wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Patho Exam 2

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which of the following terms best describes this growth?

a)

Neoplasm

b)

Meningioma

c)

Lipoma

d)

Hypertrophy

2.

A nurse discusses preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing?

a)

Tumor in differentiation

b)

Dysplastic

c)

Cancer in situ

d)

Cancer beyond (meta) situ

3.

What is a gene that codes for normal protein used in cell division?

a)

Oncogene

b)

Proto-oncogene

c)

Tumor necrosis factor

d)

Papilloma

4.

A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

5.

An immunologist is discussing endotoxin production. Which information should the immunologist include?

a)

Gram-negative bacteria

b)

Gram-positive bacteria

c)

Gram-negative fungi

d)

Gram-positive fungi

6.

When the immunologist says that pathogens possess virulence, what does virulence mean?

a)

The ability to cause disease

b)

The ability to reproduce

c)

The ability to survive in harsh conditions

d)

The ability to mutate rapidly

7.

Which organ is stimulated during the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) alarm phase?

a)

adrenal cortex

b)

hypothalamus

c)

anterior pituitary

d)

limbic system

8.

Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?

a)

prefrontal cortex

b)

anterior pituitary

c)

limbic system

d)

Hypothalamus

9.

The hallmark of infectious diseases is

a)

Fever

b)

Swelling

c)

Pain

d)

Redness

10.

The most common route for metastasis is through lymphatic tissue and...

a)

Cells

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Neurons

d)

Blood vessels

11.

SATA- What are the symptoms in all forms of diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Polydipsia

b)

Polyuria

c)

Vomiting

d)

Polyphagia

12.

BMI is determined by looking at ..

a)

Height and weight

b)

Weight and age

c)

Age and ethnicity

d)

Age and gender

13.

Most common cause of death with a cancer patient

a)

Cancer cachexia

b)

Infection

c)

Lethargy

d)

Emesis

14.

A cold has an abrupt onset of symptoms compared to the flu?

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Helicobacter pylori causes most

a)

UTIs

b)

Peptic and duodenal ulcers

c)

Strep

d)

The flu

16.

How do bacteria fight back against antibiotics? SATA:

a)

Inactivate antibiotics

b)

Change antibiotic binding sites

c)

Use different metabolic pathways

d)

Change their walls to keep antibiotics out

17.

A 5-year-old male becomes ill with a severe cough. Histologic examination reveals a bacterial infection, and further laboratory testing reveals cell membrane damage and decreased protein synthesis to the cells of his mucus membrane. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this illness?

a)

Endotoxin

b)

Exotoxin

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Septicemia

18.

The Epstein-Barr Virus is associated with mononucleosis.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Allostatic overload is described as the body’s way of using its resources to adapt to the stressor.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Carcinoma is described as..

a)

Malignant tumor of epithelial tissue

b)

Benign tumor of glandular tissue

c)

The enzyme that drives the cell cycle

d)

None of the above

21.

Parenchyma is described as..

a)

Functional cells of a tissue

b)

Cancer cells new blood supply

c)

Insulin receptors

d)

Obesity symptoms

22.

Subcutaneous fat has higher leptin, lower adiponectin, lower inflammatory cytokines, and lower insulin resistance.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The progressive breakdown of compensatory mechanisms and homeostasis is associated with which stage of stress

a)

Allostatic Overload

b)

Stage of resistance

c)

Stage of adaption

d)

Stage of alarm

24.

The islets of Langerhans are composed of beta cells that secrete glucagon, alpha cells that secrete insulin, and delta cells that secrete somatostatin into the blood

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Appetite is controlled by...

a)

Amygdala

b)

Thalamus

c)

The arcuate nucleus (ARC) of the hypothalamus

d)

Anterior Pituitary gland

26.

Obesity is a metabolic disorder with an increase in body fat mass and a body mass index (BMI) greater than 30

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The exhaustion stage is characterized by all except

a)

energy depletion

b)

increased mean arterial blood pressure

c)

degeneration of cells

d)

loss of homeostasis

28.

The major hormones or groups of hormones that are instrumental in the endocrine response to stress include: (SATA)

a)

CRH

b)

ACTH

c)

Cortisol

d)

Catecholamines

29.

Tumor markers are molecules in blood, urine, or other fluids that indicate a change in the status of tumor growth

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Penetration into lymphatics, blood vessels, or body cavities is what stage of cancer

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

31.

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) mainly occurs in

a)

Type 1 patients

b)

Type 2 patients

c)

Diabetes Insipidus patients

d)

HHS Syndrome patients

32.

What glucose level is in the range to describe ketoacidosis?

a)

110 mg/dL

b)

95 mg/dL

c)

260 mg/dL

d)

180 mg/dL

33.

What part of the cell browns adipose tissue?

a)

The nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Ribosomes

34.

All are true about Leptin except:

a)

Stimulate appetite

b)

Levels increase after eating

c)

Interacts with the mesolimbic dopamine system

d)

Levels increase with the number of adipocytes

35.

What defines malignant tumors?

a)

Has a well-defined capsule

b)

Low mitotic index

c)

Grows slowly

d)

Undifferentiated

36.

(T or F) Oncogenes are normal genes responsible for the regulation of the proliferation of cells.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Obesity produces a state of low-grade chronic inflammation in...

a)

Brown Adipose Tissue

b)

Beige Fat

c)

White Adipose Tissue

d)

Muscle

38.

(T or F) Anorexigenic neurons are appetite-stimulating (stimulate eating and decrease metabolism).

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Characteristics of Cortisol (SATA)

a)

Potent pro-inflammatory hormone

b)

Part of a negative feedback loop

c)

Increases metabolism

d)

Increasing circulating glucose

40.

Posterior Pituitary releases... (SATA)

a)

ADH

b)

Cortisol

c)

Oxytocin

41.

Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by all except:

a)

Proteinuria

b)

Hypotension

c)

Edema

d)

Renal insufficiency

42.

The most common complication leading to hospitalization among people with diabetes:

a)

Renal disease

b)

Macrovascular complications

c)

Foot ulcers

d)

Polyuria

43.

Cardiovascular disease is the ultimate cause of death in the majority of patients with diabetes.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

The earliest manifestation of kidney dysfunction in a patient with diabetes is:

a)

ketonuria

b)

albuminuria

c)

glycosuria

d)

glucosuria

45.

Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome include all except:

a)

Increased waist circumference: Men > 40 inches; women > 35 inches

b)

Decrease triglyceride levels: < 150 mg per dL

c)

Elevated blood pressure: ≥ 130/85 mmHg

d)

Elevated fasting glucose level: ≥ 100 mg per dL

e)

Reduced high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels: Men < 40 mg/dL; women < 50 mg/dL

46.

Paraneoplastic syndromes are manifestations of cancer that often result from:

a)

Tumor-related tissue necrosis

b)

Compression of area vessels

c)

Altered hormonal activity

d)

Radiation and chemotherapy

47.

The stage when the host develops the signs and symptoms like a mild fever and body aches after exposure to an infectious agent is called:

a)

Incubation

b)

Prodromal

c)

Acute

d)

Convalescence

48.

High-risk factors for the development of adult renal cell cancer include:

a)

heavy smoking

b)

adrenal medulla tumors.

c)

inherited renal disease

d)

anorexia/bulimia disorder

49.

A tumor arises from the continued cell division of a single cancerous cell.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Telomeres continue to grow in size as you age and become older.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What is the potential effect of chronic hyperglycemia on pancreatic beta cells?

a)

Increased insulin sensitivity

b)

Beta-cell desensitization

c)

Enhanced insulin production

d)

Decreased glucose absorption

52.

Stress can exacerbate any disease or condition.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma?

a)

dark complexion, light eyes, underweight

b)

light complexion, dark eyes, overweight

c)

medium complexion, light eyes, smoker

d)

light complexion, light eyes, fair hair

54.

Malaria is caused by parasites that carry the bacteria Plasmodium.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The HPA axis is coordinated by a chain of hormones between the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands. Which of the following are the correct hormones: SATA

a)

CRF

b)

ACTH

c)

Cortisol

d)

Epinephrine

e)

Norepinephrine

56.

What is a good description of a scirrhous tumor?

a)

firm grapes in jello with threads in it

b)

soft like grapes in Jello with threads in it

c)

Rock-like bumps in jello with a clear coat

d)

Thicker jello with threads in it

57.

A middle-aged patient diagnosed with coronavirus disease 2019 presents with fever, fatigue, and mild cough. After initial antiviral treatment, the patient’s symptoms persist, and they are eventually diagnosed with viral pneumonia. Imaging shows ground-glass opacities in both lungs. All of the following occur early in the infection, EXCEPT: (SATA)

a)

SARS-CoV-2 primarily targets T cells for initial infection


b)

Alveolar epithelial type II cells are targeted by the virus


c)

 Pulmonary consolidation occurs due to alveolar epithelial-endothelial barrier disruption


d)

The virus binds to the angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) receptor


e)

 Symptoms like fever and cough typically resolve within 48 hours of infection


58.

SATA S/S of an inflammatory response of an inflammatory response:

a)

Pain

b)

Redness

c)

Swollen

d)

Temperature

e)

SOB

59.

SATA: What hormones are needed in the regulation of food-uptake?

a)

Adiponectin

b)

Cholecystokinin (CKK)

c)

Leptin

d)

Ghrelin

e)

Insulin

60.

The nurse is assessing a patient who was recently divorced and is now living in a temporary shelter after losing her home in a hurricane. Which finding indicates that the patient is experiencing allostatic load?

a)

The patient is in a state of exhaustion.

b)

The patient is using available resources to respond to stress.

c)

The patient is making healthy lifestyle choices.

d)

The patient is in an internal state of balance.

61.

The plan of care for a woman newly diagnosed with a BRCA1 mutation should include which strategy?

a)

Preoperative planning for immediate prophylactic double mastectomies

b)

A recommendation for enhanced screening for breast and ovarian cancer

c)

Reassurance that male offspring with BRCA1 do not develop breast cancer

d)

Reassurance that the BRCA1 gene protects against ovarian cancer

62.

When planning care for a trauma patient, which statement does the nurse understand best describes the body's response to stress?

a)

The stress response suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.

b)

The stress response has a negative effect on the endogenous opioid pathway.

c)

The stress response is the result of stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.

d)

The stress response boosts the adaptive immune response.

63.

SATA: Bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics through which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Altering the antibiotic binding sites

b)

 Producing enzymes that degrade antibiotics

c)

 Increasing the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall

d)

Pumping antibiotics out of the cell

64.

The nurse is caring for a client with herpes simplex virus. The nurse understands that chronic stress can cause which of the following conditions?

a)

increased cell-mediated immunity

b)

inactivation of the humoral immune response

c)

reduction in the levels of circulating antibody for HSV

d)

reactivation of the latent virus

65.

The nurse is caring for a client with an infection. The nurse anticipates which of the following effects of chronic stress on this client?

a)

a suppressed innate immune response

b)

a heightened immune response

c)

no effect on the immune system

d)

an intensified adaptive immune response

66.

A client in the stage of alarm would most likely exhibit which of the following?

a)

exhaustion

b)

organ damage

c)

increased mean arterial blood pressure

d)

bradycardia

67.

True or false: Grading describes the spread of the tumor

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Local effects of cancer include...SATA

a)

Death of parenchyma

b)

Compression of blood

c)

Bleeding

d)

Fatigue

69.

The four top infections and new cancer cases include all except

a)

HPV

b)

H. Pylori

c)

HCV

d)

Pharyngitis

70.

The most lethal skin cancer is what?

a)

Melanoma

b)

Carcinoma

c)

Adenoma

d)

Lymphoma

71.

Persistent stress is followed by the resistance stage whereby cortisol levels decrease through positive feedback loops.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The stroma is important in cancer development because cancers actively recruit an immune and stromal response to assist in the remodeling of tissues, formation of new blood vessels, and promotion of metastasis.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Oncogenes

a)

are mutated forms of tumor suppressor genes

b)

are mutated genes the inhibit the cell cycle

c)

are mutated forms of genes that code for proteins that normally assist in apoptosis

d)

are mutated genes that code for proteins which activate cell division too often or at the improper time

74.

Common treatments for cancer include:

CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY!

a)

chemotherapy

b)

immunotherapy

c)

radiation therapy

d)

psychotherapy

e)

multivitamins