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ACR-206 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 139

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The __________ typically disables the A/C system if pressures fall below 10 psi (69 kPa).

a)

Low-pressure switch

b)

TXV (thermal expansion valve)

c)

Heater control

d)

High-pressure relief

2.

Which of the following is the most common source of abnormal noises arising from the air conditioner?

a)

Evaporator

b)

Compressor

c)

Accumulator

d)

Muffler

3.

Which of the following is the first step in the diagnostic process for air-conditioning systems?

a)

System pressure test

b)

Diagnosis of faults

c)

Performance testing

d)

Check for codes in the computer

4.

A __________ is connected to the air-conditioning refrigerant ports before the performance test begins.

a)

Thermometer

b)

Manifold pressure gauge set

c)

Micron gauge

d)

Safety switch

5.

Which of the following works very well for testing discharged systems or for pre-checking for a leak after repairs have been made and before recharging the system?

a)

Fluorescent dye

b)

Oxygen

c)

Compressed Air

d)

Nitrogen

6.

Which of the following is NOT a method of leak testing? Select one:

a)

Vacuum testing

b)

Electronic leak detection

c)

Dye testing

d)

Nitrogen testing

7.

Flushing with __________ may be necessary for some components, as this removes moisture-laden oil and some contaminated oil. Select one:

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Compressed air

c)

Refrigerant gas

d)

Lubrication oil

8.

If nitrogen testing is the leak test method to be performed, what step would you proceed to next? Select one:

a)

Diagnosing

b)

Charging

c)

Evacuation

d)

Reclaiming

9.

What is the act of removing the refrigerant called? Select one:

a)

Reclaiming

b)

Flushing

c)

Recharging

d)

Recycling

10.

The type of refrigerant must remain the same because cross-contamination will create a(n) __________. Select one:

a)

Hazardous substance

b)

Strong enough magnetic pull

c)

Inefficient cooling system

d)

Increased energy consumption

e)

System malfunction

11.

When cleaning a condenser, shop air or a water hose may be used to remove the debris, but be careful to not fold over the __________.

a)

Fins

b)

Blades

c)

Coils

d)

Tubes

12.

The __________ is normally inspected when high-side pressures are too high and the system is not cooling well.

a)

Condenser

b)

Evaporator

c)

Compressor

d)

Expansion Valve

13.

When cleaning the condenser, what, aside from the shop air, can be used to remove the debris?

a)

Water hose

b)

Drain tube

c)

Oil filter

d)

Nitrogen purging

14.

Clogs in the drain tube should be removed by __________ the drain tube. Select one:

a)

Blowing air into

b)

Spraying water into

c)

Flushing refrigerant gas through

d)

Passing nitrogen gas through

e)

Using a vacuum pump

15.

Which of the following is used to determine what the high- and low-side pressures should be at a given outside temperature and humidity in a properly functioning system? Select one:

a)

Reclaim/recycle machine

b)

PT chart

c)

Anemometer

d)

Micron gauge

16.

What gauge is used in conjunction with the mechanical pressure gauge on your air-conditioning machine? Select one:

a)

Micron

b)

Vacuum

c)

Manifold

d)

High-side

17.

What detector is sometimes called a "sniffer?" Select one:

a)

Dye leak detector

b)

Carbon monoxide detector

c)

Electronic leak detector

d)

Sealant detector

18.

An air-conditioning compressor pulley or bearing may need service when which of the following is detected from the bearing as the engine is running?

a)

Loss of pressure

b)

Vibration

c)

Noise

d)

Leakage

19.

Which of the following is considered electrical friction?

a)

Voltage

b)

Resistance

c)

Amperage

d)

Current

20.

An open circuit has what type of resistance?

a)

Infinite resistance

b)

Zero resistance

c)

Low resistance

d)

Variable resistance

21.

Which of the following mathematical equations is obtained when Watt’s and Ohm’s laws are combined?

a)

Power = Voltage × Amperage

b)

Power = Voltage / Resistance

c)

Voltage = Power × Amperage

d)

Voltage = Amperage / Power

22.

What is generally an unwanted by-product of resistance?

a)

Amperage drops

b)

Light

c)

Heat

d)

Low amperage

23.

Which of these faults in the circuit would result in the circuit becoming intermittent?

a)

Fuse blown

b)

Loose connections

c)

Unintended path for current flow

d)

Unintended ground

24.

How are the power supply, circuit protection, and control device typically connected in a combination circuit?

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Wye formation

d)

Delta formation

25.

All of the following are classifications of circuit malfunction, EXCEPT:

a)

Opened

b)

Closed

c)

Shorted

d)

High resistance

26.

__________ circuit breakers can be a non-cycling type that reset by removing power from the circuit.

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 3

d)

Type 4

27.

What mechanism is used to ensure that a pressure-sensitive switch latches into position regardless of the operator speed?

a)

Slow-acting mechanism

b)

Spring-loaded mechanism

c)

Momentary-contact mechanism

d)

Over-center mechanism

28.

Which of the following statements is true when the lead of a test light or common lead of the voltmeter is connected to chassis ground?

a)

A good fuse shows a very high resistance.

b)

A blown fuse has 0 volts on one side of the fuse.

c)

A good fuse has battery voltage on only one side of the fuse.

d)

A blown fuse has the same voltage on both sides.

29.

Calculate the voltage of a circuit that is rated as 1.5 amps and has a resistance of 2 ohms across it.

a)

3.5 V

b)

0.5 V

c)

3 V

d)

0.75 V

30.

Which of these statements about PPTC fuses is NOT true?

a)

They are also known as resettable fuses.

b)

They are thermistor-like electronic devices.

c)

Resistance in the devices suddenly increases to thousands of ohms.

d)

Current trip ratings for PPTC devices range from 20 mA to 50 mA.

31.

Which of these mathematical statements describes Watt’s law? Select one:

a)

Power = Voltage × Amperage

b)

Power = Voltage × Resistance

c)

Voltage = Power × Amperage

d)

Voltage = Amperage / Power

32.

According to conventional electrical theory, which way does electricity move in most commercial vehicle chassis? Select one:

a)

From the negative ground, through the load, then back to the battery

b)

From the "hot" insulated wire, through the load, then back to the battery

c)

From negative charge potentials to positive charge potentials

d)

Electrons leave the negative terminal of the battery and return through the positive post

33.

Consider an atom with 28 protons and 29 electrons. It could be accurately described as: Select one:

a)

Aluminum

b)

Negatively charged

c)

Positively charged

d)

Anion

34.

Consider the principle of Joules heating. Which of the following units of electrical measurement changes when amperage increases through a circuit? Select one:

a)

Resistance

b)

Voltage

c)

Farads

d)

Capacitance

35.

Consider two objects with electrical charges. Objects A and B both repel one another. What is the polarity of the charges found on the objects? Select one:

a)

A is positive, B is negative.

b)

A and B are both positive.

c)

A is negative, B is positive.

d)

A is negative, B is neutral.

36.

The concept of amperage refers best to the following:

a)

The speed of electrical impulse

b)

The force of electrical impulse

c)

The quantity of electron movement

d)

The pressure of the electrical impulse

37.

Which measurement of electrical flow measures electron movement in number of electrons past a single point in a circuit per second of time?

a)

Coulomb

b)

Voltage

c)

Resistance

d)

Amperage

38.

Which of the following descriptions best describes the electrical term, polarity?

a)

The electrical pressure in a circuit

b)

The direction of electron movement

c)

The force of electrostatic attraction

d)

The direction of electrostatic repulsion

39.

Which of the following electrical terms is most closely associated with "electrical friction"?

a)

Amperage

b)

Current

c)

Voltage

d)

Resistance

40.

Which of the following terms best describes the electrical pressure that causes current to flow in a circuit?

a)

Resistance

b)

Amperage

c)

Voltage

d)

Current

41.

Which of the following types of matter are expected to have the fewest electrons in the outer valence orbital?

a)

Conductors

b)

Insulators

c)

Semi-conductors

d)

Resisters

42.

A circuit that has a current flow of 2 amps and resistance of 12 ohms would have a voltage of __________.

a)

24 volts

b)

24 watts

c)

6 volts

d)

6 watts

43.

Electrical circuits use _________ conductors, while electronic circuits use __________ conductors.

a)

Longer; shorter

b)

Larger; smaller

c)

Smaller; larger

44.

Electronic circuits use __________ amperage and often __________ electrical signals. Select one:

a)

Less; process

b)

More; amplify

c)

High; distort

d)

Low; filter

45.

Electronic circuits use electricity flowing through __________. Select one:

a)

Transistors

b)

Resistors

c)

Capacitors

d)

Inductors

46.

If an atom has more electrons than it does protons, it is called __________. Select one:

a)

A negative ion

b)

A positive ion

c)

A neutral atom

d)

A proton-rich atom

47.

The speed of electron travel through a conductor from atom to atom is known as _________.

a)

Current

b)

Amplitude

c)

Resistance

d)

Power

e)

Voltage

48.

__________ is the term used that describes the number of electrons moving in a circuit.

a)

Resistance

b)

Current

c)

Voltage

d)

Power

e)

Amperage

49.

__________ is the unit for measuring electrical power.

a)

Watts

b)

Volts

c)

Ohms

d)

Amperes

50.

What is the unit for AC frequency called?

a)

Ohm

b)

Hertz

c)

Voltage

d)

Watt

51.

Which of the following uses a single driver in a lead truck and has multiple driverless trucks that follow the lead truck?

a)

Radar system

b)

Platooning

c)

Lidar

d)

Cruise control

52.

Which of these electrical components protects electrical circuits from heating and burning caused by excessive amperage?

a)

Fuse

b)

Resistor

c)

Capacitor

d)

Inductor

53.

Which of these electrical terms is very much similar to the mechanical term "friction"?

a)

Voltage

b)

Amperage

c)

Wattage

d)

Resistance

54.

Which of these instances causes the flow of electricity?

a)

Positive ion placed near neutral ion

b)

Positive ion placed near negative ion

c)

Negative ion placed near negative ion

d)

Negative ion placed near neutral ion

55.

Which of these statements is false about direct current (DC)?

a)

DC flows only in one direction.

b)

DC flows from a negative to a positive.

c)

DC flows when electrons are alternatively pushed and pulled.

d)

DC voltage on a graph produces a straight line.

56.

__________ has a mandate to have radar-based collision-avoidance systems in vehicles.

a)

Europe

b)

North America

c)

Asia

d)

Australia

57.

__________ is the term for liquids that conduct electric current.

a)

Ion

b)

Insulator

c)

Impurity

d)

Electrolytes

58.

When a gas conducts electricity, it is said to be in a ___________ state.

a)

Liquid

b)

Plasma

c)

Solid

d)

Gaseous

59.

Which of the following prevents the flow of electricity?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Conductor

c)

Capacitor

d)

Insulator

60.

Which of these statements is NOT true about electric current?

a)

Electric current is produced by the flow of positive charges.

b)

Electrostatic forces are essential to produce the flow of electrical current.

c)

A proton repels another proton.

d)

Electric current can be converted into different forms of energy.

61.

__________ is a term that describes a property of electrical particles that either repels or attracts other electrical particles.

a)

Electrostatic force

b)

Resistance

c)

Current

d)

Electromagnetism

e)

Voltage

62.

All of the following are examples of telematics, EXCEPT:

a)

Vehicle to vehicle

b)

Vehicle to remote location

c)

Internet, satellite, or cell

d)

Remote fueling

63.

In an electric circuit or any electrical device, the push and pull producing the movement of electricity is supplied by __________.

a)

Electromagnetism

b)

Electrostatic force

c)

Friction

d)

Photoelectric effect

64.

Beginning in 2017, the NHTSA requires __________ on all class 7 and 8 vehicles.

a)

Collision avoidance

b)

Stability control

c)

Telematics

d)

GHG legislation

65.

Air conditioning systems absorb heat from a cab interior through a(n) __________.

a)

Condenser

b)

Evaporator

c)

Compressor

d)

Blower

66.

Air conditioning systems transfer heat to the atmosphere using a(n) __________.

a)

Condenser

b)

Compressor

c)

Evaporator

d)

Filter

e)

Blower

67.

Although refrigerants are relatively safe, they are considered to be __________.

a)

Penetrants

b)

Absorbents

c)

Irritants

d)

Suffocants

e)

Corrosives

68.

Hydrofluoro-olefin (HFO)-based refrigerant has a GWP that is __________% lower than R134a.

a)

89.7

b)

80

c)

33.2

d)

50

e)

99.7

69.

Which of the following is a replacement for Freon? Select one:

a)

R-502

b)

R-22

c)

R-11

d)

R-134a

70.

Which of the following was produced by reacting carbon tetrachloride with fluorine gas? Select one:

a)

HFO

b)

Freon

c)

HCHC

d)

R-135a

71.

A comfortable vehicle environment reduces driver __________. Select one:

a)

Vigor

b)

Fatigue and distraction

c)

Certainty and tranquility

d)

Toughness

72.

How do the late-model vehicles help maintain a cleaner and dust-free cab interior? Select one:

a)

Equipped with an air ventilator located at the cab air inlet

b)

Equipped with an air filter located at the cab air inlet

c)

Equipped with an air compressor located at the cab air inlet

d)

Equipped with an air filter located at the cab air outlet

73.

Moisture condensed on a cold __________ helps remove dirt and other air particulates. Select one:

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Radiator

d)

Heater

74.

The air conditioning system can operate to clear the windows with greater efficiency than a heated ___________ alone.

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Defroster

d)

Separator

75.

Which measurement of heat best explains the amount of heat from the sun potentially entering the cab?

a)

Heat load

b)

Planck's law of radiation

c)

One calorie

d)

Kelvin

76.

Which of the following holds true about air conditioning system?

a)

The compressor is located before the heater core.

b)

Before moisture-laden outside air reaches the heater core, the air conditioning system dehumidifies the air.

c)

Warm, wet air is blown over the windows to improve visibility more quickly.

d)

The condenser is positioned in parallel with the heater core airflow.

77.

Which of the following is a safety benefit of air conditioning?

a)

Ability to clean and filter air entering the passenger compartment

b)

Reduces driver vigor

c)

Ability to osmose the air entering the operator compartment

d)

Ability to assimilate dirt

78.

___________ is a metric term for the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C.

a)

Specific heat

b)

Calorie

c)

Joule

d)

Watt

79.

Heat measured using a thermometer is referred to as __________ heat.

a)

Sensible

b)

Latent

c)

Specific

d)

Radiant

80.

Heating is regulated by circulating engine coolant through an in-cab heat exchanger called a __________.

a)

Heat core

b)

Radiator

c)

Condenser

d)

Evaporator

81.

What is the measuring unit required to change one pound of water to one pound of ice or vice versa?

a)

144 BTU

b)

1 BTU

c)

12,000 BTU/h

d)

126,000 BTU/h

82.

Which measurement of heat best describes the quantity of heat required to produce a change of state from a solid to a liquid or a liquid to a gas?

a)

Latent heat

b)

Radiant heat

c)

Specific heat

d)

Sensible heat

83.

Which of the following best explains conduction? Select one:

a)

Conduction takes place when heat is transferred through liquid.

b)

Conduction takes place when heat is transferred through a solid.

c)

Conduction refers to the transfer of heat through a gas.

d)

Conduction takes place through a medium such as a gas or vacuum.

84.

Which of the following holds true about latent heat of fusion? Select one:

a)

The amount of heat a substance must absorb to undergo a temperature change of 1°F

b)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C

c)

The process of changing water to ice

d)

Describes the quantity of heat required to produce a change of state from a solid to a liquid

85.

Which of the following is one of the rules that summarizes the basic principles of refrigeration? Select one:

a)

Heat can pass into anything that has more heat.

b)

If there is no change of state, there must be a transfer of heat.

c)

Latent heat of vaporization is used to absorb small amounts of heat inside the cab.

d)

To refrigerate is to remove heat.

86.

Which of the following units can reduce idle time by using an electrically operated compressor? Select one:

a)

Auxiliary air conditioning unit

b)

Cabin air conditioning unit

c)

Latent heat unit

d)

Compressor unit

87.

The process of evaporating refrigerant is completed by using __________.

a)

Removal of heat from refrigerant

b)

Specific heat

c)

Latent heat of evaporation

d)

Latent heat of condensation

88.

Which of the following holds true for latent heat of condensation?

a)

Using a refrigerant compressor and a condenser enables the process of latent heat removal.

b)

Reducing the pressure of the refrigerant causes the refrigerant to cool.

c)

Compressing the gas and sharply increasing its pressure causes the refrigerant to convert into a solid.

d)

If compressed gas is circulated through a condenser, large amounts of specific heat are transferred from the gas to the atmosphere.

89.

Which of the following holds true for latent heat of evaporation?

a)

Reducing the pressure of the refrigerant causes the refrigerant to boil.

b)

Cabin air is the best source of coolant.

c)

Cooler cabin air results from the heat transfer into the condensing refrigerant.

90.

The liquid does not simply change temperature, but changes state, and much more heat is evacuated by the refrigerant. __________ liquid leaves the condenser.

a)

Low-pressure, cold

b)

High-pressure, cold

c)

Low-pressure, warm

d)

High-pressure, warm

91.

Consider a rotatory compressor having cylindrical-shaped housings and enclosing multiple pistons. Which of the following is the primary advantage of rotatory piston compressors?

a)

Minimization of noise

b)

Maximization of vibration

c)

Maximization of harshness (NVH)

d)

Minimization of compressor energy

92.

Rotary compressors in trucks will have a displacement of __________ cubic inches. Select one:

a)

3 to 6

b)

7 to 15

c)

15 to 19

d)

20 to 23

93.

The __________ is one of the principal parts of refrigeration system. Select one:

a)

Condenser

b)

Belt

c)

Switch

d)

Piston

94.

What are the three basic types of air conditioning compressors that can be used to build pressure exceeding 350 psi? Select one:

a)

Piston, centrifugal compressor, and rotatory screw

b)

Piston, rolling piston, and rotatory screw

c)

Piston, rotary vane, and scroll

d)

Piston, centrifugal compressor, and diaphragm

95.

What are the two major types of expansion devices used in commercial vehicle air conditioning systems? Select one:

a)

Thermostatic expansion valve (TXV) and a fixed-orifice tube

b)

Suction valve and a fixed-orifice tube

c)

TVX and a concentric orifice tube

d)

Suction valve and discharge valve

96.

Which of the following holds true for refrigeration systems? Select one:

a)

They add moisture to the air passing through the evaporator.

b)

The compressor is an engine-driven pump that decreases refrigerant pressure.

c)

Air conditioning and refrigeration systems transfer heat from the cab and passenger compartment to the air stream outside the vehicle.

d)

The compressor’s capacity to remove refrigerant

97.

Which of the following is a primary determinant of the system’s ability to remove heat? Select one:

a)

The evaporator’s capacity to add refrigerant

b)

The evaporator’s capacity to remove the clutch

c)

The compressor’s capacity to move refrigerant

d)

The compressor’s capacity to remove refrigerant

98.

Which of the following is NOT a common compressor control? Select one:

a)

Thermostatic switch

b)

Pressure modulator switch

c)

Trinary switch

d)

High-pressure cutout switch

99.

The condition where excess refrigerant floods the evaporator is called evaporator __________. Select one:

a)

Frost

b)

Freezing

c)

Sub-zero

d)

Pressure regulation

100.

The purpose of the pressure cycling switch is to maintain an evaporator pressure of approximately __________. Select one:

a)

29 psi

b)

49 psi

c)

39 psi

d)

59 psi

101.

The thermal expansion valve device lowers the pressure of the warm, high-pressure liquid refrigerant entering the __________.

a)

evaporator

b)

compressor

c)

condenser

d)

receiver

102.

The thermal expansion valve spring is generally adjusted to provide for a temperature differential of __________.

a)

42°F to 14°F

b)

4°F to 16°F

c)

6°F to 18°F

d)

8°F to 20°F

103.

Which of these holds true for H-Valve thermal expansion valve (TXV) operation?

a)

TXV meters the refrigerant into the evaporator at a variable rate.

b)

It maintains the evaporator at low temperature and pressure.

c)

Spring tension acting on the orifice ball regulates the quality of refrigerant flow.

d)

Inlet temperature also can change the position of the linkage.

104.

An important component in the cooling action of the evaporator is the __________ located in the evaporator housing.

a)

Blower fan

b)

Receiver drier

c)

Condenser fan

d)

Driver evaporator module

105.

The coldest air temperature from the evaporator is when the blower is operated at its ________ speed.

a)

Molecular

b)

Slowest

c)

Fastest

d)

Road

106.

Which of the following holds true for evaporators? Select one.

a)

When a gas evaporates, it must radiate a tremendous amount of heat to change state.

b)

The source of heat is cold moist cabin air blowing under the surface of the evaporator.

c)

The evaporator is a heat exchanger located inside the cab or passenger compartment.

d)

The serpentine coil evaporator is constructed from a metal coil mounted parallel to thick heating fins.

107.

Which of the following is NOT correct concerning the evaporator? Select one.

a)

The evaporator is a heat exchanger located inside the cab or passenger compartment containing the chamber where refrigerant boils and converts to a vapor.

b)

The evaporator does not remove moisture from the cabin air.

c)

Like the condenser, the evaporator has a couple of common constructions.

d)

The serpentine coil evaporator is constructed from a metal coil mounted in a series of thin cooling fins.

108.

A glass insert at the receiver-dryer outlet allows the technician to detect __________. Select one.

a)

Undercharged refrigerant

b)

Low heat loads

c)

Potential moisture

d)

Line corrosion

109.

The __________ is located in the low-pressure side of the system. Select one.

a)

Dryer

b)

Accumulator

c)

Compressor

d)

Condenser

110.

The accumulator has functions similar to the __________.

a)

Condenser

b)

Compressor

c)

Evaporator

d)

Receiver dryer

111.

Which of the following is the primary function of the receiver-dryer?

a)

To absorb any moisture in the air conditioning system

b)

To serve as a storage reservoir for refrigerant

c)

The drying agent excludes any potential moisture from the refrigerant.

d)

At higher engine speeds and low heat loads, the receiver-dryer floods with liquid.

112.

Refrigerant must dissolve __________ and move it through the system.

a)

Acidity

b)

Dust

c)

Moisture

d)

Contaminants

e)

Oil

113.

The most common refrigerant, R-134a, has a GWP of __________.

a)

1400

b)

1200

c)

1000

d)

1700

114.

What is the application of tetrafluoroethane?

a)

CFC replacement for low-temperature commercial refrigeration

b)

Automotive and residential refrigeration systems

c)

R-22 CFC replacement

d)

R-12 replacement

115.

What is the viscosity of the oil used in reciprocating piston compressors?

a)

10-30w

b)

15-40w

c)

85-100w

d)

90-120w

116.

When released into the atmosphere, HFO-1234yf decomposes, giving it a lifetime of __________.

a)

11 days

b)

1 year

c)

10 years

d)

100 years

117.

Which one of these is an ideal refrigerant property? Select one:

a)

A high boiling point and freezing point

b)

A high sensible heat and low boiling point

c)

A low freezing point and high sensible heat

d)

A low specific heat and high latent heat

118.

The air conditioning controls are necessary to __________. Select one:

a)

Adjust operator comfort levels in the cab of the vehicle

b)

Expose major components to damage

c)

Increase fuel efficiency

d)

Reduce engine noise

e)

Enhance vehicle speed

119.

What switch has three sets of internal contacts? Select one:

a)

Trinary

b)

Thermostatic

c)

Pressure-cycling

d)

Ambient temperature

120.

When a predetermined low charge is sensed in CCOT (orifice-tube) systems, the ________ switch stops compressor operation. Select one:

a)

Pressure-cycling

b)

Low-pressure cutout

c)

High-pressure cutout

d)

High-pressure fan

121.

Which of the following holds true for the ambient temperature switch? Select one:

a)

It is designed to delay evaporator operation when it senses a very low outside air temperature.

b)

At cold ambient temperatures, this sensing switch closes its electrical contacts.

c)

The ambient temperature switch is a cabin air temperature-sensing switch.

d)

The ambient temperature switch contacts open when a preset temperature is reached, normally 42°F to 70°F.

122.

__________ is when the thermostatic sensor prevents the compressor from operating if it detects an evaporator condition. Select one:

a)

High-pressure cutout

b)

High-pressure reset

c)

Freeze-up protection

d)

Diagnostic cutout

123.

__________ is claimed to eliminate the problems that make the air-conditioning system one of the highest maintenance expense items for most

a)

APADS

b)

CCOT

c)

TXV

d)

NVH

124.

__________ prevents low-voltage compressor clutch burnout.

a)

Compressor lubrication period

b)

High-pressure reset

c)

Voltage stabilizer

d)

Compressor cycle limit

e)

Compressor hold-off period

125.

The thermostat contacts close when the temperature is greater than __________.

a)

38°F

b)

28°F

c)

40°F

d)

37°F

126.

Whenever a system fault is detected, the __________.

a)

Air conditioning protection and diagnostic system (APADS) receives inputs from the vehicle data link

b)

Compressor is not allowed to run

c)

Air conditioning system is turned off

d)

APADS broadcasts diagnostic information over the data bus

127.

Which of the following best explains APADS? Select one:

a)

The unit receives input from two trinary switches and a thermostat.

b)

Operates both air conditioning controls and analog controls

c)

Extends the lifespan of the air conditioning system on medium- and heavy-duty trucks

d)

The output signals are interpreted by control logic.

128.

On late-model vehicles, air door actuators, as well as the blower motor, use (a) ________. Select one:

a)

Brushless DC stepper motor

b)

Temperature bled door

c)

Condensate-free windshield

d)

Blower fan

129.

Which of the following holds true for the vent defrost door? Select one:

a)

Mixes the proportion of inside and outside air drawn into the blower motor

b)

Directs air to the floor

c)

Directs air to vent or defrost ducts

d)

Blends air conditioning and heater core air flow

130.

Which one of the following is a standard mode of air distribution? Select one:

a)

Defrost mode

b)

MIN air conditioning mode

c)

High level mode

d)

Level mode

131.

Which of the following functions of an air conditioning system is directly related to safe vehicle operation? Select one:

a)

It reduces driver fatigue.

b)

It cleans and filters air.

c)

It keeps the operator and passengers comfortable.

d)

It is automatically activated in defrost mode.

132.

Which of the following is the most recent category or type of air conditioning refrigerant? Select one:

a)

Freon

b)

R-134a

c)

HFO

d)

HCHC

133.

Consider a truck with 36,000 BTU cooling capacity. How many tons of air conditioning does this system have? Select one:

a)

1 ton

b)

2 tons

c)

3 tons

d)

4 tons

134.

Which measurement of heat best describes the amount required to produce a change of state?

a)

Latent

b)

Sensible

c)

Radiant

d)

Convection

135.

What would be the equivalent pressure in "psig" units be for a 3-psia measured at sea level?

a)

0 psig

b)

3 psig

c)

-3 psig

d)

17.7 psig

136.

How is lubricating oil circulated in an air conditioning system?

a)

Refrigerant dissolves oil like a solvent and circulates oil.

b)

The compressor pumps oil.

c)

It is stored in each component needing oil for lubrication.

d)

The velocity of refrigerant gas carries oil.

137.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the TXV expansion device?

a)

The TXV expansion device lowers the pressure of the warm, high-pressure liquid refrigerant entering the evaporator and allows the refrigerant to expand to greater volume.

b)

An orifice in the TXV creates a pressure differential, forming the dividing point in the low side of the air conditioning system.

c)

The high-side pressure and low-side temperature regulate the valve operation.

d)

It must be combined with a high-side pressure switch to regulate evaporator temperature.

138.

How many cylinders does a rotary compressor typically have that is used in a highway tractor?

a)

2-4

b)

4-8

c)

5-10

d)

6-12

139.

Which of the following devices senses evaporator pressure to control the cycling of the air conditioning clutch in a Navistar CCOT system? Select one:

a)

Thermistors

b)

Pressure transducer and high-pressure switch

c)

Cab thermostatic switch

d)

CAN controls