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FP2 - Final Exam Review Part 1

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When Bob covers the windows of his deli with plywood to protect them from approaching hurricane winds, what is he trying to do with the risk?

a)

accept

b)

analyze

c)

mitigate

d)

transfer

2.

An executive whose responsibilities include the planning, controlling, preventing, and limiting of business losses and enhancing possibilities for gain is known as a:

a)

CRO (chief risk officer)

b)

CFO (chief financial officer)

c)

CIO (chief insurance officer)

d)

COO (chief operations officer)

3.

Anna is an insurance agent who is working with Tracy, the sole proprietor of a small dental practice, to determine the type of liability insurance she needs. Anna suggests that Tracy needs to purchase insurance that will cover her legal expenses in the event a patient sues her for negligence. What type of liability insurance is Anna advising Tracy to purchase?

a)

workers' compensation

b)

commercial

c)

malpractice

4.

Michelle has acquired proof that her coworker Ted has been embezzling money from the company. If Michelle fails to inform her employer about Ted's activities, what will likely occur?

a)

The company's financial risk will increase.

b)

The company's property insurance premium will increase.

c)

The government will fine the company for noncompliance.

5.

The two dimensions of risk are:

a)

probability and impact.

b)

probability and avoidance.

c)

mitigation and acceptance.

6.

A health food company claims that its products will cure many diseases, but without proof of this claim. When customers realized that the claim was unfounded, the company suffered from a damaged reputation and many lawsuits. The company's behavior is considered to be:

a)

favorable.

b)

moral.

c)

normal.

7.

A good source of information about the retroactive risks of a business would be a/an:

a)

favorable.

b)

moral.

c)

normal.

8.

In addition to basic homeowner's insurance coverage, insurance agents whose clients live in flood or earthquake zones might suggest that they purchase:

a)

optional perils endorsements

b)

assisted living coverage

c)

rental unit coverage

d)

limited term riders

9.

Paulo is a terrible driver and has had many traffic tickets and accidents. What type of insurance will his insurance company have to get for Paulo?

a)

reinsurance

b)

excess insurance

c)

standard insurance

d)

exclusion insurance

10.

To save money, an automobile manufacturer imported substandard parts resulting in engine fires. The manufacturer is now facing a class-action lawsuit which is an example of a risk associated with:

a)

trade secrets

b)

purchasing manager

c)

business incident log

d)

local weather forecast

11.

The insurance industry generates the funds needed to pay the claims of policyholders by:

a)

obtaining loans from financial institutions.

b)

investing money from premiums.

c)

consolidating stock portfolios.

d)

selling related merchandise.

12.

Which scenario would be an example of a business acting ethically in regards to insurance?

a)

obtaining the insurance required by law

b)

telling the whole truth to insurance agents

c)

keeping insurance information concealed from staff

d)

maintaining the same insurance policies for as long as possible

13.

Which is true about a captive agent relationship?

a)

A captive agent owns all clients that he/she services.

b)

The captive agent is guided by dual agency guidelines.

c)

The insurer owns and maintains control of all accounts serviced by the captive agent.

d)

A captive agent has the right to rewrite the insured if he/she terminates his/her relationship with the insurer.

14.

What category of risk typically has the most impact on the ability of a business to reach planned goals and objectives?

a)

Operational Risk

b)

Financial Risk

c)

Strategic Risk

d)

Hazard Risk

15.

If a car in the driveway of a home gets broken into and a laptop is stolen, what type of insurance coverage will pay for the laptop?

a)

reinsurance

b)

auto insurance

c)

excess insurance

d)

property insurance

16.

Insurance that an insurance company purchases from another insurance company to protect itself from the risk of a major claims event is called:

a)

reinsurance

b)

excess insurance

c)

standard insurance

d)

exclusion insurance

17.

A primary characteristic of a whole life insurance policy is that it:

a)

requires policyholders to pay low premiums annually.

b)

covers the insured for a time period of 25 years.

c)

covers only the insured's burial expenses.

18.

To guard against intentional ethical violations, such as deliberate financial data tampering, an organization should maintain:

a)

daily balance sheets.

b)

audit trails of data changes.

c)

hard copies of all documents.

d)

an accounts receivable schedule.

19.

What is the disadvantage to members who have health insurance coverage through a health maintenance organization (HMO)?

a)

HMOs typically lack coverage for well-patient visits or preventive care.

b)

Members pay much higher deductibles than do people with other coverage.

c)

Members need to get referrals from their primary care doctor to see specialists.

d)

HMOs require the insured individuals to pay high co-pays to network physicians.

20.

Which is often used to measure and rate potential risks?

a)

an environmental scan

b)

transference strategies

c)

an impact/probability chart

d)

contingency and fallback plans

21.

C’eri sent out an email to customers several days after her supervisor told her to send it. When her supervisor asked her about it, she said that she was unable to send it when he asked because the network WiFi was down. C’eri is putting her company at risk due to her:

a)

lack of integrity.

b)

lack of transparency.

c)

lack of initiative.

d)

lack of accountability.

22.

Which statement accurately describes the nature of prospective risks?

a)

They are typically more common than retroactive risks.

b)

They are usually easier to identify than retroactive risks.

c)

They have failed to happen before but could occur in the future.

d)

They have occurred in the past so they will fail to reoccur in the future.

23.

Fiona uses her generator to keep her restaurant open during a power outage so she can serve hot meals to the community. She is turning her risk into a strategic advantage by indicating she is:

a)

risk-averse.

b)

risk-seeking.

c)

risk-tolerant.

d)

risk-accepting.

24.

Which is an unethical activity that relates to risk management?

a)

issuing bonds to raise funds for a corporation

b)

withholding information from insurance underwriters

c)

requesting various documents to process a loan request

d)

using third-party debt collectors to obtain overdue payments

25.

Bella owns a collection of rare comic books that increase in value every year. She wants to insure them for more than their present value. Bella should purchase:

a)

reinsurance

b)

coinsurance

c)

primary insurance

d)

secondary insurance

26.

Which is a potential negative consequence for a business which fails to manage risk by implementing an ethics training program for all employees?

a)

increased conflict

b)

damaged reputation

c)

reduced profit margins

d)

increased salary expense

27.

Technological innovations can increase the strategic risk for business by:

a)

causing interest rate growth

b)

making some products obsolete

c)

eliminating the convenience of buying in person

d)

decreasing the supply of people seeking employment

28.

A provision in an insurance policy that eliminates coverage for some types of risks is called a/an:

a)

adjustment

b)

excess

c)

exclusion

d)

standard

29.

One goal of risk management is to:

a)

limit losses.

b)

increase expenses.

c)

increase employee loyalty.

d)

determine right from wrong.

30.

A large company that provides insurance and assumes the risk covered in the policies is known as a/an:

a)

insurance agent.

b)

insurance carrier.

c)

insurance adjuster.

d)

reinsurance company.

31.

Lilly’s Laundry had a washer malfunction that flooded the business, causing it to close for three weeks. What kind of risk is this?

a)

financial

b)

operational

c)

pure

d)

speculative

32.

Because Maggie's primary goal is to get ahead in the company, she often uses questionable tactics to get a sale, which sometimes involves misleading her customers. Maggie's behavior is a risk to her employer because Maggie places more importance on personal gain than she does on (a)  

Choose from the below words
business ethics
social responsibility
operating procedures
productivity
33.

An external financial risk that Martha might face in her watch repair business is:

a)

poorly made products.

b)

significant accounting errors.

c)

poor budgeting and planning.

d)

a change in currency exchange rates.

34.

Which is an example of an insurance agent's misrepresentation to a customer?

a)

changing the type of coverage on a policy

b)

adding extra zeroes to the amount of coverage

c)

advising a client that an auto policy will cover liability when it only covers collision

d)

failing to be in full compliance with state regulations regarding licensing requirements

35.

An earthquake is an example of which type of risk?

a)

operational

b)

pure

c)

speculative

d)

strategic

36.

Bradley owns a local hardware store and decides to close early because it is snowing. He is worried that customers might slip and fall around his shop or his employees might wreck their cars driving home. By closing early, how is Bradley handling these risks?

a)

by avoiding them

b)

by accepting them

c)

by mitigating them

d)

by transferring them

37.

Poor product development, unreliable manufacturing equipment, and product shortages are examples of which type of risk?

a)

financial

b)

hazard

c)

operational

d)

strategic

38.

Which is an example of a hazard risk?

a)

competitive advantage

b)

product shortages

c)

tornadoes

d)

inflation

39.

The term risk is used in business to refer to the:

a)

Potential or probability of loss

b)

Opportunity for profit

c)

Uncertainty in outcomes

d)

chance the customer takes

40.

What can risk managers do to ensure the successful launch of a new product?

a)

act quickly to beat the competition

b)

evaluate potential gains and losses of the event

c)

develop fail-proof strategies for the calendar year

d)

ignore issues the company has encountered in the past

41.

An example of an internal financial risk is:

a)

credit downgrades.

b)

consumer buying power.

c)

improper budgeting practices.

d)

foreign exchange rate changes.

42.

What is the most ethical way for a business to handle its product liabilities?

a)

avoid conflicts of interest

b)

have a strong legal team in place

c)

make sure customers are unharmed

d)

assume people know which items are harmful

43.

Emma is reviewing the sales budget in relation to the actual sales generated for a set time frame. Emma is using financial information in this situation to:

a)

compare estimated performance with actual performance.

b)

identify external economic trends.

c)

analyze the impact of aging accounts.

d)

establish new quality standards and benchmarks.

44.

Which statement is true about health maintenance organizations (HMOs)?

a)

HMO member fees vary annually and are based on the frequency of visits to physicians.

b)

HMOs provide comprehensive health services but often restrict the insured's choice of physicians.

c)

To control costs, HMOs cover doctor visits but require members to pay for X-ray and laboratory services.

d)

Because HMOs emphasize preventative care to members, they do not impose co-payment policies on patient visits to the doctor.

45.

Without ethical standards, risk management activities can sometimes occur:

a)

rarely.

b)

illegally.

c)

at the expense of other people.

d)

without a strong leader in place.

46.

Recently, Joseph signed a lease for a new car. Unfortunately, Joseph was involved in an automobile accident, and the car was totaled. Because Joseph's insurance company paid out less than the payoff amount of the lease, Joseph still owes the leasing company several thousand dollars for the car. What type of insurance would have covered Joseph from this type of loss?

a)

Collision Insurance

b)

Comprehensive Insurance

c)

Gap Insurance

d)

Liability Insurance

47.

Why is it important for a business to review ratings issued by independent agencies before purchasing business insurance?

a)

to forecast the number of insurance claims the business expects to file

b)

to determine the amount of insurance the business actually needs

c)

to analyze the insurance company’s organizational structure

d)

to evaluate the financial stability of the insurance company

48.

Which is an example of altering an insurance application?

a)

an agent changing the type of coverage on a policy

b)

an agent lying to a client about the amount of dividends

c)

an agent advising a client that an auto policy will cover liability when it only covers collision

d)

an agent telling a customer that he/she represents several companies when he/she only represents one

49.

Which involves a set of relationships between a company’s management, its board, its shareholders, and other stakeholders?

a)

company culture

b)

corporate dynamics

c)

corporate governance

d)

corporate

50.

More self-governance in the workplace lessens dependence on managers and supervisors and redirects them to reliance on their coworkers. This will lead to:

a)

team unity.

b)

reduced morale.

c)

increased supervision.

d)

increased employee turnover.

51.

People or entities who have a financial interest in a business or can be monetarily affected by the decisions of a business are referred to as:

a)

mediation experts.

b)

inquisitive agents.

c)

stakeholders.

d)

consultants.

52.

Tellia works in a local boutique and has been provided a list of how the displays are set up, how clothes are folded and arranged, and how clean the boutique should be. This list is known as:

a)

instructions.

b)

policies.

c)

standards.

d)

tasks.

53.

What establishes and protects the rights and specifies the duties and responsibilities of an organization’s members, board of directors, and executives?

a)

Bylaws

b)

Policies

c)

Standards

d)

Recommendations

54.

When employees are given independence and expected to be more self-sufficient, they become more efficient over time. This should lead to:

a)

increased supervision.

b)

increased productivity.

c)

increased ethical behavior.

d)

increased employee turnover.

55.

The fundamental legal duty requiring a board member to participate actively in making decisions on behalf of the organization and to exercise his or her best judgment while doing so is referred to as:

a)

care.

b)

loyalty.

c)

reliability.

d)

obedience.

56.

A responsibility of a board of directors involves planning expenses vs. revenue and using these numbers to create a projected financial blueprint for the company. This activity is referred to as:

a)

debating.

b)

budgeting.

57.

When a company wants to convey what is acceptable and unacceptable regarding the quality of its product, it will develop:

a)

instructions

b)

policies

c)

standards

d)

tasks

58.

Which principle of corporate governance protects shareholders' rights and makes sure the business treats all shareholders equitably?

a)

accountability

b)

fairness

c)

independence

d)

transparency

59.

Mechanisms put in place to make sure corporate governance will be effective are referred to as:

a)

rules

b)

transparency

c)

risk mitigation

d)

checks and balances

60.

Vic’s Vinyl Flooring creates its own corporate policies and procedures and controls all levels of the business. This helps it to avoid disasters before they occur and is known as:

a)

asset management

b)

strategic marketing

c)

risk management

d)

strategic planning

61.

The policies and procedures used by the board of directors or owner to manage a corporation are known as:

a)

A. corporate bylaws.

b)

B. corporate welfare.

c)

C. corporate takeover.

d)

D. corporate governance.

62.

General, nonmandatory business procedures are:

a)

A. guidelines.

b)

B. policies.

c)

C. recommendations.

d)

D. statements.

63.

What are the four principles of corporate governance?

a)

A. accountability, fairness, transparency, and profitability

b)

B. accountability, fairness, profitability, and independence

c)

C. accountability, fairness, transparency, and independence

d)

D. accountability, profitability, transparency, and independence

64.

A fundamental challenge faced by many board members is failing to possess a strong understanding of the corporate governance.

a)

corporate culture

b)

corporate governance

c)

fellow board members

d)

roles and responsibilities

65.

Members of a board of directors should refrain from all involvement in any way with a business competitor. This is necessary to avoid a conflict of interest.

a)

a law suit

b)

business losses

c)

a conflict of interest

d)

friction within the board

66.

The fundamental legal duty requiring a board member to put the interests of the organization before their personal and professional interests when acting on behalf of the organization in a decision-making capacity is the duty of loyalty.

a)

care

b)

loyalty

c)

obedience

d)

reliability

67.

The fundamental legal duty which requires a board member to bear the legal responsibility of ensuring the organization complies with all applicable federal, state, and local laws and adheres to the company mission is referred to as the duty of care.

a)

care

b)

loyalty

c)

reliability

d)

obedience

68.

When employees are disciplined for violating mandatory procedures regarding a specific area or task, it is said that they have violated a company:

a)

guideline

b)

policy

c)

recommendation

d)

statement

69.

When a new employee gets step-by-step instructions on how to carry out a task, it is called:

a)

policies

b)

procedures

c)

recommendations

d)

standards

70.

To operate effectively, small-to-medium-sized businesses may only need:

a)

guidelines

b)

instructions

c)

policies

d)

tasks

71.

When employees are treated as an asset and their input is valued, confidence increases among every team member, which greatly improves:

a)

Training

b)

Morale

c)

Teamwork

d)

Ethics

72.

When deciding whether to issue a policy or a guideline, a business should consider the:

a)

Level of risk

b)

Corporate culture

c)

number of employees

d)

complexity of the company