)

Temporal separation of mating seasons

d)

Hybrid inviability or hybrid infertility

48.

Which term describes species that are connected by intermediate populations despite appearing different?

a)

Geographically distinct populations

b)

Convergent morphological forms

c)

Completely segregated lineages

d)

Allopatric species in isolation

49.

Allopatric speciation most often begins with

a)

Hybrid sterility arising within one locale

b)

Behavioral changes in courtship signals

c)

Sudden polyploidy in a single generation

d)

Physical separation of populations by barriers

50.

Sympatric speciation can be promoted by

a)

Random mating across all subpopulations

b)

Gene flow increasing between regions

c)

Gradual erosion of mountain barriers

d)

Polyploidy forming instant reproductive barriers

51.

Which concept focuses on diagnosable lineage differences rather than interbreeding tests?

a)

Phylogenetic Species Concept

b)

Biological Species Concept

c)

Ecological Species Concept

d)

Morphological Species Concept

52.

The Ecological Species Concept defines species based on

a)

Occupation of distinct ecological niches

b)

Ability to interbreed in the wild

c)

Ancestral relationships on a tree

d)

Similarity of external morphology

53.

Behavioral isolation is best exemplified by

a)

Seasonal shifts causing mating at different times

b)

Divergent courtship signals preventing mating

c)

Physical incompatibility of reproductive organs

d)

Chromosome mismatches after fertilization

54.

Temporal isolation occurs when

a)

Populations breed in different seasons or times

b)

Mating signals differ across habitats

c)

Gametes fail to fuse after mating

d)

Hybrids die before reaching maturity

55.

Mechanical isolation prevents reproduction because

a)

Reproductive structures are physically incompatible

b)

Gametes cannot locate each other chemically

c)

Zygotes fail to proceed past cleavage

d)

Hybrids have low survivorship in nature

56.

Preventing gamete fusion specifically refers to cases where

a)

Mating times never overlap across seasons

b)

Sperm and egg are incompatible even after mating

c)

Zygotes form but hybrids are sterile adults

d)

Courtship behaviors are not recognized

57.

Which outcome would most directly contradict the Biological Species Concept for two populations?

a)

Groups occupy separate ecological niches

b)

Hybrid offspring have reduced viability

c)

Populations look different across environments

d)

Members freely interbreed and produce fertile offspring

58.

Which statement best distinguishes prezygotic from postzygotic isolating mechanisms?

a)

Prezygotic barriers act before fertilization occurs

b)

Postzygotic barriers prevent mating attempts entirely

c)

Prezygotic barriers kill hybrid adults after birth

d)

Postzygotic barriers allow gene flow without limits

59.

Ecological isolation is best illustrated by which scenario?

a)

Two species have compatible gametes across taxa

b)

Two species share identical courtship signals

c)

Two species breed at the exact same season

d)

Two species occupy same region but different microhabitats

60.

Behavioral isolation typically involves which feature?

a)

Species-specific courtship signals and rituals

b)

Gamete membrane protein incompatibility

c)

Seasonal separation in mating times

d)

Physical mismatch of reproductive organs

61.

Temporal isolation can occur when two species in one habitat

a)

Mate in different seasons or times of day

b)

Display identical mating behaviors

c)

Hybridize and produce sterile offspring

d)

Produce inviable zygotes after fertilization

62.

Mechanical isolation most directly refers to

a)

Structural differences preventing copulation

b)

Gametes failing to recognize each other

c)

Embryos failing during early development

d)

Hybrids producing nonfunctional gametes

63.

Prevention of gamete fusion is best described as

a)

Sperm and egg incompatibility blocking fertilization

b)

Hybrid zygotes failing to develop fully

c)

Adults unable to find mates in habitat

d)

Mating seasons not overlapping annually

64.

Hybrid inviability most accurately means

a)

Hybrid embryos fail to develop or die early

b)

Gametes from different species cannot fuse

c)

Hybrids reach adulthood but are sterile

d)

First generation fertile, second generation weak

65.

A mule is an example used to illustrate

a)

Ecological isolation in grasslands

b)

Hybrid infertility resulting in sterility

c)

Mechanical isolation between equids

d)

Prezygotic temporal separation

66.

Hybrid breakdown occurs when

a)

Adults cannot perform courtship rituals

b)

Hybrids die as embryos immediately

c)

Gametes from two species never fuse

d)

F1 hybrids fertile but later generations decline

67.

A limitation of the biological species concept is that it

a)

Emphasizes ecological niche differentiation

b)

Defines species by unique phylogenetic branches

c)

Relies on measurable morphological traits

d)

Excludes asexual and fossil organisms

68.

The ecological species concept primarily defines species by

a)

Ability to interbreed and produce offspring

b)

Overall morphological similarity patterns

c)

Shared ancestry on a cladogram branch

d)

Adaptation to specific environmental roles

69.

The morphological species concept is especially useful for

a)

Assessing hybrid fertility in captivity

b)

Testing reproductive isolation experimentally

c)

Classifying fossils and asexual lineages

d)

Measuring gene flow between subpopulations

70.

A noted problem with the morphological species concept is

a)

Inability to reconstruct phylogenetic trees

b)

Dependence on breeding experiments in nature

c)

Exclusion of ecological niche information

d)

High variation within or similarity across species

71.

The phylogenetic species concept defines a species as

a)

Populations occupying distinct microhabitats

b)

Organisms sharing identical morphologies

c)

Any group that interbreeds successfully

d)

A smallest monophyletic cluster of populations

72.

Which situation best shows selection reinforcing isolation?

a)

Asexual organisms grouped by morphology alone

b)

Two species share habitats and interbreed freely

c)

Hybrids have reduced fitness, strengthening barriers

d)

Disruptive selection merges two populations

73.

Which statement best describes reinforcement in speciation?

a)

Bottlenecks increase heterozygosity and reduce isolation

b)

Selection strengthens prezygotic barriers where hybrids are unfit

c)

Random drift fixes neutral alleles across isolated islands

d)

Hybrid zones promote gene flow that merges populations

74.

In the absence of reproductive isolating mechanisms, what most likely happens when diverging populations come into contact?

a)

Selection immediately completes speciation between groups

b)

Geographical isolation intensifies without contact

c)

Genetic drift rapidly creates new isolating barriers

d)

Interbreeding restores gene flow and merges differences

75.

Which scenario exemplifies the founder effect’s role in speciation?

a)

A few colonists carry rare traits that drift to high frequency

b)

Large populations maintain polymorphisms by strong migration

c)

Hybrid zones produce highly fertile recombinant swarms

d)

Bottlenecks increase genetic variation through new mutations

76.

Population bottlenecks can contribute to speciation primarily because they

a)

always create ecological isolation in new habitats

b)

eliminate drift allowing selection to act uniformly

c)

guarantee evolution of postzygotic isolation quickly

d)

increase drift causing trait shifts that reduce interbreeding

77.

Which statement about gene flow and speciation is most accurate?

a)

Gene flow only occurs under complete geographic isolation

b)

Gene flow has no effect on allele frequency differences

c)

Gene flow generally accelerates reproductive isolation

d)

Gene flow counteracts divergence by homogenizing populations

78.

Ecological or behavioral isolation can evolve when populations adapt to different conditions. Which example fits this pattern?

a)

Uniform selection maintaining identical courtship cues

b)

Divergence in mating signals like lizard dewlap displays

c)

Random fixation of synonymous codons in allopatry

d)

Instant chromosome doubling producing sterile offspring

79.

Which statement best captures the two-step view of speciation?

a)

Populations diverge, then isolating mechanisms maintain differences

b)

Geographical isolation alone completes speciation immediately

c)

Hybrids form first, then divergence eliminates all isolation

d)

Selection ends, then drift creates postzygotic incompatibilities

80.

How does geographical isolation typically influence speciation?

a)

It is required in every case for speciation to occur

b)

It guarantees reinforcement in all hybrid zones

c)

It directly creates new species without divergence

d)

It reduces gene flow, making divergence more likely

81.

Which statement best defines allopatric speciation?

a)

Speciation occurs only through polyploid chromosome doubling

b)

Speciation occurs by random mating within mixed populations

c)

Speciation occurs when gene flow is interrupted by isolation

d)

Speciation occurs with continuous gene flow within one area

82.

A mountain range forms between two populations of the same species. Over time they diverge and can no longer interbreed. Which mechanism initially caused this speciation?

a)

Directional selection in a uniform environment

b)

Hybrid vigor increasing fertility

c)

Geographic isolation preventing gene flow

d)

Genetic drift within a single habitat

83.

Which example best fits sympatric speciation?

a)

Two bird populations separated by an ocean

b)

Fish populations isolated by a new waterfall

c)

Plants forming new species via polyploidy

d)

Lizards split by uplift of an isthmus

84.

Polyploidy can cause speciation primarily because polyploids often

a)

cannot interbreed with the parent species

b)

migrate to new geographic regions

c)

display reduced mutation rates

d)

experience enhanced gene flow

85.

Disruptive selection maintaining two phenotypes in a single habitat is most likely to lead to

a)

allopatric divergence through migration

b)

sympatric speciation via reproductive isolation

c)

genetic drift eliminating variation

d)

directional selection toward one extreme

86.

Adaptive radiation is best described as

a)

the formation of hybrids between distant lineages

b)

the gradual loss of species diversity over time

c)

the evolution of many related species from one ancestor

d)

the evolution of identical traits in unrelated species

87.

Which situation most favors adaptive radiation?

a)

A habitat with uniform resources and strong gene flow

b)

An old ecosystem at carrying capacity

c)

A new environment with few species and many niches

d)

A stable environment with many competitors

88.

A key innovation is important in adaptive radiation because it

a)

prevents hybridization among species

b)

removes geographic barriers to dispersal

c)

reduces mutation rates across lineages

d)

allows access to new resources or niches

89.

On newly formed island chains, adaptive radiation often proceeds through an initial

a)

hybrid phase with sterile offspring

b)

stasis phase without any change

c)

allopatric phase with island isolation

d)

sympatric phase with random mating

90.

Character displacement during the sympatric phase of radiation most directly

a)

reduces divergence in feeding structures

b)

eliminates ecological specialization entirely

c)

favors individuals using resources differently

d)

increases competition among close relatives

91.

Which empirical pattern illustrates rapid diversification linked to isolation and ecological opportunity?

a)

Decline of species after invasive predators

b)

Stable lineages of open-ocean plankton

c)

Radiation of Hawaiian fruit flies and lobeliads

d)

Gradual evolution in African mammals

92.

Lake Victoria cichlids diversified rapidly partly because

a)

predator release eliminated selection pressures

b)

polyploidy created sterile hybrids in one lake

c)

rising and falling levels isolated fish in small lakes

d)

stable water levels promoted constant gene flow

93.

Which statement differentiates gradualism from punctuated equilibrium?

a)

Gradualism accumulates small changes over long times

b)

Punctuated equilibrium predicts slow, continuous change

c)

Gradualism predicts long stasis without change

d)

Punctuated equilibrium denies natural selection occurs

94.

Punctuated equilibrium proposes that most lineages experience

a)

periodic polyploidy replacing selection

b)

continuous gene flow preventing divergence

c)

constant, slow accumulation of tiny changes

d)

long stasis with brief bursts of rapid change

95.

A mass extinction is defined as

a)

a localized event without global impact

b)

a temporary bottleneck with quick recovery

c)

a gradual diversification of lineages

d)

a sharp decline when extinctions outpace speciation

96.

Which inference follows from past and present mass extinctions?

a)

All species will persist with minor fluctuations

b)

Current species richness is lower than ever recorded

c)

Human activities are driving a rapid biodiversity decline

d)

Only five mass extinctions have ever occurred

97.

Which statement best defines genetic variation in a population?

a)

Different behaviors learned during an organism’s life

b)

Different climates experienced across a region

c)

Different alleles of genes within individuals

d)

Different species living in the same habitat

98.

Which measure describes the occurrence of an allele as a proportion of the population?

a)

Mutation rate across generations

b)

Genotype frequency in individuals

c)

Allele frequency in the gene pool

d)

Fitness of the selected trait

99.

Which statement about evolution and populations is correct?

a)

Populations evolve over generations

b)

Individuals rapidly change their genes

c)

Populations always stay the same

d)

Individuals evolve during their lifetime

100.

Which process can change allele frequencies in a population? Select all that apply.

a)

Random chance in small populations

b)

Natural selection acting on traits

c)

Mutation creating new alleles

d)

Migration bringing alleles

101.

What is the focus of population genetics?

a)

Study of genetic variation in a population

b)

Study of a single organism’s genome

c)

Study of climate effects on habitats

d)

Study of energy flow in ecosystems

102.

Which statement about polymorphic variation is accurate?

a)

Multiple behaviors learned over time

b)

Multiple morphs or morphological differences

c)

Multiple habitats across a large region

d)

Multiple species sharing one niche

103.

Which Hardy-Weinberg assumption is correctly matched with its description? Select all that apply.

a)

No gene flow: no migration occurs

b)

No mutation: alleles do not change

c)

Very large population: no genetic drift

d)

Random mating: mates are chosen by chance

104.

In Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, what remains constant from one generation to the next?

a)

Population density and birthrates

b)

Allele and genotype frequencies

c)

Body size and coloration

d)

Mutation rates and selection

105.

In a two-allele system, which binomial equation represents allele frequencies?

a)

p − q = 0 in individuals

b)

p + q = 1 in the gene pool

c)

p × q = 1 across traits

d)

p ÷ q = 1 within groups

106.

Which equation gives genotype frequencies under Hardy-Weinberg conditions?

a)

p2 − q2 + pq = 1

b)

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

c)

2p + q + q2 = 1

d)

p + q + pq = 1

107.

If p is the dominant allele frequency and q is the recessive allele frequency, which statement is true?

a)

p + q equals one

b)

p − q equals zero

c)

p × q equals one

d)

p ÷ q equals one

108.

Which situation would violate Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?

a)

Extremely large population size

b)

Nonrandom assortative mating

c)

No mutation across generations

d)

No gene flow between populations

109.

What is gene flow in population genetics?

a)

Movement of alleles between populations

b)

Change in allele due to mutation

c)

Differential survival by fitness

d)

Random loss by genetic drift

110.

Which factor especially affects small populations by random changes in allele frequencies?

a)

Genetic drift in small populations

b)

High levels of gene flow always

c)

Strong mutation rates each generation

d)

Perfectly balanced natural selection

111.

Disassortative mating most directly leads to which outcome?

a)

Higher proportion of heterozygotes in the population

b)

Higher proportion of homozygotes in the population

c)

Fixation of harmful alleles by chance

d)

No change in genotype frequencies overall

112.

Genetic drift is best characterized as

a)

Migration that adds new alleles to a population consistently

b)

Selection favoring traits that increase survival in large populations

c)

Nonrandom mating that changes allele frequencies in any population

d)

Random changes in allele frequencies, strongest in small populations

113.

Which scenario illustrates the founder effect?

a)

A few individuals colonize an island, carrying rare alleles

b)

A drought reduces a large population suddenly to a few

c)

Individuals choose mates with different phenotypes

d)

Predators remove individuals with conspicuous coloration

114.

Natural selection requires which conditions to operate effectively?

a)

Heritable variation among individuals

b)

Differences in reproductive success

c)

Phenotypic variation without genetic basis

d)

Equal survival and mating success for all

115.

Artificial selection differs from natural selection because

a)

Humans choose traits to breed deliberately

b)

Mating is strictly disassortative in all cases

c)

Environment chooses traits to favor consistently

d)

Chance events change allele frequencies randomly

116.

In small isolated populations, genetic drift can cause which outcome?

a)

Loss of genetic variation over time

b)

Predictable advantage of rare phenotypes

c)

Random fixation of harmful alleles

d)

Stable allele frequencies unaffected by chance

117.

Which components can contribute to an individual’s overall fitness?

a)

Mating success with available partners

b)

Mutation rate of the individual’s genome

c)

Offspring produced per mating event

d)

Survival to reproductive age

118.

Sexual selection most directly involves

a)

Environmental disasters reshaping population genetics

b)

Random drift of alleles due to small population size

c)

Parental investment equal between sexes in all species

d)

Competition for mates and mate choice influencing traits

119.

Which description matches sexual dimorphism?

a)

Traits changing only during environmental oscillations

b)

Identical ornamentation and size across all individuals

c)

Differences in secondary sexual traits between sexes

d)

Differences in allele frequencies within one sex only

120.

Intersexual selection is best exemplified by

a)

Parents investing equal energy in all offspring

b)

Predators removing conspicuous individuals quickly

c)

Males fighting each other for access to females

d)

Females choosing males with ornate plumage

121.

Intrasexual selection often involves

a)

Choice by females based on male ornaments

b)

Competition among males for access to females

c)

Frequency-dependent advantage of rare alleles

d)

Random pairing of mates without preferences

122.

Which statement about frequency-dependent selection is correct?

a)

Fitness of a phenotype depends on its frequency

b)

Fitness is constant regardless of population frequency

c)

Only rare phenotypes are favored in every case

d)

Only common phenotypes are favored in every case

123.

Negative frequency-dependent selection tends to

a)

Eliminate heterozygotes from the population

b)

Favor common phenotypes and remove variation

c)

Favor rare phenotypes and maintain variation

d)

Increase fixation of harmful alleles by chance

124.

Positive frequency-dependent selection tends to

a)

Favor common phenotypes and reduce variation

b)

Favor rare phenotypes and increase variation

c)

Keep genotype frequencies unchanged always

d)

Increase assortative mating across the species

125.

Oscillating selection across changing environments typically

a)

Favors different phenotypes at different times

b)

Fixes a single phenotype permanently in populations

c)

Eliminates all variation regardless of conditions

d)

Removes rare alleles from the gene pool quickly

126.

Heterozygote advantage means that

a)

Homozygotes have higher fitness than heterozygotes

b)

Heterozygotes have higher fitness than homozygotes

c)

Rare alleles are always eliminated by selection

d)

All genotypes have equal fitness in every environment

127.

Which scenario best illustrates disruptive selection in a population with continuous variation?

a)

Individuals with extreme traits have higher fitness

b)

Individuals at one end of the range are favored

c)

Individuals with intermediate traits have highest fitness

d)

All phenotypes have equal fitness

128.

Directional selection most likely occurs when which condition is met?

a)

Selection increases genetic drift effects

b)

Selection removes both extremes of phenotypes

c)

Selection removes intermediate phenotypes

d)

Selection favors one extreme over the other

129.

Stabilizing selection leads to which outcome in a trait distribution?

a)

Both extremes are favored

b)

One extreme phenotype is favored

c)

Intermediate phenotypes are favored

d)

Phenotypes shift randomly over time

130.

Frequency-dependent selection can maintain variation. Which example fits this mechanism?

a)

Rare phenotypes gain an advantage

b)

Mutation rates rapidly increase

c)

Intermediate phenotypes are eliminated

d)

Common phenotypes always win

131.

Oscillating selection would most likely produce what pattern across years?

a)

Continuous removal of intermediates

b)

Constant advantage to rare types

c)

Alternating favoring of different extremes

d)

Stable favoring of intermediates

132.

Heterozygote advantage occurs when heterozygotes have which property compared to homozygotes?

a)

Equal fitness across all conditions

b)

Fitness only under genetic drift

c)

Lower fitness in all environments

d)

Higher fitness than both homozygotes

133.

Which statement about mutation and genetic drift is most accurate in natural populations?

a)

Drift is strongest in large populations

b)

Mutation rates are typically low

c)

Genetic drift can remove high-fitness alleles

d)

Mutation alone quickly changes traits

134.

Gene flow can influence adaptation. Which effects are possible?

a)

Introduce alleles with lower fitness

b)

Spread beneficial alleles between populations

c)

Always decrease genetic variation

d)

Always increase local fitness

135.

Pleiotropy can limit selection because

a)

One gene affects multiple traits

b)

Mutation rates are extremely high

c)

Multiple genes affect one trait

d)

No genetic variation exists

136.

Epistasis affects selection outcomes when

a)

One gene’s effect depends on another gene

b)

Traits are determined by single genes only

c)

Allele fitness is environment independent

d)

Gene interactions never constrain traits

137.

In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.3, what is the frequency of the dominant allele?

a)

0.3

b)

0.5

c)

0.7

d)

1.0

138.

In the Hardy-Weinberg equation p2+2pq+q2=1p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 , what does 2pq2pq represent?

a)

Frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype

b)

Frequency of the heterozygous genotype

c)

Frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype

d)

Total allele frequency

139.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
140.
What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium measure?
a)
changes in allele frequencies
b)
numbers of mutations
c)
goodness of fit
d)
genetic diversity
141.
The Hardy-Weinberg Model is...
a)
available at local hobby stores and retailers throughout the Greater Tazewell area.
b)
a mathematical tool that biologists can use to predict allele frequencies and determine whether or not evolution is occurring within a population.
c)
always occurring within individual organisms in nature.
d)
only useful in the lab and cannot be practically applied to real-world populations of organisms.  
142.
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular recessive allele a is .4.  What is the percentage of the population heterozygous for this allele?
a)
4 percent
b)
16 percent
c)
32 percent
d)
48 percent
143.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the percentage of recessive genotype?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64

144.

A population's recessive allele frequency 25%. What is the percentage of the Homozygous Dominant genotype?

a)

.5625

b)

.3750

c)

.0625

d)

.25

e)

.5

145.

64% of the population has the recessive phenotype. What is the percentage of the recessive genotype?

a)

.04

b)

.32

c)

.64

d)

.2

e)

.8

146.

A population's recessive allele frequency 25%. What is the percentage of the Heterozygous genotype?

a)

.5625

b)

.3750

c)

.0625

d)

.25

e)

.5

147.

Which term describes human-driven breeding that increases the frequency of chosen traits across generations?

a)

Vestigial structures

b)

Artificial selection

c)

Convergent evolution

d)

Biogeography

148.

Structures in different species that share a common ancestry but may serve different functions are called what?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Convergent traits

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Analogous structures

149.

Which concept examines the geographic distribution of species to infer evolutionary history?

a)

Vestigial structures

b)

Homologous structures

c)

Biogeography

d)

Artificial selection

150.

When unrelated lineages independently evolve similar adaptations due to similar selective pressures, this is known as what?

a)

Biogeographic radiation

b)

Homologous divergence

c)

Convergent evolution

d)

Artificial selection

151.

Remnant anatomical features that have lost most or all original function are referred to as what?

a)

Adaptive novelties

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Homologous structures

d)

Analogous organs

152.

Select all terms that involve comparison of form and function across species to infer evolutionary relationships.

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Convergent evolution

d)

Biogeography

153.

Which pair correctly matches the term with its best concise description?

a)

Biogeography: molecular clock calibration

b)

Convergent evolution: shared ancestry explaining similarity

c)

Vestigial structures: fully functional novel organ

d)

Artificial selection: human-mediated trait increase

154.

Choose the statement that best distinguishes homologous from analogous features.

a)

Both homologous and analogous share ancestry equally

b)

Analogous share ancestry, homologous share function

c)

Neither homologous nor analogous imply ancestry

d)

Homologous share ancestry, analogous share function

155.

Which combination is most likely under similar environments but independent lineages?

a)

Convergent evolution producing analogous traits

b)

Vestigial structures increasing primary function

c)

Biogeography preventing adaptive change

d)

Artificial selection producing homologous traits

156.

Which statement best captures natural selection as described using Darwin’s finches?

a)

All finches adapt identically regardless of food type

b)

Environmental change creates new beak genes during drought

c)

Individuals with advantageous beak traits leave more offspring

d)

Random mutations guarantee larger beaks in each generation

157.

For natural selection to operate in a population, which set of conditions must be met?

a)

Phenotypic variation exists among individuals

b)

Variation affects lifetime reproductive success

c)

Variation is genetically transmissible to offspring

d)

Individual effort causes heritable improvements

158.

In medium ground finches, what trend was observed during dry years with tough seeds?

a)

Beaks became larger across the population

b)

Beaks became smaller across the population

c)

Beak size did not change measurably

d)

Beaks changed due to learning, not genetics

159.

Which scenario illustrates selection pressure reversing when conditions change?

a)

Constant predation regardless of pollution levels

b)

Polluted habitats favoring dark moths, then light moths as air clears

c)

A drought permanently fixing small beaks in finches

d)

Industrial areas always favoring light-colored moths

160.

Industrial melanism in peppered moths primarily involves which biological feature?

a)

Body color controlled by genetic variation

b)

Wing shape altered by industrial soot

c)

Metabolic rate increased by pollution exposure

d)

Behavioral changes reducing predation risk

161.

What is a plausible agent of selection influencing peppered moth coloration in polluted environments?

a)

Direct poisoning effects of air pollutants

b)

Bird predation against conspicuous morphs

c)

Sunlight intensity differences between regions

d)

Seasonal migration patterns of moths

162.

Which statement about the decrease of light-colored moths in polluted areas is most accurate?

a)

Light morphs chose darker resting sites consistently

b)

Light morphs were genetically replaced by new species

c)

Light morphs were sterile under industrial conditions

d)

Light morphs suffered higher predation when conspicuous on soot

163.

How does artificial selection differ from natural selection in mechanism?

a)

Genetic drift eliminates variation over time

b)

Mutations are prevented by controlled mating

c)

Random environmental changes drive trait frequencies

d)

Humans intentionally choose breeding individuals

164.

Which outcome is expected under artificial selection conducted in laboratories on fruit flies?

a)

Only non-heritable traits respond to selection

b)

Traits remain unchanged due to lack of pressure

c)

Targeted traits shift in population across generations

d)

Experimental selection decreases genetic transmissibility

165.

Which statement correctly links phenotypic variation to evolutionary change?

a)

Variation matters only if it affects reproduction

b)

Variation arises solely from environmental learning

c)

Variation guarantees immediate species formation

d)

Variation is unnecessary when environments are stable

166.

During wet years with abundant small seeds, finch beak size trends toward which outcome?

a)

Beak size increases due to exercise

b)

Larger average beaks across the population

c)

No change because selection pauses

d)

Smaller average beaks across the population

167.

Which misconception should be rejected when interpreting selection in peppered moths?

a)

Agents of selection can be difficult to pinpoint

b)

Multiple agents may contribute to observed patterns

c)

Only one agent, predation, can drive color change

d)

Genetic body color allows differential survival

168.

Which process best explains how a buried organism becomes a rock fossil?

a)

Sediments compress, hard parts mineralize, rock forms

b)

Water dissolves tissues, soft parts inflate, gas escapes

c)

Wind erodes bones, clay dries, layers peel away

d)

Heat melts shells, magma cools, crystals surround

169.

In sedimentary strata, which layer typically contains older fossils?

a)

Middle layers between igneous intrusions

b)

Deeper layers beneath newer deposits

c)

Topmost layers exposed to weather

d)

Surface soils above bedrock

170.

Relative dating of fossils relies primarily on which principle?

a)

All strata form at equal rates

b)

Newer strata overlie older strata

c)

Strata ages match volcanic cycles

d)

Older strata always contain more species

171.

What defines the half-life of an isotope used in absolute dating?

a)

Time for 50% of unstable atoms to decay

b)

Time for all atoms in a sample to vanish

c)

Time an isotope takes to start decaying

d)

Time for stable isotopes to become unstable

172.

Carbon-14 dating is most accurate for which approximate timescale?

a)

Millions of years, across most of Phanerozoic

b)

Thousands of years, up to ~50,000 years

c)

Billions of years, entire Earth history

d)

Days to months, recent ecological events

173.

Which statement about isotopic decay used in dating is accurate?

a)

Less stable isotopes decay into more stable isotopes

b)

Stable isotopes spontaneously become unstable frequently

c)

Decay rates change significantly with environment

d)

Isotopes decay only when exposed to sunlight

174.

Fossils preserve remains of organisms in which settings most commonly?

a)

Dry caves and sedimentary rock

b)

Amber inclusions or permafrost

c)

Molten lava and metamorphic schist

d)

Basalt flows and granite plutons

175.

What can an ordered array from oldest to youngest fossils reveal?

a)

Daily behaviors recorded in sediments

b)

Exact population sizes for each species

c)

Patterns of evolutionary change over time

d)

Genetic sequences of extinct organisms

176.

Which statement best characterizes the fossil record regarding transitions?

a)

It only records extinctions, not origins

b)

It lacks any transitional forms between major groups

c)

It provides continuous, gapless sequences for all lineages

d)

It shows transitions with gaps and incomplete sampling

177.

Archaeopteryx is significant because it provides evidence of what?

a)

A link between dinosaurs and birds

b)

Direct ancestry of whales from fishes

c)

Modern humans evolving from Neanderthals

d)

Independent origin of mammals from reptiles

178.

Which evolutionary transition is documented by fossils of aquatic mammals?

a)

Four-legged ancestors evolving into whales and dolphins

b)

Primates evolving directly into marine seals

c)

Winged reptiles evolving into modern bats

d)

Cartilaginous fishes evolving into amphibians

179.

What do fossils of snakes with legs indicate about snake evolution?

a)

Snakes originated independently from worms

b)

Snakes evolved legs after becoming burrowers

c)

Snakes lost legs due to aquatic lifestyles

d)

Snakes descended from lizards with limbs

180.

Which statement about evolutionary trends inferred from fossils is most accurate?

a)

Overall history alternates major changes with long stasis

b)

Evolution proceeds at a constant uniform rate everywhere

c)

All lineages show gradual change without interruptions

d)

Periods of change always coincide with volcanic eruptions

181.

Why is horse evolution considered a prime fossil example?

a)

It is well documented with studied sequences

b)

It shows zero variation across time

c)

It depends solely on carbon-14 dates

d)

It proves all evolution happened rapidly

182.

Which statement best describes homologous structures in evolutionary biology?

a)

Structures with similar function but different ancestry

b)

Structures with different appearances yet shared ancestral origin

c)

Structures identical in both form and function across species

d)

Structures arising independently due to similar environments

183.

Which example illustrates a homologous structure among mammals?

a)

Human appendix with no clear function

b)

Pelvis remnants in certain snake skeletons

c)

Photoreceptor cells facing forward in mollusks

d)

Forelimb bones adapted for varied functions

184.

Early vertebrate embryos share which common features indicating descent with modification?

a)

Direct development without larval stages

b)

Placenta formation in all vertebrates

c)

External gills and adult fur coats

d)

Pharyngeal pouches and post-anal tails

185.

Which statement explains why some biological structures are imperfectly suited to their use?

a)

Evolution redesigns organisms from scratch each generation

b)

Natural selection optimizes toward a perfect plan

c)

Natural selection modifies what is available historically

d)

Mutation always produces ideal solutions for function

186.

Why do vertebrate eyes have a blind spot, whereas mollusk eyes do not?

a)

Mollusks evolved eyes independently with different wiring

b)

Vertebrates lack photoreceptors altogether

c)

Mollusk photoreceptors face backward like vertebrates

d)

Blind spots are necessary for color vision

187.

Vestigial structures are best characterized as

a)

Newly evolved traits with enhanced function

b)

Convergent adaptations with similar utility

c)

Remnants from ancestors with no apparent current function

d)

Homologous organs identical in modern species

188.

Which is a likely example of a vestigial structure in humans?

a)

Muscles used to wiggle ears

b)

Forelimb bones specialized for grasping

c)

Forward-facing photoreceptor cells

d)

Pharyngeal pouches in embryos

189.

Which definition of biogeography is most accurate for evolutionary studies?

a)

The classification of homologous body plans

b)

The measurement of mutation rates in populations

c)

The study of geographic distribution of species

d)

The study of genetic drift across time

190.

Convergent evolution is defined as

a)

Shared traits due to common ancestry

b)

Rapid speciation within isolated populations

c)

Gradual loss of structures over generations

d)

Independent evolution of similar features in separate lineages

191.

Which statement about streamlined bodies moving through water reflects convergent evolution?

a)

Form is predetermined by perfect evolutionary plans

b)

Streamlining appears only in vertebrate swimmers

c)

Shared design came from a common aquatic ancestor

d)

Similar shapes evolved independently to reduce drag

192.

What conclusion follows from species on islands being closely related to mainland species yet diverging?

a)

Convergent evolution prevents divergence among island taxa

b)

Isolation promotes adaptation to new niches and speciation

c)

Gene flow eliminates differences across habitats

d)

Island environments halt natural selection entirely

193.

In scientific usage, which statement best defines a theory?

a)

A single observation confirmed once

b)

A hypothesis with no empirical support

c)

A speculative guess needing proof

d)

An idea strongly supported by many lines of evidence

194.

If the half-life of a radioactive group of atoms is 300 years, then how old is the rock if there have been three half-lives?

a)

37.5 years

b)

100 years

c)

600 years

d)

900 years