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Respiratory Assessment Allied 4A

Total questions: 38

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does ventilation refer to in the context of oxygenation concepts?

a)

The process of supplying oxygen to the body’s cells

b)

The body process of supplying oxygenated blood to the cells

c)

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, essentially breathing

d)

Substances moving across concentration gradients from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration

2.

What is diffusion in the context of respiratory physiology?

a)

The process of supplying oxygen to the body’s cells

b)

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

The body process of supplying oxygenated blood to the cells

d)

Substances moving across concentration gradients from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration

3.

What is perfusion in the body mean?

a)

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

The body process of supplying oxygenated blood to the cells and is reliant on adequate cardiac output

c)

The process of supplying oxygen to the body’s cells

d)

Substances moving across concentration gradients from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration

4.

What are the characteristics of a normal presentation in a healthy adult with healthy lungs?

a)

Breathing is labored at around 12-20 breaths per minute

b)

Breathing is unlabored at around 12-20 breaths per minute

c)

Nasal flaring

d)

Signs of cyanosis

5.

What is hypoxia defined as in the context of oxygenation levels?

a)

A low oxygen level in venous blood

b)

A high oxygen level in the tissues

c)

A low oxygen level in the tissues

d)

A high oxygen level in arterial blood

6.

How is hypoxemia typically measured?

a)

Using a stethoscope

b)

By pulse oximetry

c)

By measuring blood pressure

d)

With a thermometer

7.

Which of the following is usually the cause of hypoxia?

a)

High PaO2 level

b)

Normal SpO2 level

c)

Low PaO2 level

d)

Increased RBC production

8.

What are late signs of a patient in trouble due to hypoxia?

a)

Tachycardia and high SpO2

b)

Pallor or cyanosis

c)

Increased oxygen delivery

d)

Decreased cardiac output

9.

Bob, who has a history of COPD, is presenting with increased shortness of breath and is coughing up thick, yellow-ish green sputum. What two vital signs are most important to assess first?

a)

SpO2 and Respiratory rate

b)

Blood pressure and Heart rate

c)

Temperature and SpO2

d)

ECG and Blood glucose levels

10.

Which intervention is suggested for a patient with low oxygen levels who can cooperate?

a)

Jaw thrust or chin-lift maneuver

b)

Placing them in a supine position

c)

Coughing and taking some deep breaths

d)

Pursued-lip breathing

11.

What is the first thing to do when assessing a patient's respiratory status according to the document?

a)

Check the patient's temperature

b)

Observe the patient

c)

Listen to the patient's heart rate

d)

Ask the patient about their symptoms

12.

What is increased work of breathing associated with when assessing a patient's respiratory status?

a)

Decreased oxygen saturation

b)

Use of accessory muscles

c)

Lowered respiratory rate

d)

Improved lung function

13.

Which muscles are most obvious when a patient is using accessory muscles to facilitate breathing?

a)

Biceps and triceps

b)

Scalenes and sternocleidomastoid

c)

Abdominals and obliques

d)

Quadriceps and hamstrings

14.

What is considered a normal respiratory rate in adults?

a)

5-10 breaths per minute

b)

10-20 breaths per minute

c)

20-30 breaths per minute

d)

30-40 breaths per minute

15.

Which position is known to help facilitate lung expansion in patients experiencing respiratory compromise?

a)

Supine position

b)

Tripod position

c)

Fowler's position

d)

Prone position

16.

What could be the cause of asymmetrical chest wall expansion?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Bronchitis

17.

What is an indicator of neurological impairment in a patient's respiratory pattern?

a)

Regular breathing pattern

b)

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

c)

Fast breathing pattern

d)

Slow breathing pattern

18.

For fair-skinned individuals, what does cyanosis indicate?

a)

High oxygen levels

b)

Normal blood circulation

c)

Low oxygen levels

d)

Healthy skin

19.

What color is the sputum typically in viral illnesses?

a)

Yellow/green

b)

Black

c)

White or clear

d)

Rust colored

20.

If a patient cannot speak full sentences without pausing for breath, what does this suggest?

a)

Normal respiratory function

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Adequate airway protection

d)

Effective coughing ability

21.

When performing a respiratory assessment by auscultation, what pattern should you use to listen to the patient's lungs?

a)

A straight line pattern

b)

A "Z" pattern

c)

A circular pattern

d)

A random pattern

22.

Which of the following lung sounds are high pitched and loud, and are typically heard over the trachea and larynx?

a)

Vesicular sounds

b)

Bronchial sounds

c)

Bronchovesicular sounds

d)

Adventitious sounds

23.

Bronchovesicular sounds are normally heard at which locations?

a)

Over the trachea and larynx

b)

At the mid sternum and between the scapula

c)

In the peripheral lung fields

d)

Throughout the entire chest uniformly

24.

Vesicular sounds are characterized by which of the following?

a)

High pitch and loud volume

b)

Moderate pitch and amplitude

c)

Low pitch and volume

d)

Absence of sound

25.

Diminished or absent lung sounds can indicate:

a)

Normal lung function

b)

Increased airflow and lung expansion

c)

Decreased airflow and lung expansion

d)

Bronchial breath sounds

26.

What are adventitious sounds?

a)

Normal breath sounds

b)

Sounds associated with speech

c)

Audible abnormal sounds

d)

Sounds related to digestion

27.

Crackles are often caused by which of the following conditions?

a)

Pneumonia or fluid in the lungs

b)

Asthma and COPD

c)

Airway obstruction

d)

Pleural effusion

28.

Rhonchi are often compared to which sound?

a)

A high-pitched whistle

b)

A snoring/gurgling sound

c)

A grating sound

d)

A clicking sound

29.

Wheezes are typically associated with which of the following conditions?

a)

Atelectasis

b)

Asthma and COPD

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

Pleural effusion

30.

Stridor is a sound that occurs when which part of the airway is obstructed?

a)

Lower airway

b)

Large airways

c)

Upper airway

d)

Small airways

31.

What is a pleural friction rub?

a)

A fine crackling sound

b)

A low-pitched breath sound

c)

A high-pitched sound during inspiration

d)

A grating sound with inspiration and expiration

32.

What are the two key assessments conducted with hands when assessing with palpation?

a)

Tactile fremitus and crepitus.

b)

Bronchophony and egophony.

c)

Whispered pectoriloquy and bronchophony.

d)

Egophony and whispered pectoriloquy.

33.

What does crepitus feel like?

a)

A smooth surface

b)

A sharp pain

c)

Bubble wrap under the skin

d)

A tight band around the chest

34.

How can dyspnea be initially detected in patients?

a)

Through a blood test

b)

Through observation

c)

By measuring temperature

d)

By checking blood pressure

35.

What is respiratory distress characterized by?

a)

Decreased oxygen consumption

b)

Signs of increased work of breathing such as accessory muscle use, nasal flaring, retractions, grunting, head bobbing, and tachypnea

c)

Improved breathing efficiency

d)

Decreased metabolic oxygen demands

36.

Why is airway obstruction more serious in children than in adults?

a)

Children's airways are significantly narrower

b)

Children's airways are more flexible

c)

Children have a higher functional residual capacity

d)

Children consume less oxygen

37.

What is a sign that a pediatric patient is not likely in respiratory distress?

a)

The child is listless

b)

The child is agitated

c)

The child is crying

d)

The child is tachypneic

38.

What is considered tachypnea in an 18-month-old child?

a)

A respiratory rate of 52 bpm

b)

A respiratory rate of 46 bpm

c)

A respiratory rate of 40 bpm

d)

A respiratory rate of 34 bpm