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NET+ Quiz Part 36

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does PKI use to securely exchange data?

a)

A) A single cryptographic key

b)

B) A public and private cryptographic key pair

c)

C) A symmetric key

d)

D) A shared password

2.

What is the purpose of a plenum in a building?

a)

A) To store data

b)

B) To run network cables and HVAC systems

c)

C) To provide power to devices

d)

D) To house servers

3.

What does the term "plug and play" refer to?

a)

A) A gaming console feature

b)

B) An architecture for automatic hardware detection and driver loading

c)

C) A type of network cable

d)

D) A method of data encryption

4.

What does PoE (Power over Ethernet) enable?

a)

A) Wireless data transmission

b)

B) Electrical power transmission over twisted-pair Ethernet cable

c)

C) High-speed internet access

d)

D) Secure data encryption

5.

What is the main difference between PoE and PoE+?

a)

A) PoE+ provides more power than PoE

b)

B) PoE+ is wireless, while PoE is wired

c)

C) PoE+ is used for data encryption, while PoE is not

d)

D) PoE+ is a type of network protocol, while PoE is not

6.

What does the term "policies and procedures" refer to in an organization?

a)

A) The hardware used in the network

b)

B) The documented rules and methods for task performance

c)

C) The software applications used

d)

D) The physical layout of the office

7.

What is the function of polling in data transmission?

a)

A) To encrypt data

b)

B) To contact each node to determine if it has data to send

c)

C) To store data

d)

D) To provide power to devices

8.

What is the default port number for unsecured POP3?

a)

A) 80

b)

B) 110

c)

C) 995

d)

D) 443

9.

What is port mirroring used for?

a)

A) Data encryption

b)

B) Troubleshooting network issues

c)

C) Increasing network speed

d)

D) Providing power to devices

10.

What does PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) provide?

a)

A) Wireless data transmission

b)

B) Host-to-network and switch-to-switch connections

c)

C) Data encryption

d)

D) Electrical power transmission

11.

What is the purpose of PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol)?

a)

A) To provide wireless internet access

b)

B) To encapsulate private network data in IP packets

c)

C) To increase network speed

d)

D) To provide electrical power over Ethernet

12.

Which layer of the OSI model prepares information to be used by the application layer?

a)

Presentation layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Data link layer

d)

Physical layer

13.

What is the rate of a Primary Rate Interface (PRI) used with ISDN?

a)

1.544 Mbps

b)

64 Kbps

c)

128 Kbps

d)

2.048 Mbps

14.

What does a proxy server typically provide?

a)

Increased level of security, caching, NAT, and administrative control

b)

Direct communication between hosts

c)

Higher bandwidth

d)

Lower latency

15.

What is a PSK (preshared key) used for?

a)

Encrypting messages to be securely sent

b)

Decrypting messages

c)

Authenticating users

d)

Managing network traffic

16.

What does PSTN stand for?

a)

Public Switched Telephone Network

b)

Private Switched Telephone Network

c)

Public Secure Telephone Network

d)

Private Secure Telephone Network

17.

What is the primary function of a protocol analyzer?

a)

To analyze network protocols such as TCP, UDP, HTTP, FTP, and more

b)

To encrypt data

c)

To manage network traffic

d)

To provide administrative control

18.

What is a PTP (Point-to-Point) protocol used for?

a)

Establishing a direct connection between two nodes

b)

Encrypting data

c)

Managing network traffic

d)

Providing administrative control

19.

What is a PTR (pointer) record used for in DNS?

a)

To map an IP address to a hostname

b)

To map a hostname to an IP address

c)

To encrypt DNS queries

d)

To manage DNS traffic

20.

What is a punchdown block used for?

a)

To connect network cables from equipment closets or rooms to other parts of a building.

b)

To connect twisted-pair wires to wiring equipment such as a patch panel.

c)

To replace a hardwired dedicated end-to-end line.

d)

To manage and increase the flow of network traffic.

21.

What does PVC (permanent virtual circuit) replace in a Frame Relay network?

a)

A punchdown block.

b)

A hardwired dedicated end-to-end line.

c)

A twisted-pair wire.

d)

A remote node.

22.

What does QoS (quality of service) enable administrators to do?

a)

Connect network cables from equipment closets to other parts of a building.

b)

Predict bandwidth use, monitor that use, and control it.

c)

Authenticate remote network users.

d)

Store data on multiple drives.

23.

What is QSFP (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable) used for?

a)

Data communications.

b)

Advertising the presence of routers.

c)

Authenticating remote network users.

d)

Managing the flow of network traffic.

24.

What is the purpose of RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)?

a)

To authenticate remote network users.

b)

To store data on multiple drives.

c)

To resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses.

d)

To enable access to the network through remote connections.

25.

What does RAID (Redundant Array of Inexpensive/Independent Disks) offer?

a)

Authentication for remote network users.

b)

Fault-tolerance or performance advantages.

c)

Resolution of MAC addresses to IP addresses.

d)

Connection of twisted-pair wires to wiring equipment.

26.

What does RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) resolve?

a)

IP addresses to MAC addresses.

b)

MAC addresses to IP addresses.

c)

Bandwidth use.

d)

Data communications.

27.

What is the function of RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)?

a)

To support a Remote Desktop Connection between an RDP client and a server.

b)

To authenticate remote network users.

c)

To manage and increase the flow of network traffic.

d)

To advertise the presence of routers.

28.

What is a remote node?

a)

A node or computer connected to a network through a remote connection.

b)

A compact, hot-pluggable transceiver used for data communications.

c)

A security standard that employs a client/server model.

d)

A Windows service that enables access to the network through remote connections.

29.

What is the primary function of a repeater in a network?

a)

To resolve a name to an IP address

b)

To regenerate and retransmit signals

c)

To transfer data from backup media

d)

To measure the power present in a received radio signal

30.

What does the term "resolver" refer to in networking?

a)

A device that regenerates signals

b)

A system that requests the resolution of a name to an IP address

c)

A rate of oscillation used by radio waves

d)

A document that solicits proposals

31.

What is the function of the Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?

a)

To control the flow of data between two or more network segments

b)

To use hop count as a routing metric

c)

To measure the power present in a received radio signal

d)

To prevent loops on Ethernet networks

32.

What is an RJ-45 connector used for?

a)

Telephone systems with up to six conductors

b)

Twisted-pair cable supporting eight conductors

c)

Coaxial cable used in Ethernet networks

d)

Wireless communication

33.

What does RSA stand for in the context of cryptography?

a)

Radio Signal Algorithm

b)

Routing Signal Algorithm

c)

Request for Secure Access

d)

Rivest-Shamir-Adleman

34.

What is the purpose of the RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol)?

a)

To control the direction and flow of packets

b)

To prevent loops on Ethernet networks

c)

To measure the power present in a received radio signal

d)

To request the resolution of a name to an IP address

35.

What is the acceptable duration of time within which a business process must be restored after a disaster to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in business continuity?

a)

RTO (recovery time objective)

b)

RTP (Real-Time Transport Protocol)

c)

RTSP (Real-Time Streaming Protocol)

d)

RTT (round-trip time or real transfer time)

36.

Which protocol is the Internet standard for the transport of real-time data, including audio and video?

a)

RTO (recovery time objective)

b)

RTP (Real-Time Transport Protocol)

c)

RTSP (Real-Time Streaming Protocol)

d)

RTT (round-trip time or real transfer time)

37.

What does RTSP stand for?

a)

Real-Time Transport Protocol

b)

Real-Time Streaming Protocol

c)

Real-Time Transfer Protocol

d)

Real-Time Security Protocol

38.

What is a measurement of the length of time it takes for data to be sent and returned?

a)

RTO (recovery time objective)

b)

RTP (Real-Time Transport Protocol)

c)

RTSP (Real-Time Streaming Protocol)

d)

RTT (round-trip time or real transfer time)

39.

What is a packet too small for an Ethernet network called?

a)

runt

b)

sag

c)

SAN

d)

SC

40.

What is the establishment of shared security attributes between two entities on a network to support secure communications between them called?

a)

SA (security association)

b)

SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals)

c)

SaaS (Software as a Service)

d)

SCADA (supervisory control and data acquisition)

41.

Which password-based authentication method used with WPA3 results in a more secure initial key exchange in personal mode than was possible with WPA2 and PSK?

a)

SA (security association)

b)

SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals)

c)

SaaS (Software as a Service)

d)

SCADA (supervisory control and data acquisition)

42.

What is a cloud computing service model in which a user runs everything supplied by the provider called?

a)

SA (security association)

b)

SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals)

c)

SaaS (Software as a Service)

d)

SCADA (supervisory control and data acquisition)

43.

What is a momentary drop in the voltage provided by a power source called?

a)

runt

b)

sag

c)

SAN

d)

SC

44.

What does SAN stand for?

a)

Storage-Area Network

b)

Secure Access Network

c)

Software-Defined Network

d)

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

45.

What type of connector is used with fiber cabling?

a)

SC (standard connector)

b)

SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle)

c)

SCP (Secure Copy Protocol)

d)

SDP (Session Description Protocol)

46.

What does SCADA stand for?

a)

Secure Copy Protocol

b)

Software Development Life Cycle

c)

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

d)

Session Description Protocol

47.

Which protocol uses Secure Shell (SSH) technology to provide security to the transfer?

a)

SCP (Secure Copy Protocol)

b)

SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle)

c)

SCADA (supervisory control and data acquisition)

d)

SDP (Session Description Protocol)

48.

What is an area for placing web and other servers that serve the general public outside the firewall, thereby isolating them from internal network access called?

a)

screened subnet

b)

SC (standard connector)

c)

SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle)

d)

SDN (software-defined network)

49.

What does SDLC stand for?

a)

Software Development Life Cycle

b)

Secure Copy Protocol

c)

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

d)

Session Description Protocol

50.

What is an approach to networking that allows network administrators to programmatically manage network behavior dynamically via open interfaces and provide abstraction of lower-level functionality called?

a)

SDN (software-defined network)

b)

SC (standard connector)

c)

SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle)

d)

SCP (Secure Copy Protocol)

51.

What does SDP stand for?

a)

Session Description Protocol

b)

Software Development Life Cycle

c)

Secure Copy Protocol

d)

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

52.

What is a DSL implementation that offers the same speeds for both upstream and downstream data called?

a)

SDSL (symmetrical digital subscriber line)

b)

SDN (software-defined network)

c)

SC (standard connector)

d)

SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle)

53.

What does SDWAN stand for?

a)

Software-Defined Wide Area Network

b)

Secure Data Wide Area Network

c)

Simple Data Wide Area Network

d)

Secure Digital Wide Area Network

54.

What is a secondary name server?

a)

A DNS server that gets its zone data from another DNS name server

b)

A primary DNS server

c)

A server that provides backup for data

d)

A server that manages email services

55.

What is the purpose of a security log?

a)

To provide information on audit events

b)

To store user data

c)

To manage network traffic

d)

To encrypt data

56.

What is a segment in networking terms?

a)

A physical section of a network

b)

A type of server

c)

A software application

d)

A security protocol

57.

What is a server?

a)

A network node that fulfills service requests for clients

b)

A type of software

c)

A security protocol

d)

A physical section of a network

58.

What is a service pack?

a)

A software update that fixes multiple known problems

b)

A type of server

c)

A physical section of a network

d)

A security protocol

59.

What is the session layer in the OSI model?

a)

Layer 5

b)

Layer 3

c)

Layer 7

d)

Layer 2

60.

What does SFTP stand for?

a)

Secure File Transfer Protocol

b)

Simple File Transfer Protocol

c)

Secure Fast Transfer Protocol

d)

Simple Fast Transfer Protocol

61.

What is the purpose of the Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)?

a)

A cryptographic hash algorithm used in security

b)

A type of server

c)

A software update

d)

A physical section of a network

62.

What does SIEM stand for?

a)

Security Information and Event Management

b)

Secure Internet Event Management

c)

Simple Information Event Management

d)

Secure Information Event Management

63.

What is the primary purpose of SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)?

a)

To provide shared access to files, printers, and ports

b)

To establish and maintain multimedia sessions such as Internet telephony calls

c)

To coordinate time among devices across the network

d)

To map a private IP address directly to a static unchanging public IP address

64.

Which protocol is used to coordinate time among devices across the network?

a)

SNMP

b)

SNAT

c)

SNTP

d)

SMTP

65.

What does SLAAC (Stateless Address Auto Configuration) allow devices to do?

a)

Connect to the Internet without requiring any intermediate IP support from a DHCP server

b)

Establish and maintain multimedia sessions

c)

Provide shared access to files, printers, and ports

d)

Send an alarm to notify the administrator of network activity

66.

Which protocol is primarily used for providing shared access to files, printers, and ports?

a)

SIP

b)

SMB

c)

SNMP

d)

SNAT

67.

What type of fiber uses a single direct beam of light for greater distances and increased transfer speeds?

a)

MMF

b)

SMF

c)

SNMP

d)

SOHO

68.

What is the function of SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)?

a)

To provide shared access to files, printers, and ports

b)

To establish and maintain multimedia sessions

c)

To monitor and control network devices, manage configurations, and report network management information

d)

To coordinate time among devices across the network

69.

What does SNAT (Static NAT) do?

a)

Maps a private IP address directly to a static unchanging public IP address

b)

Provides network devices with a method to monitor and control network devices

c)

Coordinates time among devices across the network

d)

Establishes and maintains multimedia sessions

70.

What is the primary use of SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)?

a)

To provide shared access to files, printers, and ports

b)

To transfer email messages and attachments

c)

To establish and maintain multimedia sessions

d)

To map a private IP address directly to a static unchanging public IP address

71.

What does SOA (Start of Authority) contain?

a)

Data on DNS zones and other DNS records

b)

Methods to monitor and control network devices

c)

Information for establishing multimedia sessions

d)

Time coordination among devices across the network

72.

What is the typical size of a SOHO (small office/home office) network?

a)

1 to 5 users

b)

1 to 10 users

c)

10 to 20 users

d)

20 to 50 users

73.

What is the international equivalent of SONET (Synchronous Optical Network)?

a)

Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH)

b)

Structured Query Language (SQL)

c)

Secure Shell (SSH)

d)

Service Set Identifier (SSID)

74.

What does SOP stand for in the context of business operations?

a)

Standard Operating Procedure

b)

Service Operating Protocol

c)

Secure Online Protocol

d)

Standard Online Procedure

75.

What is the purpose of a source-route bridge?

a)

To send a packet to the destination node through the route specified by the sending node

b)

To store data persistently using integrated circuits

c)

To identify computers that host specific services

d)

To provide additional authentication methods and encryption for data

76.

What does SPI stand for in the context of network security?

a)

Stateful Packet Inspection

b)

Secure Packet Interface

c)

Standard Packet Inspection

d)

Secure Protocol Interface

77.

What is the function of an SSD (solid-state drive)?

a)

To store data persistently using integrated circuits

b)

To monitor the power line and switch to battery power

c)

To identify computers that host specific services

d)

To provide additional authentication methods and encryption for data

78.

Which protocol uses TCP/IP port 22 and provides additional authentication methods and encryption for data?

a)

SSH (Secure Shell)

b)

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

c)

SQL (Structured Query Language)

d)

SRV (Service Record)

79.

What is the purpose of an SSID (service set identifier) in a WLAN?

a)

Acts as a simple password used for authentication between a wireless client and an access point

b)

Monitors the power line and switches to battery power

c)

Identifies computers that host specific services

d)

Provides additional authentication methods and encryption for data

80.

What does SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) do?

a)

Securely transmits information to and receives information from a remote website

b)

Monitors the power line and switches to battery power

c)

Identifies computers that host specific services

d)

Provides additional authentication methods and encryption for data

81.

What is the method of access in which users are given access to all the applications and systems they need when they initially log on?

a)

STA (Spanning Tree Algorithm)

b)

STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

c)

SSO (single sign-on)

d)

ST (straight tip or snap twist)

82.

Which type of connector is used with cabling?

a)

ST (straight tip or snap twist)

b)

STA (Spanning Tree Algorithm)

c)

STP (shielded twisted-pair)

d)

SSO (single sign-on)

83.

What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA)?

a)

To provide single sign-on access

b)

To eliminate loops in an internetwork with multiple paths

c)

To assign static IP addresses

d)

To create subdomains

84.

What is a static IP address?

a)

An IP address assigned dynamically via DHCP

b)

An IP address manually assigned to a network device

c)

An IP address used for subdomains

d)

An IP address used for subnetting

85.

What is the function of static routing?

a)

To dynamically exchange route information

b)

To manually enter all routes into a device

c)

To prevent the sender from overwhelming the receiver

d)

To create subdomains

86.

What is the purpose of a static window in flow control?

a)

To dynamically assign IP addresses

b)

To prevent the sender from overwhelming the receiver

c)

To eliminate loops in an internetwork

d)

To create subdomains

87.

What is an ST connector?

a)

A type of fiber connector

b)

A type of network switch

c)

A type of IP address

d)

A type of routing method

88.

What is the store-and-forward method?

a)

A method to dynamically assign IP addresses

b)

A fast-packet-switching method that produces higher latency

c)

A method to eliminate loops in an internetwork

d)

A method to create subdomains

89.

What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

a)

To eliminate loops in an internetwork

b)

To assign static IP addresses

c)

To create subdomains

d)

To dynamically exchange route information

90.

What is a subdomain?

a)

A logical division of a network

b)

A privately controlled segment of the DNS namespace

c)

A 32-bit address used to mask a portion of an IP address

d)

A process of aggregating IP network addresses

91.

What is a subnet?

a)

A logical division of a network

b)

A method to dynamically assign IP addresses

c)

A method to eliminate loops in an internetwork

d)

A type of fiber connector

92.

What is a subnet mask?

a)

A method to dynamically assign IP addresses

b)

A 32-bit address used to mask a portion of an IP address

c)

A method to eliminate loops in an internetwork

d)

A type of fiber connector

93.

What is subnetting?

a)

The process of aggregating IP network addresses

b)

The process of using parts of the node portion of an assigned IP address to create more network IDs

c)

A method to dynamically assign IP addresses

d)

A method to eliminate loops in an internetwork

94.

What is supernetting?

a)

The process of aggregating IP network addresses

b)

The process of using parts of the node portion of an assigned IP address to create more network IDs

c)

A method to dynamically assign IP addresses

d)

A method to eliminate loops in an internetwork

95.

What is a surge in the context of networking?

a)

A sudden drop in voltage

b)

A voltage increase that is less dramatic than a spike but can last much longer

c)

A device that protects against voltage spikes

d)

A type of network protocol

96.

What is the purpose of a surge protector?

a)

To increase the voltage in a network

b)

To protect a network component from spikes and surges

c)

To establish a virtual circuit

d)

To forward frames based on destination addresses

97.

What does SVC stand for in networking?

a)

Switched Virtual Circuit

b)

System Virtual Circuit

c)

Synchronous Virtual Circuit

d)

Secure Virtual Circuit

98.

What is the function of a switch in networking?

a)

To initiate a TCP session

b)

To forward frames based on destination addresses

c)

To send log messages to a server

d)

To provide centralized validation of users

99.

What does SYN stand for in the context of TCP?

a)

Synchronous

b)

Synchronization

c)

System

d)

Secure

100.

What is synchronous transmission?

a)

A method that uses a precise clocking method and a predefined number of bits sent at a constant rate

b)

A method that dynamically establishes a virtual circuit

c)

A method that sends log messages to a server

d)

A method that increases voltage in a network