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NWC204 module 1-2-3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?

a)

Servers

b)

Intermediary devices

c)

Hosts

d)

Media

2.

Question 2

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

a)

Wireless

b)

Fiber-optic cable

c)

Copper cable

3.

Question 3

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)

Hosts

b)

Routers

c)

Servers

d)

Switches

4.

Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

5.

Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to the organization’s data?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

6.

Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provider?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

7.

When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved?

a)

Fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

8.

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture?

a)

Fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

9.

With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?

a)

Fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

10.

Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is an example of which characteristic of network architecture?

a)

Fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

11.

Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

12.

Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

13.

Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom and Hybrid?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

14.

Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an electrical outlet?

a)

Smart home technology

b)

Powerline

c)

Wireless broadband

15.

Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smartphone?

a)

Smart home technology

b)

Powerline

c)

Wireless broadband

16.

Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and programs?

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

17.

Which option creates a secure connection for remote workers?

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

18.

Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network?

done

signal_cellular_4_bar

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

19.

Which option describes a network attack that occurs on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known?

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

d)

Denial of Service (DoS)

e)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

20.

Which option describes malicious code running on user devices

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

21.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)

DoS attack​

b)

Identity theft

c)

Spyware

d)

Zero-day attack

22.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

a)

Internet

b)

Intranet

c)

Extranet

d)

Extendednet

23.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)

Cloud computing

b)

Online collaboration

c)

Bring your own device

d)

Video conferencing

24.

What is an ISP?

a)

It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

b)

It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

c)

It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

d)

It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

25.

In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?

a)

An Internet cafe in a city

b)

A farm in a rural area without wired broadband access

c)

Any home with multiple wireless devices

d)

An apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet

26.

What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?

a)

Reliability

b)

Scalability

c)

Quality of service

d)

Accessibility

27.

A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is shown here?

a)

Quality of service (QoS)

b)

Scalability

c)

Security

d)

Fault tolerance

e)

Integrity

28.

What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)

a)

Easily overloaded with increased traffic

b)

Grows in size without impacting existing users

c)

Is not as reliable as a small network

d)

Suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion

e)

Offers limited number of applications

29.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a)

A router

b)

A firewall

c)

A web server

d)

A DSL modem

30.

Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.)

a)

DSL

b)

Cellular

c)

Satellite

d)

Dialup

e)

Dedicated leased line

31.

What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?

a)

An intranet

b)

The Internet

c)

An extranet

d)

A local area network

32.

How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?​

a)

BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.

b)

BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the need for organizational security policies.

c)

BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an organization.

d)

BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources.

33.

An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?

a)

ACL

b)

IPS

c)

VPN

d)

BYOD

34.

What is the Internet?

a)

It is a network based on Ethernet technology.

b)

It provides network access for mobile devices.

c)

It provides connections through interconnected global networks.

d)

It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.

35.

What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

a)

They originate the data that flows through the network.

b)

They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.

c)

They filter the flow of data to enhance security.

d)

They are the interface between humans and the communication network.

e)

They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

36.

Which access method would be most appropriate if you were in the equipment room with a new switch that needs to be configured?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

Aux

37.

Which access method would be most appropriate if your manager gave you a special cable and told you to use it to configure the switch?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

Aux

38.

Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

Aux

39.

Which access method would be the most appropriate if you call your manager to tell him you cannot access your router in another city over the internet and he provides you with the information to access the router through a telephone connection?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

Aux

40.

Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Interface subconfiguration mode

c)

Line console subconfiguration mode

d)

Privileged EXEC mode

e)

User EXEC mode

41.

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Interface subconfiguration mode

c)

Line console subconfiguration mode

d)

Privileged EXEC mode

e)

User EXEC mode

42.

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is displayed?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Interface subconfiguration mode

c)

Line console subconfiguration mode

d)

Privileged EXEC mode

e)

User EXEC mode

43.

Which two commands would return you to the privileged EXEC prompt regardless of the configuration mode you are in? (Choose two.)

a)

CTRL+Z

b)

disable

c)

enable

d)

end

e)

exit

44.

Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

a)

It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

b)

It is stored in NVRAM.

c)

It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

d)

It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

45.

Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)

a)

All router commands are available.

b)

Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.

c)

The device prompt for this mode ends with the '>' symbol.

d)

Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.

e)

Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

46.

Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

a)

Virtual terminal

b)

Privileged EXEC

c)

AUX port

d)

Console line

47.

What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

a)

VLAN1

b)

VLAN99

c)

VLAN100

d)

VLAN999

48.

When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)

a)

The hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length

b)

The hostname should be written in all lower case characters

c)

The hostname should contain no spaces

d)

The hostname should end with a special character

e)

The hostname should begin with a letter

49.

What is the function of the shell in an OS?

a)

It interacts with the device hardware.

b)

It interfaces between the users and the kernel.

c)

It provides dedicated firewall services.

d)

It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.

50.

A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Setup mode

c)

Privileged EXEC mode

d)

User EXEC mode

51.

An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?

a)

Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.

b)

Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running configuration.

c)

Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration.

d)

Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device take effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter key has been pressed.

52.

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?

a)

ROM

b)

Flash

c)

NVRAM

d)

RAM

53.

Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

a)

To remove all configurations from the switch

b)

To save an active configuration to NVRAM

c)

To copy an existing configuration into RAM

d)

To make a changed configuration the new startup configuration

54.

Which functionality is provided by DHCP?

a)

Automatic assignment of an IP address to each host

b)

Remote switch management

c)

Translation of IP addresses to domain names

d)

End-to-end connectivity test

55.

Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

a)

Providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted

b)

Displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode

c)

Allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key

d)

Determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command

e)

Selecting the best command to accomplish a task

56.

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

a)

RAM

b)

ROM

c)

NVRAM

d)

Flash

57.

To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?

a)

10.1.0.0

b)

10.0.0.0

c)

10.1.100.32

d)

10.1.100.0

58.

What is the process of converting information into the proper form for transmission?

a)

Formatting

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

59.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?

a)

Formatting

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

60.

Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three.)

a)

Flow control

b)

Sequence numbers

c)

Access method

d)

Retransmit time

e)

Response timeout

61.

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?

a)

Unicast

b)

Multicast

c)

Broadcast

62.

This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information.

a)

TCP

b)

IP

c)

HTTP

d)

Ethernet

63.

What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communication?

a)

To uniquely label transmitted segments of data for proper reassembly by the receiver

b)

To determine if data is corrupted during transmission

c)

To ensure data flows at an efficient rate between sender and receiver

d)

To guarantee delivery of data

64.

Which two protocols are service discovery protocols? (Choose two.)

a)

DNS

b)

TCP

c)

SSH

d)

DHCP

65.

BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?

a)

Network communication

b)

Network security

c)

Routing

d)

Service discovery

66.

UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network access

67.

Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer?

a)

EIGRP

b)

DNS

c)

OSPF

d)

ICMP

e)

DHCP

68.

Which protocol operates at the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?

a)

HTTP

b)

IP

c)

DNS

d)

Ethernet

69.

Which of the following are protocols that provide feedback from the destination host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery? (Choose two.)

a)

IPv4

b)

TCP

c)

ICMPv4

d)

IPv6

e)

ICMPv6

70.

A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the receiving device?

a)

HTTP at the application layer

b)

HTML at the application layer

c)

IP at the internet layer

d)

UDP at the internet layer

e)

TCP at the transport layer

71.

Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

a)

File Transfer

b)

Address Resolution

c)

Routing Protocols

d)

Messaging

e)

Internet Protocol

72.

True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

This standards organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones.

a)

Internet Society (ISOC)

b)

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

c)

Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

d)

Internet Research Task Force (IRTF)

74.

This standards organization is responsible for IP address allocation and domain name management.

a)

Internet Society (ISOC)

b)

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

c)

Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

d)

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

75.

What types of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA)?

a)

Electric wiring and connectors

b)

Radio equipment and cell towers

c)

Video compression and broadband communications

d)

Voice over IP (VoIP) and satellite communications

76.

What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission?

a)

Sequencing

b)

Duplexing

c)

Multiplexing

d)

Segmentation

77.

What is the PDU associated with the transport layer?

a)

Segment

b)

Packet

c)

Bits

d)

Frame

78.

Which protocol stack layer encapsulates data into frames?

a)

Data link

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Application

79.

What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack?

a)

De-encapsulation

b)

Sequencing

c)

Segmentation

d)

Encapsulation

80.

True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in different IP networks must be forwarded to a default gateway.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used to identify the network that a device belongs to.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

What is used to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address?

a)

Subnet mask

b)

MAC address

c)

Right-most part of the IP address

d)

Left-most part of the MAC address

83.

Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link layer addresses? (Choose three.)

a)

Data link layer addresses are logical and network layer addresses are physical.

b)

Network layer addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits and data link layer addresses are decimal.

c)

Network layer addresses are logical and data link addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.

d)

Data link layer addresses are physical and network layer addresses are logical.

e)

Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.

84.

What is the order of the two addresses in the data link frame?

a)

Source MAC, destination MAC

b)

Destination MAC, source IP

c)

Destination MAC, source MAC

d)

Destination IP, source IP

e)

Source IP, destination IP

85.

True or False? Data Link addresses are physical so they never change in the data link frame from source to destination.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

a)

IANA

b)

IEEE

c)

IETF

d)

OSI

e)

TCP/IP

87.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Multicast

c)

Unicast

d)

Allcast

88.

In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

a)

To convert information to the appropriate form for transmission

b)

To interpret information

c)

To break large messages into smaller frames

d)

To negotiate correct timing for successful communication

89.

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

a)

Duplex

b)

Unicast

c)

Multicast

d)

Broadcast

90.

What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

a)

It assists in protocol design.

b)

It speeds up packet delivery.

c)

It prevents designers from creating their own model.

d)

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

e)

It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

91.

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

a)

Specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication

b)

Specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication

c)

Providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

d)

Dictating the content of the message sent during communication

92.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

a)

Destination MAC address

b)

Destination IP address

c)

Destination port number

d)

Source MAC address

e)

Source IP address

93.

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

a)

Frame

b)

Packet

c)

Protocol data unit

d)

Segment

94.

Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

a)

POP

b)

BOOTP

c)

ICMP

d)

IP

e)

PPP

95.

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?

a)

Application

b)

Presentation

c)

Session

d)

Transport

e)

Network

96.

Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinations simultaneously?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Multicast

c)

Unicast

d)

Anycast

97.

What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?

a)

Access control

b)

Decoding

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Flow control

98.

What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

a)

It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.

b)

It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.

c)

It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

d)

It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.

99.

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

a)

Access control

b)

Decoding

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Flow control

100.

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

a)

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

b)

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

c)

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

d)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP