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Worksheets

Science 8 SE 2 Revision

Total questions: 211

Worksheet time: 3hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which one of the following shows discontinuous variation?
a)
Eye colour
b)
Height
c)
Strength
d)
Weight
2.
Which one of the following shows continuous variation?
a)
Blood group
b)
Height
c)
Male or female
d)
Tongue rolling
3.
Which one of the following is an environmental variation?
a)
Attached ear lobes
b)
Eye colour
c)
Male or female
d)
Short hair
4.
Differences between members of the same species are called
a)
predators
b)
traits
c)
selections
d)
variations
5.

What does this sign mean?

a)

corrosive

b)

explosive

c)

flammable

d)

toxic

6.

Which of the following would increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

Freezing the chemicals

b)

Increasing the temperature of the reagents

c)

Removing a catalyst

d)

Using less chemicals

7.

Which of the following would increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

Removing a catalyst

b)

Diluting the chemicals

c)

Decreasing the temperature

d)

Adding a catalyst

8.

Which of the following would increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

Lowering temperatrure

b)

Removing a catalyst

c)

Making the chemicals more concentrated

d)

Using less chemicals

9.

Which colour on the graph would represent the solution with the higher temperature?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

None

d)

Both

10.

Which of the following would increase the rate of CO2 made using marble chips and HCl?

a)

Lowering the temperature

b)

Crushing the marble chips

c)

Using less acid

d)

Using bigger marble chips

11.
The burning of fuels , such as coal, natural gas, or oil involves a(n) __________reaction.
a)
chemical
b)
physical
12.
All reactions require activation energy.
a)
True
b)
False
13.

An enzyme (biological catalyst) increases the rate of a reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

14.
Increasing the temperature of a reaction will __________ the rate of the reaction.
a)
increase
b)
decrease
15.
In an ____________reaction, energy is released.
a)
exothermic
b)
endothermic
16.

Look at the picture. What method is used to measure the rate of reaction according to the picture?

a)

Product's mass measuring.

b)

Product volume measuring.

c)

Reactant volume measuring.

d)

Reactant's mass measuring.

17.

A student add marble chip into hydrochloric acid to produce carbondioxide bubble. Which way cannot ben used to speed up the chemical reaction?

a)

Adding more marble chip.

b)

Using high concentration of hydrochloric acid.

c)

Use marble powder.

d)

Heat the chemical reaction.

18.

Which of the following is the meaning of activation energy?

a)

The maximum energy that the particles need to produce effective collision

b)

The amount of energy used by the particles during a collision

c)

The minimum amount of energy that particles must have in order to react

d)

The amount of kinetic energy of molecules during a collision

19.

Increase in temperature causes the particles to

a)

slow down

b)

move faster

c)

stay apart from each other

d)

move in the correct order

20.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of reactant particles

d)

it increases the frequency of collision

21.

Why does a higher temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

It increases both the frequency collision and energy of reactant particles

b)

It only increases the frequency of collision

c)

It only increases the energy of reactant particles

d)

It reduces the activation energy of the reaction

22.
What is the rate of reaction?
a)
How fast a reaction is 
b)
How big a reaction is
c)
How loud a reaction is
d)
How much gas a reaction produces
23.

Grinding an effervescent tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to increase of

a)

concentration

b)

total surface area

c)

temperature

d)

size

24.
What salt is produced if you react sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid?
a)
sodium hydroxide
b)
sodium sulfate
c)
sodium nitrate
d)
sodium chloride
25.
Identify the 'evaporating basin' from the diagrams.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
26.

How do you remove the water to leave solid copper sulfate crystals?

a)

Filter

b)

Evaporate

c)

Distill

27.
Salts that are made with sulfuric acid are called ______________.
a)
chlorides
b)
sulfates
c)
nitrates
d)
carbonates
28.

What does the word insoluble mean?

a)

Does dissolve

b)

Doesn't dissolve

c)

Is part of a solid

29.

Filtration is used to separate a ______ from a liquid.

a)

undissolved solid

b)

dissolved solid

c)

dissolved gas

d)

undissolved gas

30.

Complete the following word equation:

Metal + Acid -->

a)

Salt + water

b)

Salt + hydrogen

c)

Salt + Water + Carbon dioxide

31.

Complete the following word equation:

Metalcarbonate + acid -->

a)

Salt + Hydrogen

b)

Salt + Water + Carbon Dioxide

c)

Salt + Water

32.

How do you remove the water to leave solid copper sulfate crystals?

a)

Filter

b)

Evaporate

c)

Distill

33.

What is the correct order for making a salt?

a)

dissolve metal oxide in acid -> evaporate -> filter

b)

dissolve metal oxide in acid -> filter -> evaporate

c)

filter -> dissolve metal oxide in acid -> evaporate

d)

filter -> evaporate -> dissolve metal oxide in acid

34.

This is when heat is absorbed, it is an

a)

Exothermic reaction

b)

endothermic reaction

c)

both

d)

none

35.

The temperature increases outside of this reaction

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

c)

both

d)

none

36.

A melting ice cube is an example of

a)

exothermic

b)

endothermic

c)

none

d)

both

37.

photosynthesis is an example of

a)

Exothermic reaction

b)

Endothermic reaction

c)

both

d)

none

38.

Which of the following is true in an endothermic reaction?

a)

heat is released; bond forming process

b)

heat is absorbed; bond breaking process

c)

heat is released; bond breaking process

d)

heat is absorbed; bond forming process

39.

Which of the following would NOT increase the rate at which a sugar cube dissolves?

a)

Reducing the amount of solvent

b)

Crushing the sugar cube

c)

Stirring the solution

d)

Heating the solvent

40.

You can make a solute dissolve more quickly in a solvent by

a)

adding more solute.

b)

adding ice.

c)

heating the solvent.

d)

removing some solvent.

41.

Which of the following is a salt?

a)

sodium hydroxide

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

calcium oxide

d)

ammonium chloride

42.

It is the medium in which matter is dissolved.

a)

Solubility

b)

Solution

c)

Solvent

d)

Solute

43.
Salts that are made with nitric acid are called ______________.
a)
chlorides
b)
sulfates
c)
nitrates
d)
carbonates
44.

A salt is formed when nitric acid combines with sodium hydroxide. What is the name of the salt?

a)

sodium chloride

b)

sodium nitrate

c)

hydrogen nitrate

d)

sodium sulfate

45.

Which two chemicals could you react to make only potassium chloride and water?

a)

potassium and hydrochloric acid

b)

potassium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid

c)

potassium oxide and sulfuric acid

d)

potassium and sulfuric acid

46.
What products are produced when we react an acid with an alkali?
a)
salt + carbon dioxide + water
b)
salt + hydrogen
c)
salt + water
d)
salt + water + hydrogen
47.
Which food is the most acidic?
a)
bananas
b)
lemon juice
c)
orange juice
48.
Salts that are made with hydrochloric acid are called ______________.
a)
chlorides
b)
sulfates
c)
nitrates
d)
carbonates
49.
____________ can be corrosive.
a)
acids
b)
bases
c)
acids and bases
d)
neutral substances
50.

What are the products if magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid?

a)

Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen

b)

Magnesium sulfate + Hydrogen

c)

Magnesium oxide + Hydrogen

d)

Magnesium sulfide + Hydrogen

51.
According to the pH range which substance is more acidic than lemon juice
a)
Hydrochloric acid
b)
cabbage
c)
milk
52.

nitric acid + magnesium carbonate --> ..........+...........+............

a)

magnesium nitrate + water

b)

magnesium oxide + water

c)

magnesium oxide + water + hydrogen

d)

magnesium nitrate + water + carbon dioxide

53.

The chemical industry makes hundreds of thousands of tonnes different salts. Many methods for making salt starts with acids. Salts made from carbonic acid are called .....

a)

chlorides

b)

sulfates

c)

nitrates

d)

carbonates

54.

You can neutralize acid by adding a base that is just as strong?

a)

True

b)

False

55.
To protect tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regurlarly.The toothpaste is
a)
acidic
b)
neutral
c)
basic
d)
corrosive
56.

Sections of DNA that have instructions for a specific trait are called _______________

a)

Blueprints

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Genes

d)

Fragment

57.

Chromosomes are _______________

a)

Long strands of DNA that contain many genes

b)

Made of 20 pairs

c)

Bundles of DNA that contain only one gene each

d)

Found in the mitochondria

58.

The passing of physical characteristics, or traits, from parent to offspring. ___________

a)

Genetics

b)

Heredity

c)

Dominant

d)

Recessive

59.

Different versions of the same gene are called _____

a)

genes

b)

alleles

c)

variation

d)

genotype

60.

If two alleles are the same for a certain trait they are considered ______

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

61.

A trait that always shows up when the allele is present ________

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

genotype

62.

A trait that is always hidden when the dominant allele is present ______

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

genotype

d)

phenptype

63.

A hot air balloon rising is an example of ...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

connection

64.

Eggs cooking in a frying pan

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

connection

65.

A blow dryer uses __________ to dry your hair.

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

connection

66.

Warming up near a campfire is an example of ...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

connection

67.

Which of the following is an example of a Thermal Conductor?

a)

Plastic

b)

Styrofoam

c)

Wood

d)

Copper

68.

Which of the following is an example of a Thermal Insulator?

a)

Iron

b)

Aluminum

c)

Wood

d)

Copper

69.
Which is a nonrenewable source of energy?
a)
nuclear
b)
wind
c)
sunlight
d)
biomass
70.

Which is a nonrenewable source of energy?

a)

solar

b)

wind

c)

coal

d)

geothermal

71.
Which is a renewable source of energy?
a)
coal
b)
uranium
c)
ocean tides
d)
natural gas
72.

An energy source that is gone forever once it is used up is called?

a)

renewable

b)

nonrenewable

c)

natural resource

d)

raw material

73.
According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy cannot be _________ or ____________. 
a)
destroyed, destroyed
b)
created, saved
c)
created, destroyed
d)
lost, found
74.

Transfer of thermal energy by means of currents in fluids is termed as

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Convection and Radiation

75.

Cooking utensils are a good example of

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Conduction and Radiation

76.

Poor conductors of heat and electricity are termed as

a)

Electrolytes

b)

Consumers

c)

Insulators

d)

Conductors

77.

Process in which thermal energy is transferred by emission of electromagnetic wave is termed as ....

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Conduction and Convection

78.

What is NOT a renewable energy source?

a)

coal

b)

wind

c)

solar

d)

water

79.

Which is NOT a non-renewable energy source?

a)

coal

b)

oil

c)

wind

d)

gas

80.

I would use this piece of equipment to ...

a)

find the weight of a substance.

b)

to find the volume of a liquid.

c)

to find the mass of a substance.

d)

to see if I have lost weight.

81.

What is this piece of laboratory equipment called?

a)

Test tube

b)

Beaker

c)

Boiling tube

d)

Flask

82.

What is this piece of laboratory equipment called?

a)

A coaster

b)

A metal gauze

c)

A place mat

d)

A heatprof mat

83.

Used to measure specific volume of liquid

a)

beaker

b)

measuring cylinder

c)

test tube

d)

erlenmyer flask

84.

Used to hold the test tubes and keep from spilling

a)

test tube

b)

test tube rack

c)

pipette

d)

mortar

85.

Used to measure the temperature of an object

a)

hot plate

b)

thermometer

c)

petri dish

d)

temperature

86.
You should never ______ chemicals in the lab. 
a)
taste
b)
touch
c)
smell
d)
all of the above
87.
Name this item
a)
weighing boat 
b)
funnel 
c)
wash bottle 
d)
Erlenmeyer flask 
88.
Name the equipment
a)
test tube pin
b)
test tube metal
c)
test tube coil
d)
test tube clamp
89.
Name the equipment
a)
thermometer
b)
test tube rack
c)
beaker
d)
dropper pipette 
90.
Name the equipment 
a)
thermometer
b)
dropper pipette 
c)
burette
d)
stirring rod 
91.
Name the equipment
a)
goggles 
b)
googles 
c)
safety googles
d)
safety goggles
92.
Name the equipment
a)
thermometer
b)
spring scale
c)
scale
d)
hook scale
93.
A 5 kg bowling ball, a 0.25 kg baseball, and a 0.05 kg golf ball are dropped from a 100-meter high building. A camera catches the motion of the balls as they pass specific markers (in meters, m) on the building. The times (in seconds, s) that each object passes the markers are listed in the table below. Which of the following conclusions is true?
a)
Light objects fall faster than heavy ones.
b)
All objects fall at the same rate regardless of mass.
c)
Heavy objects fall faster than light ones.
d)
Objects of different shapes fall at the same rate
94.
Tony recorded data from his chemistry experiment in the following table.  Which of the categories from Tony's data table includes qualitative observations?
a)
color
b)
temperature
c)
mass
d)
volume
95.
Which of the following units would be the most appropriate for measuring the length of a football field?
a)
mililiters
b)
centimeters
c)
meters
d)
kilometers
96.
The level of closeness between multiple measurements of the same quantity is called __________.
a)
accuracy
b)
similarity
c)
precision
d)
congruence
97.
Mr. Swanson's science class used a thermometer to measure the outside temperature each day throughout the school year.
They used their results to make the graph below.

Which month had an average daily temperature of around 41 degrees?
a)
May
b)
April
c)
December
d)
March
98.
The pictures below show a field that is being studied over time. In the field, there are rabbits (red circles) and foxes (blue circles). What conclusion can be drawn from these observations?
a)
The number of foxes decreases as the number of rabbits increases.
b)
The number of rabbits and foxes remains constant over time.
c)
The number of foxes remains constant while the number of rabbits decreases.
d)
The number of foxes increases while the number of rabbits decreases.
99.
Directions: Select the correct graph.
Mikey had two mice that were about the same age and weight. Mikey fed each of the two mice a different feed for a month. He measured how much the mice weighed every two days until the month was over. Mikey's results showed that although both mice gained weight over the month, mouse 2 gained more weight than mouse 1.Which graph below best shows these results?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
100.
A scientist collected the following data on algal growth during an experiment:
Which of the following conclusions could be drawn from the data? 
a)
Algae multiply most rapidly at 35°C.
b)
Algae multiply most slowly at 20°C.
c)
Algae multiply most slowly at 10°C.
d)
Algae multiply most rapidly at 20°C.
101.
Sean enjoys studying the stars. He used a photometry tool to calculate several stars' apparent magnitudes (how bright a star looks in the sky). He then researched the stars' distances from Earth. He recorded his results in the table below.
What conclusions can Sean draw from his chart?
a)
A star's apparent magnitude increases as its distance from Earth increases.
b)
A star's apparent magnitude decreases as its distance from Earth increases.
c)
A star's apparent magnitude decreases if it is very close to another star.
d)
A star's apparent magnitude is not directly related to its distance from Earth.
102.
Which of the nutrients in the chart was provided by milk only? A. B. C. D.
a)
Protein
b)
Niacin
c)
Calcium
d)
Iron
103.
Mary thought that the number of frogs in the neighborhood pond had decreased over the last few years. So, she decided to count the number of frogs she saw around the pond twice each day for ten days. Mary's data is displayed in the table below. Based on her observations, which of the following can Mary infer? 
a)
Frogs are consumed by predators in the morning and are reborn in the evening.
b)
The number of frogs at the pond has steadily declined over the last 2 years.
c)
The number of frogs at the pond has steadily increased over the last 2 years.
d)
Frogs rest during the afternoon and become more active in the evening.
104.

How many students scored between 95 and 100?

a)

11

b)

6

c)

9

d)

14

105.
How many students are between 48 and 51 inches tall?
a)
14
b)
8
c)
2
d)
0
106.
How many cities have temperatures between 70 degrees and 99 degrees?
a)
44
b)
34
c)
26
d)
62
107.
There are 200 vegetable plants in a garden.  How many of the vegetable plants are green beans?
a)
16
b)
24
c)
28
d)
32
108.

Which of the following is completely determined by your genes?

a)

Your weight

b)

Your bone structure

c)

Your personality

d)

Your intelligence

109.

How many pairs of chromosomes exist in each of your cells?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

19

d)

23

110.

What is heredity?

a)

A kind of genetic disorder

b)

The way that DNA divides

c)

A trait you inherit from your parents

d)

The passing down of traits from parents to children

111.

What are renewable resources?

a)

A limited amount and cannot be replaced in a human life time.

b)

Plastic bags

c)

Coal, oil, and natural gas

d)

Can be replaced in our lifetime through natural processes

112.

Sunlight is...

a)

Very bright

b)

Will eventually run out soon

c)

A renewable resource

d)

A nonrenewable resource

113.

Wood is...

a)

A renewable resource

b)

A nonrenewable resource

c)

Used to make oil

d)

Used to make plastic

114.

A group of non-renewable resources, called ______________, include coal, oil, and natural gas.

a)

Fossils

b)

Energy

c)

Resources

d)

Fossil fuels

115.

Coal comes from...

a)

from animals that died millions of years ago.

b)

from plants that died millions of years ago.

c)

A factory

d)

Burning fossil fuels

116.

Oil is used to make...

a)

gasoline & other types of fuel

b)

plastics, DVDs, and tires

c)

Energy

d)

All of the above

117.

Some renewable and non-renewable resources can hurt the environment. Which statement is true?

a)

Burning wood can pollute our atmosphere

b)

Burning coal releases gases and smoke into the atmosphere.

c)

Oil spills in the ocean can affect ships.

d)

Wind energy can cause harm to plants.

118.

How so we get energy from the sun?

a)

Sunlight can generate electricity straight from the sky.

b)

Solar panels use the sun to power turbines.

c)

Solar panels can convert sunlight into electrical energy.

d)

Solar panels generate their own electricity.

119.

What is geothermal energy?

a)

A power plant.

b)

Heat energy generated and stored in the Earth.

c)

Nuclear Energy

d)

A nonrenewable resource

120.

What is an advantage of using hydropower (water) as an energy source?

a)

uses existing bodies of water.

b)

may divert water and alter normal water flow.

c)

might disrupt the movements of animals.

d)

sometimes causes flooding in surrounding areas.

121.

A disadvantage of this energy source is that it pollutes the air with gases.

a)

hydropwer

b)

wind

c)

coal

d)

solar

122.

One disadvantage to this source is that it's not effective in certain weather.

a)

Sun

b)

Coal

c)

Nuclear

d)

Biomass

123.
Why are fossil fuels considered nonrenewable resources if they are still forming beneath the surface today?
a)
They are being formed as a type of methane which we cannot use.
b)
They are being formed too far beneath the surface.
c)
The fossil fuels are being broken down by a natural process.
d)
We are depleting the fossil fuels much faster than they can form.
124.
Natural Gas is a __________ energy resource.
a)
Renewable
b)
Nonrenewable
125.
Some power plants pump water down deep holes into hot rock. The hot rock heats the water, which turns the water into steam. The steam rushes back to Earth’s surface and is used to make electricity. This plant is generating which alternative energy resource?
a)
biomass
b)
wind
c)
solar energy
d)
geothermal energy
126.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the organism knew it needed that trait, survives, and passes it on.

127.
The differences among a species, like different bird beaks, are called
a)
genes.
b)
variations.
c)
traits.
d)
theories.
128.
What process is being shown in this image?
a)
Variation
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Homeostasis
129.
Organisms that are better adapted to the environment survive to pass traits to their offspring
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Homeostasis
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Extinction
130.
Behavioral changes of individuals of a species that allow for better survival. (Acquired traits)
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
131.
Organisms with the most beneficial traits will survive.  This is commonly known as
a)
theory of evolution.
b)
variations.
c)
survival of the fittest.
d)
ecosystems.
132.

The graphs below show the changes in crab color at one beach.

Which of the following is most likely to have caused the change in the distribution?

a)

A new predator arrived that preferred dark-tan crabs.

b)

A new predator arrived that preferred light-tan crabs.

c)

A change in beach color made medium-tan crabs the least visible to predators.

d)

A change in beach color made medium-tan crabs the most visible to predators.

133.

Match the following terms with their definitions

a)

Evolution

1.

a change in a species DNA over time because of natural selection

b)

Adaptation

2.

Any variation that makes an organism better able to survive

c)

Variation

3.

An inherited trait that makes and individual different

d)

Mutation

4.

A permanent change in the DNA

134.

Whales and dolphins both descended from a dog-like creature. What would we call the dog-like creature?

a)

Great-Grandparent species

b)

Old Species

c)

A common ancestor

d)

A common descendant

135.

If a new trait DOES NOT help an organism survive, what may happen to it?

a)

It dies and its DNA is not passed on

b)

It survives and its DNA is passed on

c)

It changes its traits to adapt and survive

136.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)

Natural Selection

b)

Variation

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Extinction

137.
Another word for adapt is ____________.
a)
change
b)
create
138.
Definition: fossil record
a)
remains of dead organisms
b)
related organisms have the same bone makeup
c)
in the early stages of development dogs, pigs, and humans resemble one another
139.

The Theory of Evolution was proposed by what scientist?

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Steven Hawking

d)

Isaac Newton

140.
A term that typically describes a species that no longer has any known living individuals
a)
Generation Time
b)
Fossil Record
c)
Extinct
d)
Speciation
141.
What is an organism that has similar characteristics and can reproduce?
a)
species
b)
organism
c)
embryology
d)
vestigial 
142.

Are the currents at A1 and A2 same?

a)

Yes, they are same

b)

No, they are different

143.

Which of the following is the best example of an electrical conductor?

a)

tire

b)

steel

c)

plastic

d)

none of the above

144.

Which best briefly summarizes the law of electric charges?

a)

charges always attract

b)

charges always repel

c)

unlike charges attract

d)

unlike charges repel

145.

Which of the following statements is correct about conductor and insulator?

a)

the electrons in conductor do not move around

b)

the electrons in insulator do not move around

c)

the electric current can pass through the insulator

d)

the electric current can pass through both insulator and conductor

146.

Electric circuit is a path for transmitting electric current

a)

true

b)

false

147.

What is the main difference between parallel and series circuits?

a)

in series circuit, charges flow one path; charges in parallel circuit flow in multiple paths

b)

in series circuit, charges flow multiple paths; charges in parallel circuit flow in one path

c)

in parallel circuit, several lamps work separately; in series circuit, several lamps work independently

d)

in parallel circuit, if one lamp breaks then the other lamps will also off; in series circuit, if one lamp breaks then the other lamps still works

148.

What kind of circuit is this?

a)

series

b)

parallel

149.

If a substance has a higher number of electrons than protons on its surface, what type of charge does it have?

a)

neutral charged

b)

positively charged

c)

negatively charged

d)

no charges at all

150.

A ______ opens and closes a circuit.

a)

cell

b)

conductor

c)

wire

d)

switch

151.

What is this symbol for?

a)

light bulb

b)

wire

c)

cell

d)

battery

152.

When you remove a bulb from a three bulb circuit, and the other two bulbs go off, then the bulbs must have been connected in parallel.

a)

true

b)

false

153.

Electric current is the flow of _________.

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

neutrons

d)

none of them

154.

Electric current is measured in....

a)

watts

b)

joules

c)

newtons

d)

amperes

155.

When one light bulb burns out, the rest stay lit. The bulbs must be found in ....

a)

series circuit

b)

parallel circuit

156.

Carbon is The only non-metal material that can conduct electricity.

a)

true

b)

false

157.

What kind of circuit is this?

a)

series

b)

parallel

158.

Are the currents at A1 and A2 same?

a)

Yes, they are same

b)

No, they are different

159.

All of the planets in the Solar System rotate at the same rate.

a)

True

b)

False

160.

The Earth rotates about an imaginary axis at an angle of:

a)

10°10\degree

b)

15°15\degree

c)

23.5°23.5\degree

d)

25°25\degree

161.

Select the TWO TRUE statements.

a)

It takes the Earth about 365 days to make one rotation on its axis.

b)

It takes the Earth about 24 hours to revolve around the sun.

c)

The Sun moves around the Earth once every 24 hours.

d)

The Earth will have completed about 91 rotations from the start of spring to the start of summer.

e)

It takes the Earth about 365 days to complete its orbit around the Sun.

162.

What is the correct order of the planets in the Solar System, starting closest to the Sun?

a)

Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Mercury, Neptune, Uranus, Saturn

b)

Earth, Mars, Mercury, Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

c)

Mercury, Mars, Earth, Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

d)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

163.

What is the largest planet in the solar system?

a)

Earth

b)

Jupiter

c)

Neptune

d)

Saturn

164.

Which planet has the most extensive ring structure?

a)

Uranus

b)

Jupiter

c)

Saturn

d)

Neptune

165.

What does the earth's tilt cause?

a)

Earthquakes

b)

The seasons

c)

Tsunamis

d)

Day and night

166.

What is the shape of the earth's orbit around the sun?

a)

Variable and changes with the seasons (no particular shape)

b)

Square to rectangular

c)

Circular

d)

Elliptical (slightly oval)

167.

A satellite is .......

a)

a large object in orbit around a smaller object

b)

a large object in space

c)

a small object in orbit around a larger object

d)

a small object in space

168.

Which one do artificial satellites NOT do?

a)

Collect information

b)

Remain stationary

c)

Send TV broadcasts

d)

Take photographs

169.

The time it takes the Earth to orbit the Sun is called .......

a)

28 days

b)

a month

c)

a year

d)

a leap year

170.

As the Earth travels around the sun, this tilt causes different areas of the Earth’s surface to get different amounts of daylight at different times of the year. The angle of the Sun’s rays to the surface also causes areas to have more or less of the Sun’s energy. This causes the ________.

a)

seasons

b)

day and night

c)

months

d)

years

171.

Why do we have night and day?

a)

The Earth ROTATES around the sun

b)

The Earth REVOLVES around the sun

c)

The Earth REVOLVES around it's axis

d)

The Earth ROTATES on it's axis

172.

Earth and the other planets closest to the Sun are made mostly of _______

a)

gas

b)

metal

c)

rock

d)

water

173.

What is the definition of orbit?

a)

all of the planets, moon, and other space objects going around the sun

b)

the imaginary line that goes through the north and south poles that the earth spins on

c)

when the lit part of the moon increases

d)

the spinning of the earth on its axis

174.

The Earth____________around the sun as it _______________ to cause night and day.

a)

rotates/rotates

b)

revolves/revolves

c)

rotates/revolves

d)

revolves/rotates

175.

A mixture of gases that surrounds the Earth like a blanket.

a)

troposphere

b)

land

c)

ozone

d)

atmosphere

176.

What is the position of the earth in the solar system?

a)

The First

b)

The Last

c)

The Third

d)

The Second

177.

How long does it take to the Earth to do the ROTATION MOVEMENT?

a)

24 hours + 6 hours

b)

365 days

c)

28 days

d)

24 hours

178.

What is Pluto?

a)

It doesn't exist

b)

An asteroid

c)

A dwarf planet

d)

A planet

179.

Center of the Earth, formed of hot iron mixed with other metals

a)

Core

b)

Mantle

180.

The layer of rock between the Earth's crust and core

a)

Mantle

b)

Lithosphere

181.

The theory that several large, moving sections of the Earth's surface glide over the mantle, which may result in the formation of mountains or cause earthquakes and volcanic eruptions when they collide

a)

Plate Tectonics

b)

Solar System

182.

The Planets, their Moons and all other bodies that travel around the Sun, including asteroids, meteoroids, and comets

a)

The Solar System

b)

Continental Drift

183.

If scientists could sample Earth's inner core, they would most likely find…

a)

Liquid metal

b)

Solid metal

c)

Liquid rock

d)

Partly molten rock

184.

Using data from seismic waves, geologists have learned that Earth's interior is made up of several

a)

continents

b)

layers

c)

ridges

d)

trenches

185.
The diagram represents the movement of the mantle under the earth's crust. Which process is represented by the diagram?
a)
rotation
b)
conduction
c)
radiation
d)
convection
186.

The hypothesis of Continental Drift was proposed by ...

a)

Alfred Wagen

b)

Harry Hens

c)

Harry Hess

d)

Alfred Wegner

187.

How did geologists feel about Wegener's theory?

a)

They ridiculed him and did not accept his theory.

b)

They were thrilled with him for finding the answers.

c)

They accepted only a part of his theory.

d)

They did not agree, but welcomed his work.

188.

What 2 continents did Wegener notice fit together

a)

South America and Africa

b)

United States and Europe

c)

Africa and Australia

189.

What was the name of the supercontinent?

a)

Panorama

b)

Pangea

c)

Panamerican

d)

Wegener

190.

Match the following

a)
1.

divergent

b)
2.

convergent

c)
3.

transform

191.

At which plate boundary is new crust formed?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

continental

d)

transform

192.

For many years most people mistakenly thought that the Earth was

a)

very old.

b)

spherical in shape.

c)

the only planet in the universe.

d)

flat.

193.

It is now common knowledge that the Earth is round, spins on its axis and

a)

contains a lot of rock & minerals.

b)

has more than one moon.

c)

sometimes has ice ages.

d)

revolves around the Sun.

194.

The Earth is shaped like a ____ - which is a round three-dimensional object.

a)

sphere

b)

circle

c)

ellipse

d)

potato

195.

Aristotle and others observed that Earth displayed a curved shadow during a(n)

a)

solar eclipse.

b)

lunar eclipse.

c)

equinox.

d)

time of winter solstice.

196.

Other observational evidence that shows the Earth as spherical in shape included

a)

sailing ships falling off the edge.

b)

sailing ships top mast slowly coming into view on approach.

c)

artificial satellites & space probes sending back pictures.

d)

looking at the Sun.

197.

Earth spins around an imaginary line called the axis - which is also known as its ____.

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

c)

axis of symmetry

d)

spherical movement

198.

Earth's steady rotation causes day & night, and also the

a)

seasons.

b)

equinoxes.

c)

illusion that the Sun, Moon & stars go around the Earth.

d)

solstices.

199.

One complete rotation takes about 24 hours - or

a)

one day.

b)

about 360 minutes.

c)

one revolution.

d)

about 360 degrees.

200.

One complete ____ around the Sun takes about 365 days or one year.

a)

rotation

b)

trip

c)

revolution

d)

spin

201.

Earth is the ____ of the inner planets (Mercury, Venus & Mars).

a)

largest

b)

coldest

c)

smallest

d)

hottest

202.

The spinning core of the Earth is believed to be a cause of the seasons.

a)

True

b)

False

203.

Earth's magnetic field acts as a barrier against harmful solar radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

204.

The location of Earth's magnetic poles have slowly changed over time.

a)

True

b)

False

205.

Compass needles point to magnetic north - which is 11.5 degrees off from

a)

from the equator.

b)

geographic north (or the north pole).

c)

most GPS measurements.

d)

satellite measurements.

206.

Earth travels in a(n) ___ around the Sun - which brings it closer & farther away during a year.

a)

perfect circle

b)

helical

c)

circle

d)

ellipse

207.

Earth's axis is also tilted 23.5 degrees from its orbit. This tilt causes the ____

a)

Earth to wobble.

b)

ice ages.

c)

Earth to precess on its axis.

d)

seasons.

208.

The hemisphere that is tilted towards the Sun receives

a)

more hours of sunlight each day.

b)

very little sunlight.

c)

less hours of sunlight each day.

d)

no sunlight at its pole.

209.

The combination of Earth revolving around the Sun, its tilt and ____ explain the seasons.

a)

roving magnetic pole

b)

the changing magnetic field

c)

varying angles of sunlight

d)

distance from the Sun

210.

A solstice is the day when the Sun reaches its greatest distance

a)

north of the equator.

b)

south of the equator.

c)

from the Earth.

d)

from the galactic center.

211.

Which statement best describes an equinox?

a)

when there are equal amounts of solar-angled radiation

b)

equal nighttime hours all over

c)

when the Sun appears directly over the equator

d)

equinoxes only happens once a year

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