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PS3/IPA3 Quiz 3-4

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Quiz 3: What class of drug is Lotensin?
a)
ACE inhibitor
b)
ARB
c)
Loop diuretic
d)
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
2.
Quiz 3: Which of the following patients should NOT be prescribed benazepril?
a)
Pregnant
b)
History of angioedema with Zestril
c)
Currently taking Cozaar
d)
Currently taking HCTZ
e)
History of diabetes mellitus
3.
Quiz 3: What class of drug is Atacand?
a)
ACE inhibitor
b)
ARB
c)
Loop diuretic
d)
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
4.

Quiz 3: Which should be monitored while a patient is taking candesartan and others in the same drug class?

a)
Potassium
b)
SCr
c)
Blood pressure
d)
Blood glucose
e)
WBC
5.
Quiz 3: What are important counseling points for patients starting Atacand and others in its class?
a)
Avoid salt substitutes
b)
Wear sunscreen
c)
May cause dry cough
d)
May feel lightheaded at first, use caution
e)
Avoid NSAIDs
6.
Quiz 3: What are important counseling points for Prinivil and others in its class?
a)
Avoid salt substitutes
b)
Wear sunscreen
c)
May cause dry cough
d)
May feel lightheaded at first, use caution
e)
Avoid NSAIDs
7.
Quiz 3: Which of the following can be given parenterally?
a)
Vasotec
b)
Lasix
c)
Demadex
d)
Diovan
e)
Aldactone
8.
Quiz 3: Which of the following has a risk of hypokalemia?
a)
Furosemide
b)
Torsemide
c)
Candesartan
d)
Spironolactone
e)
Quinapril
9.
Quiz 3: Which of the following have a risk of hyperkalemia?
a)
Furosemide
b)
Torsemide
c)
Olmesartan
d)
Entresto
e)
Fosinopril
10.
Quiz 3: Which of the following is more potent?
a)
Torsemide
b)
Furosemide
11.
Quiz 3: Which of the following lasts longer (i.e. has a longer half-life)?
a)
Torsemide
b)
Furosemide
12.
Quiz 3: What are important to monitor in a patient taking torsemide and others in its class?
a)
Potassium
b)
Fluid status (dehydration)
c)
Blood pressure
d)
Sodium
e)
Platelets
13.
Quiz 3: What are the FDA-approved indications for losartan?
a)
Hypertension
b)
Diabetic nephropathy
c)
Overactive bladder
d)
Peripheral edema
14.
Quiz 3: Which of the following have an FDA-approved indication for diabetic nephropathy?
a)
Avapro
b)
Cozaar
c)
Lasix
d)
Entresto
e)
Aldactone
15.
Quiz 3: Which of the following have an FDA-approved indication for heart failure?
a)
Candesartan
b)
Enalaprilat
c)
Sacubutril / valsartan
d)
Torsemide
16.
Quiz 3: Which of the following have an FDA-approved indication for heart failure?
a)
Monopril
b)
Zestril
c)
Accupril
d)
Altace
e)
Diovan
17.
Quiz 3: Which drugs are generally not recommended in pregnancy?
a)
ACE inhibitor
b)
ARB
c)
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
18.

Quiz 3: Which of the following is true regarding spironolactone?

a)

Works by inhibiting aldosterone's effect, thus increasing sodium and fluid excretion

b)

Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect

c)

Class is "mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist"

d)

Used in heart failure

e)

Does not require renal dosage adjustments

19.
Quiz 3: What are the 2 drug classes in Entresto?
a)
ACE inhibitor
b)
ARB
c)
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
d)
Neprilysin inhibitor
e)
Loop diuretic
20.

Quiz 3: Which of the following statements are true regarding Entresto?

a)

Combination of neprilysin inhbitior and loop diuretic

b)

Contraindicated in pregnancy

c)

Can lead to hypokalemia

d)

Patients who experience angioedema on ACE inhibitor can take this safely

e)

When switching from an ACE inhibitor, allow a 36-hour washout period

21.
Quiz 3: Who should NOT receive Entresto?
a)
History of angioedema with ACE inhibitors
b)
Pregnancy
c)
History of stroke
d)
Concomitant thiazide diuretic
e)
Concomitant ACE inhibitor
22.
Quiz 3: Which patients would have a drug interaction with lithium?
a)
Patients taking Demadex
b)
Patients taking Lasix
c)
Patients taking Accupril
d)
Patients taking Diovan
e)
Patients taking Aldactone
23.

Quiz 3: Which of the following require renal dosage adjustments?

a)

Candesartan

b)

Irbesartan

c)

Fosinopril

d)

Benazepril

e)

Enalapril

24.

Quiz 3: Which of the following require renal dosage adjustments?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Quinapril

c)

Ramipril

d)

Sacubitril / valsartan

25.
Quiz 3: Which patients would have a drug interaction with digoxin?
a)
Patients taking Demadex
b)
Patients taking Lasix
c)
Patients taking Altace
d)
Patients taking Micardis
e)
Patients taking Aldactone
26.
Quiz 3: Which of the following has been associated with gynecomastia?
a)
Spironolactone
b)
Furosemide
c)
Irbesartan
d)
Ramipril
27.
Quiz 4: Which should be monitored in patients taking amiodarone?
a)
Thyroid function
b)
Pulmonary function
c)
Eye exams
d)
Cardiac rhythm (ECG)
e)
Liver function
28.
Quiz 4: How can amiodarone be administered?
a)
Oral
b)
IV
c)
Rectal
d)
Ophthalmic
e)
Inhalation
29.

Quiz 4: What class of drug is Pacerone?

a)
Antiarrhythmic (Class III)
b)
Calcium channel blocker (non-DHP)
c)
Selective beta-1 blocker
d)
Cardiac glycoside
30.
Quiz 4: Which drugs are likely to interact with amiodarone?
a)
CYP substrates
b)
Thiazide diuretics
c)
Beta-blockers
d)
QT prolonging drugs
e)
Loop diuretic
31.

Quiz 4: Which of the following beta-blockers would be relatively safer to give a patient with asthma (at normal doses)?

a)
Tenormin
b)
Zebeta
c)
Coreg
d)
Normodyne
e)
Lopressor
32.
Quiz 4: Which of the following are non-selective beta-blockers?
a)
Bisoprolol
b)
Labetalol
c)
Carvedilol
d)
Propranolol
e)
Metoprolol
33.
Quiz 4: Which of the following is the preferred salt of metoprolol in heart failure?
a)
Succinate
b)
Tartrate
34.
Quiz 4: Which of the following is considered extended release?
a)
Metoprolol succinate
b)
Metoprolol tartrate
35.
Quiz 4: Which of the following are potential side effects of bisoprolol and others in its class?
a)
Hypotension
b)
Bradycardia
c)
Dizziness
d)
Cold extremities
e)
Dry eye
36.
Quiz 4: What concerns would there be if a patient who is taking insulin for T1DM is started on a beta-blocker?
a)
Can mask hypoglycemic reaction
b)
Can increase risk of hypoglycemia
c)
Can increase risk of diabetic neuropathy
d)
Can increase risk of diabetic gastroparesis
e)
Can increase risk of diabetic retinopathy
37.
Quiz 4: What are some important counseling points for carvedilol?
a)
Stand slowly (can cause dizziness)
b)
Take with food
c)
Take on empty stomach
d)
Report signs of angioedema
e)
Avoid salt substitutes
38.
Quiz 4: Which of the following have an FDA-approved indication for heart failure?
a)
Coreg
b)
Toprol XL
c)
Lopressor
d)
Lanoxin
e)
Calan
39.
Quiz 4: What are the mechanisms of action for digoxin?
a)
Negative chronotrope (good for atrial fibrillation)
b)
Positive inotrope (good for heart failure)
c)
Combination of beta and alpha blockade (good for heart failure)
d)
Antiarrhythmic effects via sodium channel blockade (good for atrial fibrillation)
40.
Quiz 4: Which of the following has an antidote for toxicity?
a)
Digoxin
b)
Propranolol
c)
Verapamil
d)
Diltiazem
e)
Labetalol
41.
Quiz 4: What is the nature of interactions related to digoxin and potassium?
a)
As potassium drops, risk of toxicity rises
b)
As potassium rises, risk of toxicity rises
42.
Quiz 4: Which come as oral AND parenteral formulations?
a)
Amiodarone
b)
Digoxin
c)
Labetalol
d)
Carvedilol
e)
Diltiazem
43.
Quiz 4: Which come as oral AND parenteral formulations?
a)
Metoprolol tartrate
b)
Metoprolol succinate
c)
Bisoprolol
d)
Propranolol
e)
Verapamil
44.
Quiz 4: Which of the following have alpha blocking properties?
a)
Carvedilol
b)
Labetalol
c)
Propranolol
d)
Atenolol
e)
Diltiazem
45.
Quiz 4: Which of the following are true regarding Toprol XL?
a)
Cannot crush
b)
Can split in half
c)
Must swallow whole
d)
Can dissolve in water
46.

Quiz 4: Which of the following is also used to manage "stage fright" (performance anxiety) due to its ability to cross the blood brain barrier?

a)
Propranolol
b)
Atenolol
c)
Digoxin
d)
Amiodarone
e)
Metoprolol succinate
47.
Quiz 4: Which of the following is FDA-approved for migraine prophylaxis?
a)
Propranolol
b)
Verapamil
c)
Diltiazem
d)
Digoxin
e)
Labetalol
48.
Quiz 4: Which of the following are non-DHP calcium channel blockers?
a)
Calan
b)
Isoptin
c)
Cardizem
d)
Normodyne
e)
Inderal
49.

Quiz 4: Why would a loop diuretic lead to a drug interaction with digoxin?

a)

Potassium-depleting diuretics are a major contributing factor to digoxin toxicity

b)

Potassium-sparing diuretics are a major contributing factor to digoxin toxicity

c)

Loop diuretics lead to excessive excretion of digoxin, thus lowering its effect

d)

Loop diuretics directly compete with digoxin for binding sites in the heart, thus lowering its effect

50.

Quiz 4: In general, what is the reason beta-blockers are used in atrial fibrillation?

a)

They have a negative chronotropic effect on the heart (rate control)

b)

They have a positive inotropic effect on the heart (stronger contractions)

c)

They directly stimulate the release of GABA to reduce heart rate

d)

They prevent excess fluids from leaving the kidney, thus improving blood flow to the heart

51.

Quiz 4: In general, which of the following are appropriate to mention when counseling on beta-blockers?

a)

Stand up slowly (may feel dizzy at first)

b)

If you miss your dose, double up on the next one to avoid interruption of therapy

c)

Never abruptly discontinue (can lead to rebound hypertension)

d)

Only take before bed, as causes significant somnolence

52.

Quiz 4: Which of the following is a non-DHP calcium channel blocker associated with constipation, particularly in the geriatric population?

a)

Verapamil

b)

Digoxin

c)

Propranolol

d)

Amiodarone

53.

Quiz 4: What class of drug is Pacerone?

a)
Antiarrhythmic (Class III)
b)
Calcium channel blocker (non-DHP)
c)
Selective beta-1 blocker
d)
Cardiac glycoside

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