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EAL ELEC3/04a: Planning/preparing/designing - OSG required

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statutory requirements is most important when planning an installation?

a)

Health and Safety Act 1974

b)

BS 7671 Wiring Regulations

c)

Building Regulation 2000

d)

Electricity at Work Regulation 1989

2.

Which of the following is an important consideration regarding the movement of vehicles and adequate flood lighting?

a)

safe access and egress

b)

training facilities

c)

adequate welfare facilities

d)

a safety policy

3.

According to the Electricity at Work Act 1989 when can you carry out a ‘live’ repair?

a)

only if you are supervised

b)

only if you feel that you are ‘competent’ to do so

c)

never, you are not allowed to

d)

only if you are experienced

4.

As fitted, drawings form part of the:

a)

fitting element

b)

timetabling element

c)

scheduling element

d)

completion element

5.

Band 1 and Band 2 cabling can be enclosed in the same enclosure if:

a)

they are insulated to the highest voltage present

b)

at 90° to each other

c)

separated by metal divisions

d)

wrapped around each other

6.

What kind of drawing is this?

a)

block

b)

schematic

c)

detail

d)

layout

7.

Which document details the duties of employers to employees in providing a safe place of work?

a)

IET Wiring Regulations

b)

Building Regulations

c)

Electricity at Work Regulations

d)

Health and Safety at Work Act.

8.

Ignoring BS 7671 would most likely cause:

a)

an electrical fire

b)

a real fire

c)

a solid fuel fire

d)

a gas fire.

9.

Removing all elements of electrical supply to a piece of equipment in order to ensure the safety of those working on it is one definition of:

a)

emergency switching

b)

functional switching

c)

safe isolation

d)

switching for mechanical maintenance.

10.

Cutting off the full load electrical supply to a piece of equipment in order to ensure the safety of those working on it is one definition of:

a)

emergency switching

b)

functional switching

c)

switching for isolation

d)

switching for mechanical maintenance.

11.

The rapid disconnection of the electrical supply to remove or prevent danger is one definition of:

a)

emergency switching

b)

functional switching

c)

switching for isolation

d)

switching for mechanical maintenance.

12.

Switching electrical equipment in normal service is:

a)

emergency switching

b)

functional switching

c)

switching for isolation

d)

switching for mechanical maintenance.

13.

Looking at the diagram, the numbers 2, 3 and 4 represent:

a)

service meter, meter tails, service fuse

b)

service head, meter tails, service fuse

c)

service head, service meter, service fuse.

14.

The maximum working temperature of PVC/PVC thermoplastic is:

a)

40°C

b)

50°C

c)

60°C

d)

70°C.

15.

A light fitting or small spot light must be fixed at an adequate distance from:

a)

combustible material

b)

combustible walls

c)

combustible ceilings

d)

combustible joists.

16.

Which of the following CANNOT be used as an isolator?

a)

switch

b)

circuit-breaker

c)

semi-conductor (electronic device)

d)

switch disconnector.

17.

What equipment type does this symbol relate to:

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV.

18.

Three factors that would affect the choice of wiring system would include:

a)

temperature

b)

animals and plants

c)

architect

d)

impact damage

19.

Additional protection applies to:

a)

cables located within metal enclosures

b)

SWA

c)

cables embedded >50 mm

d)

cables embedded <50 mm

e)

special locations

20.

What is the normal size and rating of a lighting cable and protective device?

a)

6 mm² and 6 A

b)

2.5 mm² and 6 A

c)

4 mm² and 6 A

d)

1.5 mm² and 6 A

21.

Equipment installed in a flour mill needs to be protected against entry of particles such as:

a)

dust stopped through IP protection

b)

dust stopped through fault protection

c)

dust stopped through basic protection

d)

dust stopped through additional protection

22.

The protection provided by insulating live parts is called:

a)

extraneous conductive parts

b)

basic protection

c)

exposed conductive parts

d)

fault protection

23.

The typical cabling for use in electrical installations in domestic premises would be:

a)

SWA

b)

PVC/PVC

c)

MICC

d)

PVC single

24.

Ladder racking is a system for:

a)

allowing access to storage racks

b)

allowing multiple section extension ladders

c)

supporting armoured cables

d)

supporting vertical cable basket systems

25.

The type of wiring for use in a factory with high ambient temperatures is:

a)

PVC insulated and sheathed

b)

PVC insulated cables in galvanized conduit

c)

mineral insulated metal sheathed

d)

rubber insulated in PVC conduit

26.

Mineral insulated cables are sometimes provided with an overall covering of PVC to:

a)

make the cable waterproof

b)

protect the cable from sunlight and harmful rays

c)

prevent corrosion of the sheath

d)

make the cable suitable for use in low ambient temperatures

27.

Where would it be unsuitable to use a rate of rise temperature type heat detector?

a)

kitchen

b)

dining room

c)

hallway

d)

garage

28.

An appropriate wiring method for an underground feed to a remote building would be a:

a)

metal conduit installation

b)

trunking and tray installation

c)

PVC cables

d)

PVC/SWA cables

29.

An appropriate wiring system for a three-phase industrial installation would be:

a)

PVC cables

b)

PVC conduit

c)

one that meets the requirements of Part 2 of the IET Regulations

d)

one that meets the requirements of Part 5 of the IET Regulations

30.

Which wiring system is non-ageing and will ensure that the space between its conductors is kept the same even if flattened?

a)

mineral insulated

b)

SWA

c)

PVC/PVC

d)

PVC singles

31.

Which conductor uses the principle of total internal refraction?

a)

FP cable

b)

fibre-optic

c)

mineral insulated

d)

PVC/PVC flat profile cable

32.

An alternative to mineral insulated cable that does not require specialized tools would be:

a)

FP

b)

fibre-optic

c)

SWA

d)

PVC flex

33.

Which of the following is the most appropriate containment system for industrial high current applications?

a)

busbar systems

b)

flexible conduit

c)

cable tray

d)

power track

34.

Which of the following would be most appropriate regarding offsetting the adverse effects of vibration?

a)

PVC conduit

b)

plastic conduit

c)

metal conduit

d)

flexible conduit

35.

Which of the following apply to electrical equipment in bathrooms?

a)

supplementary bonding

b)

index protection

c)

earthing

d)

additional protection

36.

The maximum floor area that a ring circuit can feed is:

a)

50 m²

b)

75 m²

c)

100 m²

d)

25 m²

37.

Combining a copper cable with an aluminium crimp will result in:

a)

increased fault current

b)

lower termination resistance

c)

dissimilar metal corrosion

d)

an explosion

38.

Single core non-armoured cables (apart from bonding conductors) must always be installed:

a)

in free air partially covered

b)

in conduit or trunking

c)

secured with plastic clips

d)

in cavity walls

39.

A non-fused spur from a ring may feed:

a)

any number of socket outlets

b)

any number of fixed appliances

c)

one single or twin socket outlet

d)

two fixed appliances

40.

An A1 type circuit is associated with:

a)

2.5 mm with 30/32 A fuse

b)

4 mm radial with protective device

c)

1.5 mm radial with 20 A fuse

d)

4 mm ring with 20 A fuse

41.

Ten 1.0 mm single conductors are to be drawn into a conduit. Use Table E3 of the On-Site Guide to find the sum of the cable factors for these cables.

a)

16

b)

30

c)

160

d)

300

42.

A three-metre length of conduit with two bends is to contain the ten 1.0 mm cables. Determine the size of conduit required using Table E4 of the On-Site Guide.

a)

16 mm

b)

20 mm

c)

25 mm

d)

32 mm

43.

Ten 2.5 mm single conductors are to be drawn into a conduit. Use Table E3 of the On-Site Guide to find the sum of the cable factors for these cables.

a)

16

b)

30

c)

160

d)

300

44.

A three-metre length of conduit with two bends is to contain the ten 2.5 mm cables. Determine the size of conduit required using Table E4 of the On-Site Guide.

a)

16 mm

b)

20 mm

c)

25 mm

d)

32 mm

45.

Ten 1.5 mm solid PVC cables are to be drawn into trunking. Use Table E5 in the On-Site Guide find the sum of the cable factors for these cables.

a)

80

b)

60

c)

40

d)

20

46.

Ten 2.5 mm solid PVC cables are to be drawn into trunking. Use Table E5 in the On-Site Guide to find the sum of the cable factors for these cables.

a)

116

b)

117

c)

118

d)

119

47.

Refer to Tables E1 and E2 of the On-Site Guide and by applying cable and conduit factors, work out how many 4 mm² cables can be inserted into a 25 mm piece of conduit used in a short straight run.

a)

14

b)

13

c)

12

d)

11

48.

Additional protection is applicable to which of the following?

a)

HRC fuse

b)

re-wireable fuse

c)

RCBO

d)

CB

49.

Which of the following will not operate if the line conductor bypasses the load and shorts out against the neutral conductor?

a)

HRC fuse

b)

RCD

c)

RCBO

d)

CB

50.

An Industrial welder would need to be protected by:

a)

an RCD

b)

a Type C circuit-breaker

c)

a Type D circuit-breaker

d)

a HBC fuse

51.

Coordination of fuses during fault or overload conditions is known as:

a)

diversity

b)

diverging

c)

discrimination

d)

deviation

52.

A circuit-breaker has two modes of operation:

a)

overload due to thermal effect or short circuit due to a magnetic trip

b)

overload due to a magnetic trip or short circuit due to thermal effect

c)

overload due to a chemical reaction or short circuit due to a magnetic trip

d)

overload due to a thermal trip or chemical reaction due to a magnetic trip.

53.

A CB rated at 40 A will trip:

a)

only when a short circuit occurs

b)

only when an overload occurs

c)

when an overload, short circuit or earth fault occurs

d)

when 41 A flows through it.

54.

An RCD rated at 30 mA will trip:

a)

when enough current flows to earth

b)

through an earth fault or an overload

c)

through an overload, short circuit or earth fault

d)

when 30 mA flows.

55.

What type of CB is associated with commercial applications especially fluorescent lighting?

a)

Type 3

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

Type D

56.

Which device will detect an imbalance between line and neutral, overloads and all types of overcurrent faults?

a)

RCD

b)

RCBO

c)

CB

d)

BBC

57.

A fuse protects:

a)

the person

b)

the switch

c)

the cable

d)

the load

58.

An RCD protects:

a)

the person

b)

the switch

c)

the cable

d)

the load

59.

A value that ensures that a circuit-breaker can withstand a fault current is known as:

a)

breaking capacity

b)

rating

c)

thermal constraint

d)

shock protection

60.

Which earthing system is not recommended for petrol stations, caravans and marina pontoons?

a)

TN-S

b)

TT

c)

TNC

d)

PME

61.

What is the maximum tabulated value of Zₑ for a TN-C-S system?

(a)  

62.

Which earthing system due to the possibility of high Zₑ values must have additional protection?

a)

TN-S

b)

TT

c)

TN-C-S

d)

PME

63.

Which uncommon earthing system is used in hospitals?

a)

TN-S

b)

IT

c)

TNC

d)

PME

64.

What supply system uses a PEN conductor?

a)

TT

b)

TN-S

c)

IT

d)

TN-C-S

65.

Which earthing system uses an earth electrode and is common in rural areas?

a)

TN-S

b)

TT

c)

TN-C-S

d)

PME

66.

The metalwork that does not form part of an electrical installation is called:

a)

extraneous conductive parts

b)

basic protection

c)

exposed conductive parts

d)

fault protection

67.

Which of the following is an extraneous conductive part?

a)

metal casing of a washing machine

b)

metal switch back plate

c)

metal casing of an electric motor

d)

metal casing of a gas pipe

68.

A current that goes beyond the rated value in an otherwise healthy circuit is one definition of:

a)

earthing

b)

bonding

c)

overload

d)

short circuit

69.

What is the maximum disconnection time for TT earthing systems > 32 A?

a)

5 s

b)

1 s

c)

0.2 s

d)

0.4 s

70.

A TN-S earthing system operates through the:

a)

earthing electrode

b)

PEN conductor

c)

supply cable armouring

d)

earth itself

71.

Earthing ensures that:

a)

a low resistance path, will safeguard that the PFC is high and ensure disconnection is quick

b)

a high resistance path, will safeguard that the PFC is high and ensure disconnection is quick

c)

a low resistance path, will safeguard that the PFC is low and ensure disconnection is slow

d)

a high resistance path, will safeguard that the PFC is low and ensure disconnection is quick

72.

Which of the following symbols represents the external earth loop impedance value?

a)

Zx

b)

Zs

c)

Ze

d)

ZT

73.

Which of the following symbols represents the total earth loop impedance value?

a)

Zx

b)

Zs

c)

Ze

d)

ZT

74.

The protection provided by equipotential bonding and automatic disconnection of the supply is called:

a)

extraneous conductive parts

b)

basic protection

c)

exposed conductive parts

d)

fault protection

75.

Equipotential bonding is carried out to:

a)

earth all equipment

b)

earth all exposed conductive parts

c)

link all extraneous conductive parts

d)

stop fuses operating

76.

Which earthing system changes line to earth faults to line to neutral faults?

a)

TN-S

b)

TT

c)

TN-C-S

d)

IT

77.

A TN-S earthing system will follow which path?

a)

CPC, main earthing terminal, supply armouring back to the transformer

b)

earth electrode, CPC, main earthing terminal back to the transformer

c)

main earthing terminal, CPC, PEN conductor, back to the transformer

d)

CPC, high impedance load, main earthing terminal back to the transformer.

78.

Which earthing system has to be earthed itself along its various supply routes?

a)

TN-S

b)

TT

c)

PME

d)

IT

79.

What device is described here: The ‘It’ rating must be equal to or above the normal operating current of the circuit?

a)

a. a fuse

b)

b. fuse-board

c)

c. distribution board

d)

d. junction box

80.

What device is described here: The ‘It’ rating must be equal to or above the normal current carrying capacity of the protective device?

a)

a. cable

b)

b. switch

c)

c. load

d)

d. consumer unit

81.

Calculate the total current demand for a domestic lighting circuit if it contains 20 × 100 W GLS filaments and the factor for diversity is 66%.

a)

a. 7.8 A

b)

b. 8.69 A

c)

c. 6 A

d)

d. 5.7 A

82.

When cabling is routed through insulation, the rated:

a)

a. current carrying ability will be decreased

b)

b. current carrying ability will be increased

c)

c. current carrying ability will stay exactly the same

d)

d. current carrying ability will be doubled per metre

83.

If voltage drop in a final circuit is found to be excessive the corrective action is to:

a)

a. limit the time the load is connected

b)

b. boost the voltage through a transformer

c)

c. increase the size of the supply cable

d)

d. decrease the size of the supply cable

84.

Which of the following is correct regarding earth fault loop impedance?

a)

a. Zs can be obtained by enquiry

b)

b. Ze can be obtained by enquiry

c)

c. Zs can be obtained by calculation

d)

d. Zs can be obtained by measurement

85.

One disadvantage of using the tabulated values of Ze in the On-Site Guide is:

a)

they are hard to read

b)

the values could be high

c)

the values are unreliable

d)

the values could be low

86.

When checking earth loop impedance values which of the following can be used directly without correction?

a)

BS 7671

b)

wiring regulations

c)

GN3

d)

On-Site Guide

87.

A domestic cooker rated at a maximum load of 60 A is controlled by a cooker control unit, which does not have a 13 A socket outlet. Using Table A1 of the On-Site Guide, and after allowing for diversity, calculate the design current.

a)

20 A

b)

25 A

c)

18 A

d)

30 A

88.

Correction factors as applied to de-rate system cables are:

a)

thermal insulation, grouping, re-wireable fuses and ambient temperature

b)

outside insulation, grouping, re-wireable fuses and ambient temperature

c)

using SWA cable, grouping, re-wireable fuses and ambient temperature

d)

thermal insulation, bare wires, re-wireable fuses and ambient temperature

89.

Which of the following should be recorded regarding the PFC?

a)

the prospective short circuit current

b)

the prospective earth fault current

c)

the highest value PFC at the point of supply

d)

the higher value PFC at the furthermost point of the circuit

90.

Why is thermal constraint particularly important when installing with PVC flat profile cable?

a)

it is cheap in comparison to other types

b)

its CPC is smaller than the live conductors

c)

its CPC is bigger than the live conductors

d)

its CPC does not come with earthing sleeving

91.

To ensure the effective operation of the overcurrent protective devices, the earth fault loop path must have:

a)

a 230 V supply

b)

very low resistance

c)

fuses or CBs in the live conductor

d)

very high resistance

92.

Shock protection ensures that:

a)

a. the protective device operates within a specified time

b)

b. the actual loop impedance values are less than specified

c)

c. the PFC is low enough to operate the protective devices in time

d)

d. the circuit is switched off in time.

93.

According to IET Regulation 411.3.2.2 all final circuits not exceeding 32 A in a building supplied with a 230 V TN supply shall have a maximum disconnection time not exceeding:

a)

a. 0.2 s

b)

b. 0.4 s

c)

c. 5.0 s

d)

d. unlimited.

94.

The current demand of ten 65W fluorescent tubes connected to a 230 V supply is:

a)

a. 5.08 mA

b)

b. 5.09 A

c)

c. 150 W

d)

d. 650 W.

95.

Use the On-Site Guide (Appendix A) to calculate the assumed current demand of a cooker having 4–3 kW boiling rings and a 2 kW oven connected to a 230 V supply. The cooker control unit includes a socket outlet.

a)

a. 60.86 A

b)

b. 30.26 A

c)

c. 25.25 A

d)

d. 10 A.

96.

The total current demand of a lighting circuit in an individual household is calculated to be 5 A. The current demand applying the diversity factor given in Table A2 of the On-Site Guide will be:

a)

a. 3.3 A

b)

b. 3.75 A

c)

c. 4.5 A

d)

d. 5.0 A

97.

The volt drop in mV per ampere per metre of a two-core single-phase 6.0 mm cable as given in Table F5 (ii) of the On-Site Guide is:

a)

a. 18

b)

b. 11

c)

c. 7.3

d)

d. 4.4.

98.

The volt drop in mV per ampere per metre of a two-core single-phase 10.0 mm cable as given in Table F5 (ii) of the On-Site Guide or Table 3.13 of this book is:

a)

a. 18

b)

b. 11

c)

c. 7.3

d)

d. 4.4.

99.

With respect to the volt drop values, which of the following applies?

a)

volt drop value is less if cable size is increased

b)

volt drop value is bigger if cable size is increased

c)

volt drop value is less if cable size is decreased

d)

volt drop value is less if cable size is bigger