wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Upper Limb Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which bone is part of the shoulder girdle?

a)

Femur

b)

Scapula

c)

Tibia

d)

Radius

2.

What does the proximal region of the humerus articulate with to form the shoulder joint?

a)

Trochlear notch of the ulna

b)

Glenoid fossa of the scapula

c)

Head of the radius

d)

Capitulum of the humerus

3.

Where is the greater tuberosity located on the humerus?

a)

Medially

b)

Laterally

c)

Inferiorly

d)

Anteriorly

4.

Which muscle attaches to the lesser tuberosity of the humerus?

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Infraspinatus

c)

Teres minor

d)

Subscapularis

5.

What lies against the bone at the surgical neck of the humerus?

a)

Biceps brachii tendon

b)

Axillary nerve and circumflex humeral vessels

c)

Rotator cuff muscles

d)

Deltoid muscle

6.

What is a common cause of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?

a)

Falling on an outstretched hand

b)

Lifting heavy objects

c)

Running

d)

Sitting for long periods

7.

Which nerve is at risk in a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?

a)

Radial nerve

b)

Axillary nerve

c)

Ulnar nerve

d)

Median nerve

8.

What is the consequence of radial nerve damage in a mid-shaft fracture?

a)

Loss of sensation in the fingers

b)

Paralysis of the wrist extensors, resulting in 'wrist drop'

c)

Inability to move the shoulder, resulting in 'frozen shoulder'

d)

Loss of elbow flexion, resulting in 'elbow drop'

9.

What is a supracondylar fracture?

a)

A fracture of the distal radius

b)

A fracture of the distal humerus just above the elbow joint

c)

A fracture of the proximal femur

d)

A fracture of the clavicle

10.

Which artery can be damaged in a supracondylar fracture?

a)

Radial artery

b)

Ulnar artery

c)

Brachial artery

d)

Femoral artery

11.

What is the Gartland classification used for?

a)

Classifying types of shoulder dislocations

b)

Classifying types of supracondylar fractures

c)

Classifying types of hip fractures

d)

Classifying types of wrist fractures

12.

What type of Gartland classification fracture is minimally displaced?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 3

d)

Type 4

13.

Where does the radius lie in relation to the ulna?

a)

Medially and parallel

b)

Laterally and parallel

c)

Anteriorly and perpendicular

d)

Posteriorly and perpendicular

14.

Which joint is partly formed by the articulation between the head of the radius and the capitulum of the humerus?

a)

Wrist joint

b)

Proximal radioulnar joint

c)

Elbow joint

d)

Distal radioulnar joint

15.

What is the shape of the head of the radius?

a)

Spherical

b)

Cylindrical

c)

Disk-shaped

d)

Cuboidal

16.

What is the function of the radial tuberosity?

a)

It serves as the place of attachment for the biceps brachii muscle.

b)

It forms the distal end of the radius.

c)

It is a concavity on the medial surface.

d)

It is a roughening for the attachment of the pronator teres muscle.

17.

What shape is the radial shaft described as?

a)

Circular

b)

Triangular

c)

Square

d)

Oval

18.

Which bones does the distal surface of the radius articulate with?

a)

Scaphoid and triquetrum

b)

Lunate and triquetrum

c)

Scaphoid and lunate

d)

Radius and ulna

19.

What is the most common type of radial fracture?

a)

Smith's fracture

b)

Greenstick fracture

c)

Colles' fracture

d)

Spiral fracture

20.

What is the characteristic deformity produced by a Colles' fracture?

a)

Spoon deformity

b)

Dinner fork deformity

c)

Claw deformity

d)

Hook deformity

21.

What distinguishes a Smith's fracture from a Colles' fracture?

a)

The distal fragment is displaced anteriorly

b)

The fracture occurs in the femur

c)

It is caused by twisting the arm

d)

It involves the ulna only

22.

What is the role of the interosseous membrane in the forearm?

a)

It connects the radius and ulna

b)

It stabilizes the wrist

c)

It supports the elbow joint

d)

It protects the hand

23.

Which bone acts as the stabilizing bone in the forearm?

a)

Ulna

b)

Radius

c)

Humerus

d)

Scapula

24.

Proximally, with which bone does the ulna articulate at the elbow joint?

a)

Radius

b)

Femur

c)

Humerus

d)

Tibia

25.

Distally, the ulna articulates with which bone to form the distal radio-ulnar joint?

a)

Scapula

b)

Radius

c)

Clavicle

d)

Femur

26.

What shape is the ulnar shaft?

a)

Circular

b)

Triangular

c)

Square

d)

Oval

27.

What is the most likely site of fracture in the ulna?

a)

Head

b)

Base

c)

Shaft

d)

Tip

28.

What process can be fractured by falling on a flexed elbow?

a)

Coronoid process

b)

Olecranon process

c)

Styloid process

d)

Radial process

29.

In Monteggia's Fracture, which part of the ulna is fractured?

a)

Distal shaft

b)

Proximal shaft

c)

Head

d)

Neck

30.

What happens to the head of the radius in Monteggia's Fracture?

a)

It dislocates anteriorly at the elbow

b)

It fractures at the distal end

c)

It remains intact

d)

It dislocates posteriorly at the wrist

31.

What is Galeazzi's Fracture characterized by?

a)

A fracture to the distal radius

b)

A fracture to the proximal ulna

c)

A dislocation of the elbow

d)

A fracture to the humerus

32.

In Galeazzi's Fracture, where does the ulna head dislocate?

a)

At the distal radio-ulnar joint

b)

At the elbow joint

c)

At the wrist joint

d)

At the shoulder joint

33.

What is another name for the scapula?

a)

Collarbone

b)

Shoulder blade

c)

Ribcage

d)

Sternum

34.

How many muscles attach to the scapula?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

17

d)

20

35.

Which joint does the scapula articulate with the humerus?

a)

Acromioclavicular joint

b)

Glenohumeral joint

c)

Elbow joint

d)

Wrist joint

36.

Which muscle originates from the subscapular fossa?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Trapezius

c)

Subscapularis

d)

Biceps brachii

37.

What is the coracoid process?

a)

A flat surface

b)

A hook-like projection

c)

A rounded cavity

d)

A sharp edge

38.

What is the function of the glenoid fossa?

a)

It serves as the attachment for the triceps brachii.

b)

It articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint.

c)

It is a roughening for muscle attachment.

d)

It is the site of the acromion process.

39.

Which muscle originates from the infraspinous fossa?

a)

Supraspinatus muscle

b)

Infraspinatus muscle

c)

Deltoid muscle

d)

Trapezius muscle

40.

Where does the acromion articulate with the clavicle?

a)

Glenohumeral joint

b)

Acromioclavicular joint

c)

Sternoclavicular joint

d)

Scapulothoracic joint

41.

What is the function of the posterior surface of the scapula?

a)

It faces inwards.

b)

It is a site of origin for the rotator cuff muscles.

c)

It articulates with the humerus.

d)

It supports the rib cage.

42.

What are the two main articulations of the scapula?

a)

Glenohumeral joint and Acromioclavicular joint

b)

Glenoid fossa and Coracoid process

c)

Supraspinatus fossa and Infraspinatus fossa

d)

Acromion and Clavicle

43.

What is a common cause of scapula fractures?

a)

High speed road collisions

b)

Falling from a low height

c)

Minor sports injuries

d)

Light physical activity

44.

What is the primary reason a fractured scapula does not typically require fixation?

a)

The surrounding muscles hold the pieces in place.

b)

The bone naturally heals faster than others.

c)

It is not a weight-bearing bone.

d)

It is protected by a thick layer of skin.

45.

What type of bone is the clavicle classified as?

a)

Long bone

b)

Short bone

c)

Flat bone

d)

Irregular bone

46.

Which of the following is a function of the clavicle?

a)

All of these

b)

Attaches the upper limb to the trunk

c)

Protects neurovascular structures

d)

Transmits force to the axial skeleton

47.

What shape does the clavicle have?

a)

L-shape

b)

S-shape

c)

T-shape

d)

C-shape

48.

Which joint does the sternal end of the clavicle articulate with?

a)

Acromioclavicular joint

b)

Glenohumeral joint

c)

Sternoclavicular joint

d)

Costoclavicular joint

49.

What is the function of the shaft of the clavicle?

a)

Articulation with the scapula

b)

Attachment for muscles

c)

Support for the rib cage

d)

Protection of the heart

50.

What is the acromial end of the clavicle associated with?

a)

Manubrium of the sternum

b)

Acromion of the scapula

c)

First rib

d)

Humerus

51.

What is the most common mechanism of injury for a clavicle fracture?

a)

A direct blow to the clavicle

b)

A fall onto the shoulder or an outstretched hand

c)

Lifting heavy objects

d)

Twisting the arm

52.

What percentage of clavicle fractures occur in the middle third?

a)

15%

b)

80%

c)

5%

d)

50%

53.

Which muscle pulls the medial end of the clavicle superiorly after a fracture?

a)

Pectoralis major

b)

Sternocleidomastoid

c)

Trapezius

d)

Deltoid

54.

What is a possible consequence of surgical repair involving the clavicle?

a)

Increased shoulder strength

b)

Numb patch over the upper chest and shoulder

c)

Enhanced mobility

d)

Faster healing time

55.

What does the X-ray in Fig 3 show?

a)

A normal clavicle

b)

A clavicular fracture

c)

A broken rib

d)

A dislocated shoulder

56.

What are the carpal bones?

a)

A set of eight irregularly shaped bones located in the wrist

b)

A set of five bones located in the palm

c)

The bones of the digits

d)

The bones of the forearm

57.

Where are the metacarpal bones located?

a)

In the area of the palm

b)

In the wrist

c)

In the forearm

d)

In the shoulder

58.

Which of the following bones is part of the proximal row of carpal bones?

a)

Trapezium

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Capitate

d)

Hamate

59.

Which carpal bone has a projection on its palmar surface known as the 'hook'?

a)

Trapezoid

b)

Pisiform

c)

Hamate

d)

Lunate

60.

How many carpal bones are there in total?

a)

Six

b)

Eight

c)

Ten

d)

Twelve

61.

Which bone is located in the palmar view of the carpal bones of the left hand and is colored red in the diagram?

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Lunate

c)

Pisiform

d)

Trapezium

62.

What is the name of the bone colored yellow in the palmar view of the carpal bones of the left hand?

a)

Hamate

b)

Trapezoid

c)

Trapezium

d)

Pisiform

63.

In the diagram of the carpal bones, which bone is colored blue?

a)

Capitate

b)

Triquetrum

c)

Lunate

d)

Scaphoid

64.

What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?

a)

Lunate

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Hamate

d)

Trapezium

65.

What is a characteristic clinical feature of a scaphoid fracture?

a)

Swelling in the palm

b)

Pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox

c)

Numbness in the fingers

d)

Bruising on the wrist

66.

What condition is the scaphoid at risk for after a fracture?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Avascular necrosis

c)

Tendonitis

d)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

67.

What long-term condition might develop from a missed scaphoid fracture?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Gout

d)

Bursitis

68.

What does Fig 4 depict?

a)

Radiograph of a scaphoid fracture.

b)

Radiograph of a femur fracture.

c)

Radiograph of a rib fracture.

d)

Radiograph of a skull fracture.

69.

According to Fig 5, how does the blood supply to the scaphoid bone run?

a)

From proximal to distal.

b)

From distal to proximal.

c)

From lateral to medial.

d)

From medial to lateral.

70.

Which metacarpal is associated with the thumb?

a)

Metacarpal I

b)

Metacarpal II

c)

Metacarpal III

d)

Metacarpal IV

71.

What is a common cause of a Boxer's fracture?

a)

Falling on an outstretched hand

b)

A clenched fist striking a hard object

c)

Hyperextension of the wrist

d)

Twisting the hand

72.

Which metacarpal is affected in Bennett's fracture?

a)

1st metacarpal

b)

2nd metacarpal

c)

3rd metacarpal

d)

5th metacarpal

73.

What are the bones of the fingers called?

a)

Carpals

b)

Metacarpals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Tarsals

74.

How many phalanges does the thumb have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

75.

Which digits have proximal, middle, and distal phalanges?

a)

Thumb only

b)

All fingers

c)

All fingers except the thumb

d)

Index finger only