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Bio-107-Lab First Lab Practical

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

how would you describe the location of a bruise on the front right lower leg?

a)

anterior, proximal to knee

b)

posterior, distal to hip

c)

anterior, distal to knee

d)

posterior, proximal to hip

2.

What directional term would be used to indicate sunburn on a patient’s back?

a)

proximal

b)

posterior

c)

anterior

d)

distal

3.

Label the planes of the body. In order of 1-3 Ex. The, Cat, Hat

Word Bank: Frontal, Median, Transverse



(a)  

4.

Which directional term is used to describe the relationship of the skin to the skeletal muscles?

a)

superficial

b)

lateral

c)

deep

d)

medial

5.

The knee is proximal to the thigh.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following is the proper description of the human body in the anatomical position?

a)

The body is erect with feet slightly apart, palms facing forward, and thumbs pointing away from the body.

b)

The body is erect with feet together, palms facing the thighs, and thumbs pointing forward.

c)

The body is erect with feet slightly apart and arms extending perpendicular to the torso along a straight line with the clavicle.

d)

The body is erect with feet together, palms facing backward, and thumbs pointing toward the body.

7.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The heart is posterior to the spine.

b)

The heart is dorsal to the sternum.

c)

The sternum is posterior to the spine.

d)

The sternum is dorsal to the spine.

8.

Which of the following statements regarding the umbilicus and the chin is true?

a)

The umbilicus is caudal to the chin.

b)

The umbilicus is superior to the chin.

c)

The chin is caudal to the umbilicus.

d)

The umbilicus is medial to the chin.

9.

The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

a)

body erect

b)

thumbs pointed laterally

c)

palms turned posteriorly

d)

arms at sides

10.

Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?

a)

a transverse cut just above the knees

b)

two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves

c)

any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions

d)

any sagittal plane except in the midline

11.

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?

a)

transverse

b)

frontal

c)

median

d)

sagittal

12.

The elbow is proximal to the shoulder.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Which of the following is NOT correct for anatomical position?

a)

Nose facing forward

b)

Legs are straight with toes aimed forward

c)

Arms fully extended

d)

Palms facing inward towards the thighs

14.

Which of the following is located in a median position?

a)

Right foot

b)

lung

c)

mouth

d)

shoulder

15.

The knee is proximal to the ankle. Which of these other terms could also be used to correctly describe the relationship between the knee and the ankle?

a)

The knee is superficial to the ankle.

b)

The knee is medial to the ankle.

c)

The knee is contralateral to the ankle.

d)

The knee is superior to the ankle.

16.

The cranial bones almost entirely surround the brain and protect it. Which of the following terms best describes the relationship between the cranial bones and the brain?

a)

Cranial bones are anterior to the brain.

b)

The cranial bones are superficial to the brain.

c)

The cranial bones are proximal to the brain.

d)

The cranial bones are lateral to the brain.

17.

Which of the following is a term that can be used instead of dorsal?

a)

lateral

b)

posterior

c)

ventral

d)

distal

18.

Which of the following is a correct pairing of a body cavity with its contents?

a)

The cavity at C contains the lungs.

b)

The cavity at E contains most of the digestive organs.

c)

The cavity at D contains the reproductive organs.

d)

The cavity at D contains the urinary bladder.

19.

The ventral cavity includes which of the indicated subdivisions in the figure?    

a)

A and B  

b)

 C and D

c)

 D and E

d)

 C, D, and E

20.

try to memorize

a)

I sorta have it maybe ill get a 75?

b)

I got this definitely gonna get at least an 85 :D

c)

im going to fail :(

60 and below is what ill be getting :(

d)

Easy 95-100 >:)

21.

The dorsal body cavity is divided into which of the following subdivisions?

a)

the vertebral/spinal and cranial cavities

b)

the vertebral/spinal, cranial, and pleural cavities

c)

the thoracic, pleural, and abdominopelvic cavities

d)

the vertebral/spinal and thoracic cavities

22.

Memories, please

a)

This is the right answer

b)

wrong

c)

wrong

d)

wrong

23.

In which quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located?

a)

left lower quadrant

b)

left upper quadrant

c)

right lower quadrant

d)

right upper quadrant

24.

The thoracic cavity contains the ________. It is found ________ to the vertebral cavity.

a)

digestive viscera; inferior

b)

kidneys and spleen; deep

c)

heart and lungs; anterior

d)

stomach and liver; superficial

25.

Which of the following epithelial tissue types is NOT correctly matched to its function?

a)

stratified squamous epithelium; absorption

b)

simple columnar epithelium with microvilli; absorption

c)

simple cuboidal epithelium; secretion

d)

simple squamous epithelium; filtration

26.

Pseudostratified epithelia are well adapted to the digestive system because the cilia increase the surface area for absorption.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What function do transitional epithelia have?

a)

stretching

b)

absorption

c)

filtration

d)

resistance to friction

28.

You observe a tissue under a microscope. There appears to be a lumen on one side of the tissue. Lining this lumen is a single layer of epithelial cells that seem to have long, fingerlike projections. Beneath the projections, the cells seem to have the shape of shoeboxes and are packed tightly together. What type of tissue are you looking at?

a)

simple columnar epithelium

b)

transitional epithelium

c)

simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

stratified squamous epithelium

29.

Which of the following is a modification of the simple columnar epithelium that allows for efficient absorption along portions of the digestive tract?

a)

thin and permeable

b)

fibroblasts

c)

cilia

d)

dense microvilli

30.

A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells ________.

a)

is more durable than all other epithelia

b)

is found in some of the larger glands

c)

lines most of the respiratory tract

d)

aids in digestion

31.

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?

a)

pseudostratified columnar

b)

simple columnar

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

simple squamous

32.

________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.

a)

Stratified columnar

b)

Transitional

c)

Stratified cuboidal

d)

Pseudostratified columnar

33.

A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________.

a)

stratified squamous

b)

transitional

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

simple squamous

34.

Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.

a)

Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.

b)

Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.

c)

Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

d)

Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.

35.

Simple cuboidal epithelia are usually found in areas where secretion and absorption occur.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Identify the highlighted structures.

(a)  

37.

 Identify the highlighted type of epithelial tissue.

(a)  

38.

Identify the epithelium indicated by the arrows.    

(a)  

39.

Identify the highlighted epithelium.

(a)  

40.

Which structure is highlighted?

a)

basement membrane

b)

goblet cell

c)

nucleus

d)

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

41.

Which structures are highlighted?

a)

goblet cells

b)

nuclei

c)

cilia

d)

microvilli

42.

Which structures are highlighted?

a)

simple columnar cells

b)

microvilli

c)

nuclei

d)

goblet cells

43.

Which epithelial type is highlighted?

a)

simple squamous epithelium

b)

simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

d)

simple columnar epithelium

44.

Which epithelial type is highlighted?

a)

transitional epithelium

b)

simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

stratified squamous epithelium

d)

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

45.

Which epithelial type is highlighted?

a)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

b)

stratified columnar epithelium

c)

transitional epithelium

d)

stratified squamous epithelium

46.

Squamous epithelial cells ________.

a)

are taller than they are wide, like columns

b)

have no nuclei

c)

are thin and flat, like fish scales

d)

are as tall as they are wide, like cubes

47.

Simple epithelia have ________.

a)

all three types of epithelial cells arranged in one layer

b)

multiple layers of just one type of epithelial cells

c)

two types of epithelial cells, arranged in one layer

d)

one type of epithelial cell, arranged in a single layer

48.

Which of the following best describes pseudostratified epithelium?

a)

Multiple layers of cells with various heights

b)

Multiple layers of ciliated cells

c)

Single layer of columnar cells

d)

Single layer of cells with various heights

e)

Multiple layers of cuboidal and columnar cells

49.

What body system contains pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

a)

Cardiovascular system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Digestive system

e)

Urinary system

50.

A single layer of tall rectangular cells best describes which of the following?

a)

Simple squamous epithelium

b)

Simple columnar epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

Goblet cells

e)

Stratified columnar epithelium

51.

Identify the one characteristic that does NOT describe a goblet cell.

a)

Secretes mucus onto the luminal surface

b)

Columnar epithelial cell

c)

Unicellular gland

d)

Produces mucus

e)

Component of a mucous gland

52.

What is the function of cilia?

a)

Movement of something across the cell’s surface

b)

Circulation of cytoplasm within the cell

c)

Increasing of surface area

d)

Movement of the cell

e)

Absorption

53.

Identify the best description for the shape of squamous cells.

a)

Spherical

b)

Plate-like

c)

Cube-like

d)

Pyramidal

e)

Cylindrical

54.

Having multiple layers of flat cells against a free surface describes which of the following?

a)

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

b)

Pseudostratified squamous epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

Simple squamous epithelium

e)

Stratified squamous epithelium

55.

Where is the basement membrane located?

a)

Between neighboring epithelial cells

b)

At the boundary between connective tissue and epithelium

c)

At the basal surface of each epithelial cell

d)

Across the apical surfaces of the epithelial cells

e)

At the boundary between the lumen and connective tissue

56.

What is the function of stratified squamous epithelium?

a)

Protection

b)

Diffusion

c)

Secretion

d)

Absorption

e)

Filtration

57.

Which description is best for transitional epithelium?

a)

Cells that are more squamous in a relaxed state but more rounded when stretched.

b)

Cells that can randomly exist in two different states.

c)

Tissue that contains elastic fibers, permitting the tissue to stretch when necessary.

d)

Cells that are more cuboidal in a relaxed state but more squamous when stretched.

e)

Cells that transition from round to flat based on the age of the cell.

58.

Identify the function of transitional epithelium.

a)

Filtration

b)

Absorption

c)

Movement

d)

Flexibility

e)

Diffusion

59.

What is the only body system that contains transitional epithelium?

a)

Cardiovascular system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Urinary system

e)

Endocrine system

60.

Epithelial tissue is typically localized to the following region(s) of the body.

a)

only on the outermost surface of an organ

b)

on the surfaces of organs, on the walls of cavities, on the outer surface of the body, and in glands of the body

c)

only on the inner surfaces of body cavities

d)

between other layers of tissue in many of the organs of the body

61.

Based on its function, where would you likely find simple squamous epithelium?

a)

in places that experience abrasion or friction

b)

on the surface of the skin

c)

along the digestive tract

d)

in places where materials need to pass through a thin sheet of cells

62.

What is the function of ciliated epithelium?

a)

to move the epithelial cells from one area of the body to another

b)

to absorb materials from the extracellular environment

c)

to protect the underlying tissues

d)

to move fluids across the tissue surface

63.

Which of the following is an example of pseudostratified epithelium?

a)

lining of the trachea

b)

endocrine glands

c)

kidney tubules

d)

lung alveoli

64.

Why are adipose tissue, blood, and bone all considered to be connective tissues?

a)

They all have collagen and elastic fibers in their extracellular matrix.

b)

They connect to each other.

c)

They have a common origin: the embryonic tissue mesenchyme.

d)

They have the same types of cells.

65.

Connective tissues are made of different combinations of ground substance and fibers. As you compare slides of connective tissues, which would most likely be the strongest (toughest) type of connective tissue based on the composition of ground substance and fibers?

a)

connective tissue high in reticular fibers

b)

connective tissues high in collagen fibers

c)

connective tissue high in elastic fibers

d)

connective tissue high in ground substance

66.

Which is the most atypical connective tissue since it neither connects structures nor provides structural support?

a)

cartilage

b)

osseous

c)

areolar connective tissue

d)

blood

67.

Which tissue is correctly paired with its primary immature cell type?

a)

bone; osteoblast

b)

connective tissue proper; chondrocyte

c)

cartilage; fibroblast

d)

bone; fibrocyte

68.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Dense irregular connective tissue has a high proportion of elastic fibers.

b)

Dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers.

c)

Loose connective tissue includes cartilage.

d)

Closely packed bundles of collagen fibers are characteristic of loose connective tissues.

69.

Memorize please

a)

Pick This

b)

dont pick this

70.

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ________.

a)

hydroxyapatite crystals

b)

reticular fibers

c)

collagen fibers

d)

elastic fibers

71.

What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels?

a)

cartilage tissue

b)

fibrocartilaginous tissue

c)

areolar tissue

d)

bone (osseous tissue)

72.

The primary blast cell for bone is the ________.

a)

osteoblast

b)

fibroblast

c)

hemocytoblast

d)

chondroblast

73.

How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage?

a)

It contains more nuclei.

b)

It is more vascularized.

c)

Fibers are not normally visible.

d)

It allows great flexibility.

74.

Which of the following is found in hyaline cartilage?

a)

fibroblast

b)

mast cell

c)

chondrocyte

d)

macrophage

75.

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.

a)

fibrocartilage

b)

hyaline cartilage

c)

elastic cartilage

d)

adipose tissue

76.

Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.

a)

Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.

b)

It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix.

c)

Its primary function is nutrient storage.

d)

Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.

77.

Tendons and ligaments are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which tissue is highlighted?

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

dense regular elastic tissue

c)

elastic cartilage

d)

areolar connective tissue

79.

Which component of the connective tissue in this field of view is highlighted?

a)

collagen fibers

b)

lacunae

c)

chondrocytes

d)

extracellular matrix

80.

What structure connects the highlighted muscle cells to one another?

a)

sarcomeres

b)

Z discs

c)

intercalated discs

d)

tight junctions

81.

Which structures are highlighted?

a)

fibers

b)

nuclei

c)

striations

d)

fascicles

82.

Which structure is highlighted?

a)

fascicle

b)

sarcomere

c)

skeletal muscle fiber

d)

perimysium

83.

What is a characteristic of the highlighted muscle tissue?

a)

striated

b)

branching

c)

voluntary

d)

uni-nucleated

84.

Under a microscope you observe a tissue that appears to have long fibers that appear striated. The nuclei are pushed off to the side of the fibers. The tissue looks very vascular. What type of tissue are you observing?

a)

skeletal muscle tissue

b)

dense irregular connective tissue

c)

dense regular connective tissue

d)

osseous tissue

85.

Smooth muscle __________.

a)

contains intercalated discs

b)

has striations

c)

has long, cylindrical cells

d)

is under involuntary control

86.

Which tissue in the wall of the uterus is required for labor contractions?

a)

stratified squamous

b)

skeletal muscle

c)

smooth muscle

d)

elastic cartilage

87.

Intercalated discs and striations are both characteristics of skeletal muscle.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

What visual feature sets hyaline cartilage apart from other types of cartilage?

a)

Cells exist in spaces called lacunae.

b)

Very few cells can be observed.

c)

Matrix appears fibrous.

d)

Matrix appears transparent.

e)

Matrix does not contain fibers.

89.

Where are chondrocytes located?

a)

Chondrocytes aren’t found in cartilage.

b)

Outside lacunae

c)

Between collagen fibers

d)

Inside lacunae

e)

Outer periphery of the tissue

90.

What does the term “regular” in “dense regular connective tissue” refer to?

a)

Fibers are all the same type.

b)

Fibers are evenly distributed throughout the tissue.

c)

Fibers run in an interwoven web.

d)

Fibers run parallel.

e)

Fibers run perpendicular.

91.

What are the fiber types found in the two forms of dense regular connective tissue?

a)

Elastic and reticular

b)

Reticular and collagen

c)

Collagen and elastic

92.

What does the term “dense” in “dense irregular connective tissue” refer to?

a)

Density of the ground substance

b)

Density of fibers

c)

Density of cells

d)

Density of fibroblast nuclei

93.

What is the dominant fiber type found in dense irregular connective tissue?

a)

Elastic

b)

Collagen

c)

Reticular

94.

What type of connective tissue is areolar connective tissue?

a)

Dense regular connective tissue

b)

Dense connective tissue

c)

Dense irregular connective tissue

d)

Loose connective tissue

e)

Cartilage

95.

What fiber type permits areolar connective tissue to retain a degree of flexibility?

a)

Reticular

b)

Collagen

c)

Elastic

96.

Which description best identifies the unique attributes of connective tissue?

a)

Connective tissues transmit signals from one part of the body to another.

b)

Connective tissues are hard and inflexible, whereas soft, flexible structures of the body are made up of other tissue types.

c)

Connective tissues, unlike other tissues, lack blood vessels and blood.

d)

Connective tissue contains a large amount of an extracellular matrix.

97.

A histologist examines a tissue slide and observes many fibers tightly packed together in a parallel arrangement. A few cells can be seen squeezed between the fibers. Which type of tissue is being studied?

a)

dense irregular connective tissue

b)

areolar connective tissue

c)

adipose connective tissue

d)

dense regular fibrous connective tissue

98.

Why is blood classified as a connective tissue?

a)

Since all connective tissues are highly vascularized, blood is included as a connective tissue.

b)

Blood helps to connect body parts together.

c)

Blood cells, and the cells of all other connective tissues, come from the same kind of embryonic stem cell.

d)

Blood tissue contains a matrix that is very similar to that of other types of connective tissues.

99.

What is the ground substance in typical connective tissue matrix?

a)

interstitial fluid, proteoglycans, and cell adhesion proteins

b)

dissolved bone salts

c)

collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers

d)

fibroblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts, and mesenchyme cells