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Data Cloud cert prep

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Data Cloud can be used for? (Select all that apply)

a)

Harmonizing data into a dtandard data model

b)

Unifying profiles

c)

Disaster recovery tool

d)

Golden record creation

2.

Which standard profiles can generate segments and activate data in Data Cloud? Select all that Apply

a)

Data Cloud Marketing Admin

b)

Data Cloud for Marketing Manager

c)

Data Cloud Admin

d)

Data Cloud User

e)

Data Cloud Data Aware Specialist

3.

Which permissions are required to expose a Salesforce Object to Data Cloud? Select all that apply

a)

View all

b)

Ready

c)

Modify

d)

Create

4.

What are the core pillars of Data Cloud capabilities?

a)

Connect, Harmonize, Unify, Analyze and Predict, Act

b)

Import, Export, Query, Copy, Paste

c)

Ingest, Augment, Network, Contain, Broadcast

d)


Connect, Transpose, Unify, Accelerate, Act

5.

Which are benefits of using data spaces? Choose two.

a)

Manage user access to designated data spaces using permission sets.

b)


Cross-brand unification.

c)

Ensures your data doesn't cross regional boundaries.

d)

Segregate your data, metadata, and processes by brand, region, or department.

6.

Which of these are valid use cases for Data Cloud’s capabilities? Choose three.

a)

Gain insights on data streams in real time and trigger follow-up actions.

b)

Build complex segments of unified individuals with related data from multiple platforms.

c)


Design, deploy, and deliver campaigns to any region with true 1:1 content recommendations.

d)

Aggregate data from multiple systems to understand a customer’s true lifetime value across multiple accounts and devices.

e)

Build simple segments of hierarchical identities with disparate data from one legacy system.

7.

Which of these are key differentiators of Salesforce Data Cloud? Choose three.

a)


Replaces the need to manage data anywhere else in your organization

b)

User-friendly interface and built on Lightning

c)

Focuses primarily on the financial services industry data

d)

Integrates easily with Salesforce products and AppExchange

e)


Uses the Customer 360 Data Model

8.

What does “Connect” mean as a capability?

a)

Identify and match individuals to create a unified profile.

b)

Create smart segments and activate them anywhere.

c)

Embed data with intelligence and make it available to analytics systems.

d)

Synchronize data from Salesforce and external data sources and transform data when needed.

9.

Which statements are true of Data Cloud platform functionality? Choose three.

a)

It's an open platform that allows you to integrate external systems and data sources.

b)

Data is only ingested in batches.

c)


Data is transformed, cleaned, and harmonized into the standard data model.

d)


Data storage has a maximum threshold.

e)

Data can be activated in Sales Cloud, Marketing Cloud Engagement, Service Cloud, and other Salesforce clouds.

10.

What does “Unify” mean as a capability of Data Cloud?

a)

Consume or activate data to any cloud and any application.

b)

Connect, match, and reconcile customer data.

c)

Create smart segments and activate them anywhere.

d)

Embed data with intelligence and make it available to analytics systems.

11.

The overall system that governs a set of common data model objects, how to describe them, and their relationships.

(a)  

12.

A data source brought into Data Cloud.

(a)  

13.

A vast pool of raw data whose purpose is not yet defined.

(a)  

14.

A standardized piece of information about a DMO.

(a)  

15.

Which are data ethics best practices? Choose three.

a)


Collect and use only what you need.

b)

Treat sensitive data carefully.

c)


Choose third-party partners carefully.

d)


Avoid collecting sensitive data.

e)

Collect large amounts of data and determine how to use it later.

16.

check the order

a)

a

b)

b

17.

Which Permission Set can map data to the data model and create data streams, identity resolution rulesets, and calculated insights?

a)

IT manager

b)

Marketing Manager

c)

Data Cloud Data-Aware Specialist

d)


Data Cloud User

18.

Which tab in the navigation manages the data coming into Data Cloud?

a)

Segments

b)

Data Streams

c)

Activation

d)

Data Model

19.

When creating a data stream, what are the categories you must select from? Choose three.

a)

Profile

b)

Engagement

c)

Other

d)

First Name

20.

What best practices lead to success when determining which data to initially bring in to Data Cloud? Choose two.

a)


Complete a thorough data discovery phase.

b)

Consider only data necessary to accomplish current use cases.

c)

Bring in all of your data and sort it later.

d)


Bring in data that overlaps first.

21.

An inventory of all data sources.

(a)  

22.

Identifying sources of data that are relevant to what you want to accomplish.

(a)  

23.

View and validate the data that exists in your DMO's DLO's and Calculated Insights.

(a)  

24.

A portable and customized bundle of packagable metadata, created with Data Cloud.

(a)  

25.

A container for custom objects and metadata created with Package Manager.

(a)  

26.

The connections and associated data ingested into Data Cloud.

(a)  

27.

What is used to customize and organize Data Cloud Unified Individual Record Pages for surfacing insights?

a)

Salesforce Metadata API

b)


Sharing Rules

c)


Lightning App Builder

d)

Lightning Report Builder

e)

Salesforce Flow

28.

Managed Package

a)

Contains a namespace

b)

Typically used by ISVs on AppExchange

c)

Upgradeable and supported

29.

Unmanaged Package

a)

Commonly used for one-time migration of metadata

b)

Not upgradeable or supported

c)

Developer has no control over the components once installed

30.

Identify a typical use case for customizing and organizing the Data Cloud Unified Individual Record Page

a)

You want only specific teams to view a specific record page.

b)


You need to quickly surface insights relevant to your team.

c)

You want to reduce potential metadata duplications.

d)


You want to trigger an action when a change is made.

31.

Which Data Cloud actions are available via Flow? Choose three.

a)

Publish Calculated Insights

b)

Map Data Model Object Fields

c)

Publish Segments

d)

Trigger Identity Resolution Job

e)

Publish Streaming Insights

32.

Which is a benefit of using a starter data bundle?

a)

It bundles up all of your data into a managed package.

b)

The data is pre-mapped to the Customer 360 Data Model and can be customized.

c)

It automatically assigns permission sets to your users.

d)

It identifies relevant data sources that you should consider using.

33.

Data modeling occurs after which step when establishing the data model in the Data Cloud platform?

a)

Activation

b)

Ingestion

c)

Segmentation

d)

Identity Resolution

34.

Put the data modeling steps in the correct order:

a)

A. Create an inventory of all data streams.

b)

B. Assess how data should be normalized.

c)

C. Map to the data model.

d)

D. Configure the DMO relationships of the data model.

35.

The object that underpins the data stream.

(a)  

36.

The target destination for records from the data streams.




(a)  

37.

The system that provides data stewardship and governance across the enterprise.

(a)  

38.

Consolidates data from data sources through data lake objects.

(a)  

39.

How is the Individual Object referenced in other DMOs within a data model?

a)


Via Individual.Id Attribute

b)


Via Contact Point Identifier

c)

Via Party Identification Object

d)

Via Party Attribute

40.

What do you do when datasets have fields that align to one DMO and another portion aligns to another DMO?

a)

Denormalize the data

b)

Create formula fields

c)

Use a subscriber key value

d)

Transpose the single records to multiple records

41.

What are some of the supported ways that data from CRM can be brought into Data Cloud? Choose three.

a)

CRM Objects

b)

Data Bundles

c)

CRM Reports

d)

Data Kits

e)

Big Objects

42.

When setting up the data source object or schema corresponding to the data set that you’re importing, which category would you select when bringing sales order data?

a)

Profile Data

b)

Party Data

c)

Other Data

d)

Engagement Data

43.

How frequently can CRM data be refreshed in Data Cloud?

a)

Every 12 hours

b)

Every 24 hours

c)

Every hour

d)

Every 15 minutes

44.

Can an object be ingested more than once?

a)

Yes

b)

No

45.

Which type of data model is ideal for ingesting into Data Cloud?

a)

Normalized Data Model

b)


Fragmented Data Model

c)

Denormalized Data Model

d)


Standardized Data Model

46.

Which of the following terms refers to a repository of all types of enterprise data, including raw copies of source system data and transformed data?

a)

Database

b)

Data Lake

c)

Metadata

47.

Which of the following use cases is intended for Data Cloud?

a)

Sending marketing communications

b)

Personalizing website experiences

c)

Building smarter audience segments

48.

Which of the following Data Cloud use cases is most applicable when tracking and following a customer’s communication preferences?

a)

Consent Management

b)

Data Unification

c)

Delivery Management

49.

Which of the following ethical best practices refers to limiting your use of data, especially when it comes to demographic, socioeconomic, behavioral, and transactional data?

a)

Treat sensitive data carefully.

b)

Collect and use only what you need.

c)


Use and collect individual information appropriately.

50.

The process of mapping ingested data into the Customer 360 Data Model

(a)  

51.

The location where a segment's data is being sent during activation

(a)  

52.

The connections and associated data ingested into Data Cloud

(a)  

53.

The ability to query data and split it out into groups based on different attributes or characteristics

(a)  

54.

Data modeling occurs after which step when establishing the data model in the Data Cloud platform?

a)

Activation

b)

Ingestion

c)

Segmentation

d)

Identity Resolution


55.

What reconciliation rule specifies that the value from the most recently updated record must be selected for inclusion in the unified profile?

a)

Last updated

b)

Source sequence

c)

Most occurring

d)

Oldest record

56.

When using match rules with Individual Attributes and contact points, you risk creating combinations of records when the same contact point (such as a shared business phone number) is used across several individuals. What should you do to prevent this from happening?

a)

Include many attributes and contact points.

b)

Avoid using match rules with Individual Attributes and contact points, since this is not a recommended practice.

c)

Set up match rules with a single connected contact point.

d)

Ensure names are included into the rules.

57.

After the Identity Resolution process completes, what should you examine to validate the Identity Resolution ruleset outcome?

a)

Last Modified Date attribute

b)

Bi-directional ruleset

c)

Resolution Summary

d)

Known Unified Profiles figure

58.

Move the steps of the Identity Resolution process into the correct order:

a)

A Profile data across data sources.

b)

B Configure match rules.

c)

C Configure reconciliation rules.

d)

D Validate results.

59.

The unification process recognizes and matches data belonging to individual humans. Which of the following is the end result of this process?

a)

The matched data appears as records mapped to Individual Data Model Objects (DMO).

b)

This data produces a map allowing your organization to pinpoint all its customers’ locations.

c)

This data produces a map allowing your organization to pinpoint all its customers’ locations at any given point in time.

d)

The matched data creates within Marketing Cloud a separate object for each piece of data from customers.

60.

Which match rules are available to link multiple records into a unified customer profile? Choose three.

a)

Exact Device and Name

b)

Exact org ID

c)

Exact name and email

d)

Exact email

e)

Exact phone number

61.

Which of the following are true of match rules? Choose three.

a)

They establish criteria for relating source Individual records to each other.

b)

They produce a record called Unified Individual.

c)

They make use of most standard and custom attributes mapped to the data model.

d)

They can only be used with standard attributes mapped to the data model.

62.

Which of the following are true of anonymous profiles? Choose two.

a)

Once at least one known individual profile is matched with an anonymous record, that record will be marked as known going forward.

b)

A source profile without the Is Anonymous field mapped on the Individual DMO is always considered anonymous.

c)

For anonymous profiles to be counted correctly, the value of the Is Anonymous field must be set to 0.

d)

They’re excluded from the known profile utilization consumption.

63.

Fuzzy match methods are not available for fields from which object?

a)

Individual

b)

Account

c)

Contact Point Phone

d)

Contact Point Address

64.

Records from your source data streams that Data Cloud reviews to identify matching profiles.

(a)  

65.

Stores information related to unified profiles and can be related to many unified contact points.

(a)  

66.

Contains match and reconciliation rules that tell identity resolution how to match and reconcile your source profiles.

(a)  

67.

Customer data that has been reconciled across multiple sources as a single record using identity resolution rulesets.

(a)  

68.

How data is processed and reviewed during matching.

(a)  

69.

Tells Data cloud which profiles to unify during the identity resolution process.

(a)  

70.

A metric that shows how source profiles are grouped from unified profiles.

(a)  

71.

  1. Data Ethics Best Practices

  2. Use and collect individual information appropriately.

  3. Provide clear exchange of value for data.

  4. Treat sensitive data carefully.

  5. Collect and use only what you need.

  6. Choose third-party partners carefully.



(a)  

72.

Which step in a segment configuration defines the target entity on which the segment builds?

a)

Publish Schedule

b)

Segment On

c)

Population

d)

Containers

73.

Which attributes in the attribute library have a one-to-many relationship with the segment target?

a)

Related attributes

b)

Direct attributes

c)

Profile attributes

d)

Engagement attributes

74.

Attributes with what data type support Value Suggestion?

a)

Number

b)

Text

c)

Date

d)

All types


75.

What Entity type can be used to "Segment On" in Segmentation?

a)

Profile

b)

Engagement

c)

Other

d)

Profile and Engagement

e)

Profile and Engagement and Other

76.

How can you view details on Segment Membership and who are all in a specific segment?

a)

Open the Segmentation Canvas and see details on who is in a specific Segment

b)

Download the Segment Membership data via the ‘Download’ feature

c)

It is not possible to see details on Segment Membership

d)

View the Segment Membership DMO data via Data Explorer

77.

Which Data Cloud feature helps calculate reusable attributes like Customer Lifetime Value and Customer Satisfaction Score?

a)

Segments

b)

Calculated Insights

c)

Einstein Score

d)


Tableau Connector

78.

Which type of insight is best suited to analyze clickstream data every five minutes?

a)

Calculated Insights

b)

Streaming Insights

c)

Einstein Insights

d)

Insightful Insights

79.

When are Activation Targets created?

a)

Before setting up an activation

b)

Before creating a segment

c)

After setting up an activation

d)


After publishing a segment

80.

What are the types of activations in Data Cloud? Choose two.

a)

Enablement activations

b)

Segment activations

c)

Connector activations

d)

Data actions

81.

Where do you define the location where you want to use your segment?

a)

Calculated Insights

b)

Segment

c)

Activation Target

d)

Activation

82.

How are Calculated Insights added to an Activation?

a)

As an activation target

b)

As an additional attribute

c)

As a contact point

d)

When you set the activation membership

83.

Which are Activation best practices? Choose two.

a)

If you have data from multiple data sources in Data Cloud, default to using the Unified Individual as the Activation Membership.

b)

Always share your data with a third-party partner.

c)

If you have a large number of Data Cloud audiences, publish at the same time each day.

d)

If you have a large number of Data Cloud audiences, stagger your scheduled publish times.

84.

What is the difference between filtering in a segment and an activation?

a)

In a segment, filters narrow your audience. In an activation, filters narrow down relevant values with related attributes that personalize messages.

b)

In an activation, filters broaden your audience. In a segment, filters provide more relevant values with related attributes that personalize messages.

c)

In an activation, filters narrow your audience. In a segment, filters narrow down relevant values with related attributes that personalize messages.

d)

In a segment, filters narrow your audience. In an activation, filters broaden relevant values with related attributes that personalize messages.

85.

Which are examples of Data Cloud objects you can share via data shares? Choose three.


a)

Data lake object

b)

Data model object

c)

Zero Copy object

d)

Permission sets object

e)

Calculated insight object

86.

Which three permission sets allow a user to manage and set up data streams?

a)

Data Cloud Marketing Admin, Data Cloud Marketing Manager, Data Cloud Marketing Specialist

b)

Data Cloud Admin, Data Cloud Marketing Admin, Data Cloud Data Aware Specialist

c)

Data Cloud User, Data Cloud Admin, Data Cloud Marketing Manager

87.

What categories can a user configure for a data stream?

a)

Profile, Engagement, Other

b)

First Party, Third Party

c)

Contact Point, Individual, Party

88.

Which of the following is a valid use of implementing multiple Data Spaces?

a)

Your data has residency requirements, and you need to ensure data does not cross regional boundaries.

b)

Your business has multiple brands and users need to work on data only in the context of their brand.

c)

Your goal is to run analytics across multiple brands and unify segmentation.

89.

What can be packaged using data kits in Data Cloud?

a)

Test data, sample data

b)

Identity Resolution Rulesets

c)

Data Streams, Data Models, Calculated Insights

90.

A logical partitioning of data within a single DC instance

(a)  

91.

Used to package data streams, model objects and insights. Used to package and redeploy assets.

(a)  

92.

Contains all functionality with Data Cloud. Requires Salesforce administrator role to be able to access Data Cloud Setup

(a)  

93.

A data specialist wishes to aggregate data from a data lake object and then split the results into two separate data lake objects. What tool should they use?

a)

Streaming Insight

b)

Calculated Insight

c)

Batch Data Transform

94.

A data specialist, from a large retail brand that operates in 80 countries worldwide, wishes to take their customer’s country data and derive the region from it. What action should they take?

a)

Create a data stream with a mapping of the country with its region, and create a relationship with the individual via the country.

b)

Use formula fields to automatically classify a country to its region.

c)

Create a streaming data transform to automatically calculate the region of the country when the data is ingested.

95.

Which of the following attributes are valid to map to party identification as a unique identifier?

a)

Order number

b)

Birthdate

c)

Driver’s license number

96.

Which of the following identity resolution functions can be adjusted if the number of unified profiles is much higher than originally anticipated?

a)

Reconciliation rules

b)

Match rules

c)

Create a new ruleset

97.

Which of the following serves as the connection between the source data and unified objects?

a)

Unified Individuals

b)


Unified Link Objects

c)

Identity Resolution Rulesets

98.

Which feature contains match and reconciliation rules that specify how to link multiple sources of data into a unified profile?

a)

Rulesets

b)


Ruleset Jobs

c)

Unified Profiles

99.

Which metric is most helpful in determining the cleanliness of your data sources when using Identity Resolution?

a)

Summary by Source

b)

Consolidation Rate

c)

Profile Explorer

100.

Identity Resolution requires which type of relationship in the data model for Contact Point objects?

a)

Many:1

b)


1:1

c)

Many:Many

101.

Your company uses Salesforce Data Cloud for identity resolution. When creating a segment to target high-value customers, which of the following is the most appropriate segment target object?

a)


Account

b)

Unified Individual

c)

Individual

102.

Which data model object (DMO) is most relevant for analyzing the historical membership of a segment in Salesforce Data Cloud?

a)


The Latest Segment Membership DMO

b)

A custom data model object you created for the segment

c)

The Historical Segment Membership DMO

103.

You want to target a new audience similar to your existing customers who frequently buy camping equipment. Which type of Salesforce Data Cloud segment is best suited for this purpose?

a)

Einstein Segment

b)

Standard Segment

c)

Einstein Lookalike Segment

104.

While building a segment on the Data Cloud canvas, you want to filter based on a customer's recent purchase history. What type of attribute is most appropriate to use?

a)

Related Attribute

b)

Direct Attribute

c)

Calculated Insight

105.

A business wants to improve service by alerting support when a customer visits multiple troubleshooting pages within a specific time frame. Which Data Cloud target should they use to automate creating a support case?

a)

Data Model Object

b)

Webhook

c)

Salesforce Platform Event

106.

If a customer searches for an "installation manual" after a purchase, how should a company configure Data Cloud to automatically send installation instructions?

a)

Salesforce CRM Enrichment

b)

Marketing Cloud Data Action Target

c)

Data Action with Flow Builder

107.

A company wants to automate a process when data records change in Data Cloud. What should they create in Salesforce to achieve this automation?

a)

Flow in Data Cloud

b)

Custom Field

c)

Custom Object

108.

To resolve webhook data action target errors where events aren't coming through, what is the first thing you should check?

a)

Confirm a secret key is present.

b)

Generate a new API name for the webhook.

c)

Check the data record change event selection.

109.

Remember the order

a)

A. Connect

b)

B. Harmonize

c)

C. Unify

d)

D. Analyze and predict

e)

E. Activate

110.

What Data Cloud can be used for? (select all that apply)

a)

Presenting Data through a Common Data Model

b)

Backup and disaster recovery

c)

Generating a golden Record

d)

Unifying customer profiles

e)

Reverse ETL

111.

Which Standard permission sets enable generation of segments and activation of data in data cloud? (Select all that apply)

a)

Data Cloud User

b)

Data Cloud for Marketing Admin

c)

Data Cloud for Marketing data Aware Specialist

d)

Data Cloud for Marketing Manager

112.

What object permissions are required to enable data ingestion from Salesforce CRM? (Select all that apply)

a)

Read

b)

View all

c)

Edit

d)

Create

e)

Modify all

113.

Which data sets are ingested via Marketing Cloud starter Data Bundle?

a)

MobilePush

b)

Email Studio

c)

Data Extensions

d)

MobileConnect

e)

system Data Views

114.

Data Cloud is

a)

Data Lake

b)

Data Lakehouse

c)

Data Warehouse

d)

CRM