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Honors Biology Final Exam Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Packaging and distribution of proteins

c)

Energy production

d)

DNA replication

2.

What is the function of the nucleus?

a)

Energy production

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Storage of genetic information

d)

Waste removal

3.

What is the function of the ribosome?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Energy production

c)

Packaging of proteins

d)

Storage of genetic information

4.

What is the function of the lysosome?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Energy production

c)

Digestion and waste removal

d)

Storage of genetic information

5.

What is the function of the peroxisome?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Breakdown of fatty acids and detoxification

c)

Energy production

d)

Storage of genetic information

6.

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Protein synthesis and lipid production

b)

Energy production

c)

Storage of genetic information

d)

Waste removal

7.

What is the function of the cell membrane?

a)

Energy production

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell

d)

Storage of genetic information

8.

What are the two reasons why cells need to divide?

a)

Growth and repair

b)

Energy production and waste removal

c)

Protein synthesis and lipid production

d)

Storage of genetic information and detoxification

9.

What is Interphase?

a)

The phase where the cell divides

b)

The phase where the cell grows and replicates its DNA

c)

The phase where the cell produces energy

d)

The phase where the cell removes waste

10.

What is a diploid cell? How many chromosomes would this be for humans?

a)

A cell with one set of chromosomes; 23 chromosomes

b)

A cell with two sets of chromosomes; 46 chromosomes

c)

A cell with two sets of chromosomes; 23 chromosomes

d)

A cell with one set of chromosomes; 46 chromosomes

11.

What is a haploid cell? How many chromosomes would this be for humans?

a)

A cell with one set of chromosomes; 23 chromosomes

b)

A cell with two sets of chromosomes; 46 chromosomes

c)

A cell with two sets of chromosomes; 23 chromosomes

d)

A cell with one set of chromosomes; 46 chromosomes

12.

How many and what type of cells are made during mitosis?

a)

Two diploid cells; identical

b)

Two haploid cells; identical

c)

Four diploid cells; non-identical

d)

Four haploid cells; non-identical

13.

Fill in the blank: Meiosis I is all about breaking apart (a)   .

14.

Fill in the blank: Meiosis II is all about breaking apart (a)   .

15.

Describe what happens during prophase.

a)

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

b)

Chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

c)

Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite ends of the cell.

d)

The cell membrane pinches in to divide the cell into two.

16.

Describe what happens during metaphase.

a)

Chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

b)

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

c)

Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite ends of the cell.

d)

The cell membrane pinches in to divide the cell into two.

17.

Describe what happens during anaphase.

a)

Chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

b)

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

c)

Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite ends of the cell.

d)

The cell membrane pinches in to divide the cell into two.

18.

Describe what happens during telophase.

a)

Chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

b)

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

c)

Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite ends of the cell.

d)

The nuclear envelope re-forms around each set of chromosomes.

19.

Describe what happens during cytokinesis.

a)

Chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

b)

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

c)

Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite ends of the cell.

d)

The cell membrane pinches in to divide the cell into two.

20.

Put the phases of mitosis in order.

a)

A, B, C, D, E, F, G

b)

A, E, C, B, D, F, G

c)

A, D, B, C, E, F, G

d)

A, B, D, C, E, F, G

21.

How many and what type of cells are made during meiosis?

a)

Two diploid cells; identical

b)

Two haploid cells; identical

c)

Four diploid cells; non-identical

d)

Four haploid cells; non-identical

22.

In snapdragons, flower color is controlled by incomplete dominance. The two alleles are red (R) and white (W). The heterozygous genotype is expressed as pink (RW). What is the phenotype of a plant with the genotype RR?

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Pink

d)

Yellow

23.

In snapdragons, flower color is controlled by incomplete dominance. The two alleles are red (R) and white (W). The heterozygous genotype is expressed as pink (RW). What is the phenotype of a plant with the genotype WW?

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Pink

d)

Yellow

24.

In snapdragons, flower color is controlled by incomplete dominance. The two alleles are red (R) and white (W). The heterozygous genotype is expressed as pink (RW). What is the phenotype of a plant with the genotype RW?

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Pink

d)

Yellow

25.

Predict the offspring when two pink Four o’clock flowers (RW) are crossed. What is the predicted genotypic ratio for the offspring?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

1:1

d)

2:1

26.

Predict the offspring when two pink Four o’clock flowers (RW) are crossed. What is the predicted phenotypic ratio for the offspring?

a)

1 red: 2 pink: 1 white

b)

3 red: 1 white

c)

1 red: 1 white

d)

2 red: 1 pink

27.

Human blood type is controlled by 3 alleles in which A (I^A) and B (I^B) are codominant, and both are dominant over O(i). What are the possible genotypes for Type A blood?

a)

I^A I^A or I^A i

b)

I^A I^B

c)

I^B I^B or I^B i

d)

ii

28.

Human blood type is controlled by 3 alleles in which A (I^A) and B (I^B) are codominant, and both are dominant over O(i). What are the possible genotypes for Type B blood?

a)

I^A I^A or I^A i

b)

I^A I^B

c)

I^B I^B or I^B i

d)

ii

29.

Human blood type is controlled by 3 alleles in which A (I^A) and B (I^B) are codominant, and both are dominant over O(i). What are the possible genotypes for Type AB blood?

a)

I^A I^A or I^A i

b)

I^A I^B

c)

I^B I^B or I^B i

d)

ii

30.

Human blood type is controlled by 3 alleles in which A (I^A) and B (I^B) are codominant, and both are dominant over O(i). What are the possible genotypes for Type O blood?

a)

I^A I^A or I^A i

b)

I^A I^B

c)

I^B I^B or I^B i

d)

ii

31.

Why must males inherit a sex-linked trait from their mothers?

a)

Because males have two X chromosomes.

b)

Because males have one X and one Y chromosome.

c)

Because males have two Y chromosomes.

d)

Because males do not inherit any X chromosomes.

32.

Both the mother and the father of a male hemophiliac appear to be normal. From whom did the son inherit the allele for hemophilia? What are the genotypes of the mother, the father, and the son?

a)

The son inherited the allele from his father; Mother: X^H X^H, Father: X^H Y, Son: X^h Y

b)

The son inherited the allele from his mother; Mother: X^H X^h, Father: X^H Y, Son: X^h Y

c)

The son inherited the allele from his mother; Mother: X^H X^H, Father: X^H Y, Son: X^H Y

d)

The son inherited the allele from his father; Mother: X^H X^h, Father: X^h Y, Son: X^H Y

33.

A woman is color blind. What are the chances that her sons will be color blind? If she is married to a man with normal vision, what are the chances that her daughters will be color blind? Will they be carriers?

a)

Sons: 0%, Daughters: 50% color blind, 50% carriers

b)

Sons: 50%, Daughters: 0% color blind, 100% carriers

c)

Sons: 100%, Daughters: 50% color blind, 50% carriers

d)

Sons: 100%, Daughters: 0% color blind, 100% carriers

34.

Why is the idea that an individual can evolve incorrect?

a)

Because evolution occurs in individuals, not populations.

b)

Because evolution occurs in populations, not individuals.

c)

Because evolution is a rapid process.

d)

Because evolution does not involve genetic changes.

35.

What were Darwin’s two main ideas about evolution in his book The Origin of Species?

a)

Natural selection and genetic drift

b)

Natural selection and inheritance of acquired traits

c)

Natural selection and common descent

d)

Genetic drift and common descent

36.

What idea did Jean Baptiste Lamarck contribute to Darwin’s theory of evolution?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Inheritance of acquired traits

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Mutation theory

37.

What is the difference between an analogous structure and a homologous structure?

a)

Analogous structures have a common evolutionary origin, while homologous structures do not.

b)

Analogous structures perform similar functions but do not have a common evolutionary origin, while homologous structures have a common evolutionary origin but may perform different functions.

c)

Analogous structures are found only in plants, while homologous structures are found only in animals.

d)

Analogous structures are always larger than homologous structures.

38.

How do fossils help support the theory of evolution?

a)

Fossils show that all species have remained unchanged over time.

b)

Fossils provide evidence of past organisms and show changes in species over time.

c)

Fossils are only found in certain parts of the world, indicating isolated evolution.

d)

Fossils disprove the theory of evolution by showing no transitional forms.

39.

Identify two other field studies that help support evolution from a common ancestor.

a)

Astronomy and Geology

b)

Paleontology and Comparative Anatomy

c)

Meteorology and Oceanography

d)

Botany and Zoology

40.

What is the difference between microevolution and macroevolution?

a)

Microevolution refers to changes within a species, while macroevolution refers to changes that result in the formation of new species.

b)

Microevolution occurs over long periods of time, while macroevolution occurs over short periods of time.

c)

Microevolution is driven by natural selection, while macroevolution is driven by artificial selection.

d)

Microevolution only occurs in plants, while macroevolution only occurs in animals.

41.

How do scientists use Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium to determine if evolution is occurring?

a)

By measuring the physical traits of organisms in a population.

b)

By comparing the genetic makeup of a population to the expected genetic makeup if no evolution is occurring.

c)

By observing the behavior of organisms in a population.

d)

By studying the fossil record of a population.

42.

What are the five mechanisms of evolution?

a)

Natural selection, mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, and non-random mating.

b)

Natural selection, artificial selection, gene flow, genetic drift, and random mating.

c)

Natural selection, mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, and random mating.

d)

Natural selection, mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, and artificial selection.

43.

Describe the Bottleneck Effect and the Founders Effect.

a)

The Bottleneck Effect occurs when a population's size is reduced for at least one generation, while the Founders Effect occurs when a new colony is started by a few members of the original population.

b)

The Bottleneck Effect occurs when a new colony is started by a few members of the original population, while the Founders Effect occurs when a population's size is reduced for at least one generation.

c)

The Bottleneck Effect and the Founders Effect both refer to the same phenomenon of population reduction.

d)

The Bottleneck Effect occurs only in plants, while the Founders Effect occurs only in animals.

44.

What is the key role of mutations in evolution?

a)

Mutations always have a negative impact on organisms.

b)

Mutations provide genetic variation, which is essential for evolution.

c)

Mutations prevent evolution by maintaining genetic stability.

d)

Mutations only occur in response to environmental changes.

45.

What are the two ways in which genetic variation can be introduced into a population?

a)

Natural selection and artificial selection.

b)

Gene flow and genetic drift.

c)

Mutation and gene flow.

d)

Genetic drift and non-random mating.

46.

What type of traits does natural selection act upon?

a)

Traits that are acquired during an organism's lifetime.

b)

Traits that are inherited and affect an organism's fitness.

c)

Traits that are neutral and do not affect an organism's fitness.

d)

Traits that are only present in the environment.

47.

In order for mutations to enter a population’s gene pool, what type of cell must carry that mutation?

a)

Somatic cell

b)

Germ cell

c)

Skin cell

d)

Muscle cell

48.

What impacts the frequency of a new mutation in a population?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Genetic drift

c)

None of the above

d)

All of the above

49.

Natural selection acts upon a(n) __________________________, whereas evolution acts upon a(n) __________________________.

a)

Individual, population

b)

Population, individual

c)

Species, community

d)

Community, species

50.

What is phylogeny?

a)

The study of physical traits

b)

The evolutionary history of a species or group of species

c)

The classification of organisms

d)

The study of ecosystems

51.

What is a phylogenetic tree?

a)

A diagram that shows the physical traits of organisms

b)

A chart that shows the genetic makeup of organisms

c)

A branching diagram that represents the evolutionary history of a group of organisms

d)

A table that lists the species in an ecosystem

52.

What is a cladogram?

a)

A diagram that shows the physical traits of organisms

b)

A chart that shows the genetic makeup of organisms

c)

A branching diagram that represents the evolutionary relationships among species

d)

A table that lists the species in an ecosystem

53.

On a cladogram, what does a node represent?

a)

A common ancestor

b)

A mutation

c)

A physical trait

d)

A genetic sequence

54.

What happens at each node?

a)

A new species is formed

b)

A common ancestor is identified

c)

A mutation occurs

d)

A physical trait is observed

55.

What is a clade?

a)

A group of species that share a common ancestor

b)

A physical trait shared by multiple species

c)

A genetic sequence found in multiple species

d)

A mutation that occurs in a population

56.

What is the difference between a shared derived trait and a shared ancestral trait?

a)

A shared derived trait is found in the common ancestor, while a shared ancestral trait is not

b)

A shared derived trait is a new trait that appears in a clade, while a shared ancestral trait is found in the common ancestor

c)

A shared derived trait is a physical trait, while a shared ancestral trait is a genetic trait

d)

A shared derived trait is found in multiple species, while a shared ancestral trait is found in only one species

57.

Match the following parts of the cell.

a)

1.

Mitochondria

b)

2.

Chloroplast

c)

3.

Nucleus

d)

4.

Cell Membrane

58.

Match the following

a)

Sorts, modifies and packages proteins

1.

Golgi

b)

Controls what enters and exits the cell

2.

Cell Membrane

c)

Stores and protects the DNA, the cell's instruction manual

3.

Nucleus

d)

Provides cell's energy in the form of ATP for cell's movement and function

4.

Mitochondria

e)

site of protein synthesis. Does not have a membrane

5.

Ribosome

59.
Structure A refers to the _____.
a)
chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
60.

Structure (C) is a ____.

a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere