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Advanced Biochemistry - 2022 MCQs

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the correct order of events during an action potential?

a)

(A) -> (B) -> (C) -> (D)

b)

(D) -> (A) -> (B) -> (C)

c)

(D) -> (A) -> (C) -> (B)

d)

(C) -> (A) -> (B) -> (D)

e)

(A) -> (C) -> (B) -> (D)

2.

What is the biochemical mechanism behind the refractory period of electrically excitable cells?

a)

The cell needs time to re-establish Na+ balance.

b)

The Na+ channel voltage sensor blocks the channel.

c)

The Na+ channel voltage sensor alters the selectivity filter characteristics.

d)

The Ca2+ channel is activated, flooding the cytoplasm with more positive charge.

e)

The Na+ channel’s gate closes for a specific period of time based on the duration that it was previously open.

3.

Solute binding in transporter mediated diffusion can be blocked by ______.

a)

Inhibitors

b)

GTP

c)

Divalent cations

d)

Divalent anions

e)

ATP

4.

______ transporters constitute the largest family of membrane transport protein.

a)

V-type proton pump

b)

K+ ion

c)

Ca2+ ion

d)

P-type pump

e)

ABC

5.

What is the primary characteristic of plants that are defective in chlorophyll synthesis?

a)

They are light sensitive.

b)

They are yellow and are unable to develop into mature plants.

c)

They accumulate aminolevulinate.

d)

They have abnormal leaf morphology.

e)

All of the above.

6.

Mutant analysis is one method of providing information about biosynthetic pathways. Which of the following characteristics of a mutant would be most helpful in elucidating the pathway?

a)

The mutant accumulates a substrate in the pathway.

b)

Growth of the mutant on a wide range of medias.

c)

Sequence of the mutant’s 16S rRNA gene.

d)

The mutant is able to incorporate radiolabelled S35-Methionine.

e)

None of the above.

7.

Which of the following best describes the cause of the porphyria disease group?

a)

Light sensitivity.

b)

Propensity to develop dementia.

c)

Defect in chlorophyll biosynthesis.

d)

Defect in phytochrome biosynthesis.

e)

Defect in heme biosynthesis.

8.

Scientists can determine if a biosynthetic pathway is present in an organism with a sequenced genome by …

a)

Scanning for orthologous proteins based on known gene sequences.

b)

Scanning for synonymous proteins based on known gene sequences.

c)

Growing the organism on an alternative carbon source.

d)

Growing the organism on an alternative sugar source.

e)

None of the above.

9.

Aminolevulinic acid synthesis can proceed by two pathways, the …

a)

Shemin pathway using acetyl-CoA and glycine substrates and the C5 pathway using glutamate substrate.

b)

Shemin pathway using succinyl-CoA and proline substrates and the C5 pathway using aspartate substrate.

c)

Shemin pathway using acetyl-CoA and glycine substrates and the C5 pathway using aspartate substrate.

d)

Shemin pathway using acetyl-CoA and glycine substrates and the C5 pathway using glutamate substrate.

e)

Shemin pathway using succinyl-CoA and glycine substrates and the C5 pathway using glutamate substrate.

10.

What technique is used to elucidate steps within biosynthetic pathways?

a)

Cloning whole organisms.

b)

Enzyme degradation.

c)

Mutant complementation.

d)

Isotonic tracers.

e)

None of the above.

11.

Which of the following is required for protein import into mitochondria?

a)

GTP hydrolysis.

b)

ATP hydrolysis.

c)

Signal sequence with many acid residues.

d)

A protein that is fully folded.

e)

Ca²⁺ gradient to power the membrane translocator.

12.

What is the dominant method of protein import into the mitochondria?

a)

Co-translational translocation.

b)

Co-translational insertion.

c)

Post-translational translocation.

d)

Post-translational insertion.

e)

None of the above.

13.

What is the dominant method of protein import into the ER?

a)

Co-translational translocation.

b)

Co-translational insertion.

c)

Post-translational translocation.

d)

Post-translational insertion.

e)

None of the above.

14.

Which one of the following statements of nuclear protein transport is correct?

a)

All proteins can passively diffuse in and out of the nucleus.

b)

Proteins can only be transported in one direction from the cytosol to the nucleus.

c)

Specific proteins with signal peptides are rapidly transported both in and out of the nucleus.

d)

Viruses cannot enter the nucleus through the nuclear pore.

e)

None of the above.

15.

Cellular organelles enable …

a)

Compartmentalisation of chemical reactions

b)

Segregation of genetic material from the cytoplasm

c)

Physical separation of proteases from targets

d)

Increased membrane surface area

e)

All of the above

16.

Identify the COPI-coated vesicle(s) in the diagram above.

a)

A-only

b)

B-only

c)

C-only

d)

Both A and B

e)

Both B and C

17.

Identify which vesicle(s) in the diagram above would contain SNAREs.

a)

A-only

b)

B-only

c)

C-only

d)

Both A and C

e)

A, B, and C

18.

Vesicle formation, targeting, and fusion are processes facilitated by:

a)

Rab proteins, glycolipids, and SNARE proteins, respectively.

b)

SNARE proteins, Rab proteins, and dynamin, respectively.

c)

Coat proteins, Ras proteins, and SNARE proteins, respectively.

d)

Coat proteins, Rab proteins, and SNARE proteins, respectively.

e)

Shell proteins, Erk proteins, and SNAP proteins, respectively.

19.

A pathway NOT used to deliver material to lysosomes is:

a)

Phagocytosis.

b)

Autophagy.

c)

Endocytosis.

d)

Constitutive exocytosis.

e)

Macropinocytosis.

20.

Protein N-linked glycosylation…

a)

Is the attachment of complex carbohydrates on Asn residues in only specific motifs of newly synthesised proteins

b)

Is a very common type of protein glycosylation

c)

Is a co-translational modification initiated in the ER

d)

Is involved in the quality control of protein folding

e)

All of the above

21.

Important characteristic(s) of lysosomes include….

a)

The high concentration of cytoskeletal proteins defining the structure of the lysosome

b)

The presence of many hydrolases involved in the digestion of various biomolecules

c)

An alkaline environment that differs from the pH in the extracellular environment

d)

An abundance of nuclear pore complexes that allow rapid movement of protein from the cytosol into the lysosome

e)

None of the above

22.

Autophagy….

a)

Degrades unwanted proteins and organelles

b)

Degrades unwanted bacterial cells

c)

Degrades phage

d)

Is a form of programmed cell death

e)

Is a form of apoptosis

23.

A cell expresses a transmembrane protein that is cleaved at the plasma membrane to release an extracellular fragment. The fragment binds to receptor proteins on nearby cells and activates signaling pathways resulting in altered gene expression patterns in the cells. What form of intercellular signaling does this represent?

a)

Contact-dependent signaling.

b)

Paracrine signaling.

c)

Synaptic signaling.

d)

Endocrine signaling.

e)

Autocrine signaling.

24.

What is the expected phenotypic outcome of the activation of the pathway depicted in the figure?

a)

Increased glucose uptake into the cell

b)

Activation of the T-cell through changes in cytoskeletal dynamics

c)

Suppression of the immune response

d)

Initiation of cell apoptosis

25.

Which of the following is NOT a common second messenger in cell signaling?

a)

Proline

b)

Ca²⁺

c)

Diacylglycerol

d)

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate

e)

Inositol trisphosphate

26.

Intracellular signalling occurs by ____ hydrolysis or _____ transfer and exchange.

a)

GTP / ATP

b)

Ca²⁺ / ATP

c)

ATP / GTP

d)

ATP / Ca²⁺

e)

cAMP / IP₃

27.

Whereas the cholera toxin ADP-ribosylates the α subunit of stimulatory G protein (Gs), thereby blocking GTP hydrolysis, pertussis toxin ADP-ribosylates the α subunit of inhibitory G protein (Gi) and prevents interaction with the receptor. What is the expected effect of these toxins on the concentration of intracellular cAMP?

a)

Cholera toxin tends to increase cAMP concentration, whereas pertussis toxin tends to decrease cAMP concentration

b)

Cholera toxin tends to decrease cAMP concentration, whereas pertussis toxin tends to increase cAMP concentration

c)

They both tend to increase cAMP concentration

d)

They both tend to decrease cAMP concentration

e)

None of the above

28.

Consider a signaling protein that is only made up of one SH2 domain and two SH3 domains. This protein is most likely …

a)

a monomeric G protein.

b)

a guanine nucleotide exchange factor.

c)

a kinase associated with receptor tyrosine kinase signaling.

d)

an adaptor protein.

e)

a negative regulator of receptor tyrosine kinase signaling.

29.

G-Protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) are 7 transmembrane domain receptors that upon ligand binding …

a)

Open their ion channel to enable transport across the membrane.

b)

Activate a trimeric G protein α-subunit.

c)

Autophosphorylate, thereby becoming activated.

d)

Cause release of Ca²⁺ stores.

e)

Activate dimeric GTPases.

30.

Cytochalasin B is toxic to our cells through which mechanism?

a)

It caps microtubule ends and leads to their depolymerization.

b)

It binds to tubulin subunits and prevents microtubule polymerization.

c)

It binds along actin filaments and stabilizes them.

d)

It caps the plus end of actin filaments and prevents actin polymerization.

e)

All of the above.

31.

During actin filament elongation phase, actin subunits add …

a)

Faster to filament (+) ends.

b)

Faster to filament (−) ends.

c)

Equally to both filament ends.

d)

Along the length of filaments.

e)

None of the above.

32.

Mutations that cause defective keratin filament networks are in genes encoding components of which cytoskeleton class?

a)

Actin.

b)

Microtubules.

c)

Intermediate filaments.

d)

Myosin.

e)

Dynamin.

33.

Which important cell structure is formed from microtubules?

a)

Contractile bundles.

b)

Stress fibres.

c)

Nuclear lamina.

d)

Basal lamina.

e)

Centrosome.

34.

How does the ARP2/3 complex contribute to the overall pathway depicted in the figure?

a)

It phosphorylates ZAP70.

b)

It mediates F-actin depolymerization.

c)

It stabilizes and polymerizes F-actin to support T-cell activation.

d)

It recruits integrins to the plasma membrane.

35.

The actin-nucleating protein formin has flexible “whiskers” containing binding sites that help recruit actin subunits in order to enhance polymerization by this protein. What protein would you expect to bind to these sites?

a)

Thymosin.

b)

Profilin.

c)

Cofilin.

d)

Gelsolin.

e)

Tropomodulin.

36.

How is microtubule stabilization and destabilization regulated within cells?

a)

The balance of cellular ATP levels.

b)

Protein factors such as kinesin-13.

c)

The balance of cellular GTP levels.

d)

Gamma (γ)-tubulin ring complexes.

e)

Protein factors such as formin.

37.

The myosin motor protein …

a)

Assembles on intermediate filaments and generates movement through GTP hydrolysis

b)

Assembles on intermediate filaments and generates movement through ATP hydrolysis

c)

Assembles on actin filaments and generates movement through GTP hydrolysis

d)

Assembles on actin filaments and generates movement through ATP hydrolysis

e)

Assembles on microtubules and generates movement through GTP hydrolysis

38.

The motor proteins associated with microtubules are …

a)

Dynein and kinesin

b)

Dynein and myosin

c)

Dynamin and myosin

d)

Myosin and kinesin

e)

Dynamin and kinesin

39.

DNA damage arrests the cell in G₁ through …

a)

Phosphorylation of p53

b)

Production of p21 Cdk inhibitor protein

c)

Inactivation of G₁/S-Cdk

d)

Inactivation of S-Cdk

e)

All of the above

40.

Cell-cycle control depends on …

a)

Bicyclins and Ccks

b)

Cyclins and Cdks

c)

The circadian rhythm

d)

The nuclear clock

e)

None of the above

41.

Which immune event is occurring in the figure with the formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC)?

a)

Direct neutralization of bacteria by antibodies

b)

Destruction of bacterial cells by punching holes in their membranes

c)

Activation of macrophages to engulf bacteria

d)

Recruitment of neutrophils to the site of infection

42.

The two key events within the cell cycle are …

a)

Replication of protein and cell merging

b)

Replication of RNA and cell division

c)

Replication of RNA and cell merging

d)

Replication of DNA and cell division

e)

Replication of DNA and cell joining

43.

Which cellular activity is most closely associated with caspases?

a)

Meiosis.

b)

Exocytosis.

c)

Cytokinesis.

d)

Necrosis.

e)

Apoptosis.

44.

A tight junction requires …

a)

Claudin and occludin

b)

Claudin and occultin

c)

Clonin and occludin

d)

Clonin and occultin

e)

None of the above

45.

For cell-cell junctions, scaffold proteins, such as the ZO proteins, can …

a)

Bind multiple adherens junctions together

b)

Bind multiple tight junctions together

c)

Bind tight junctions to other junction types

d)

Bind desmoplakin junctions to other junction types

e)

Bind hole junctions to other junction types

46.

What role do RAC1 and CDC42 play in the molecular process shown?

a)

They function as signaling molecules that regulate GTP binding and F-actin polymerization.

b)

They function as protein kinases that directly phosphorylate TCR

c)

They regulate the degradation of the antigen presented by the MHC.

d)

They bind to integrins to initiate signal transduction.

47.

In a classic experiment, H. V. Wilson studied aggregation of mechanically dissociated individual sponge cells from two different species. He found that the cells of each species would adhere to one another but not to cells of the other species. The most likely factor causing this result would be that …

a)

The different species express different keratins.

b)

The different species express different lamins.

c)

The different species express different integrins.

d)

The different species express different actins.

e)

The different species express different cadherins.

48.

The desmosome connects …

a)

Actin cytoskeleton between two cells

b)

Actin cytoskeleton between a cell and the extracellular matrix

c)

Intermediate filaments between two cells

d)

Intermediate filaments between a cell and the extracellular matrix

e)

Integrin to α-catenin

49.

A gap junction …

a)

Enables free diffusion of proteins between neighbouring cells

b)

Does not contribute to cell-cell adhesion

c)

Does not allow an electrical connection between cells

d)

Spans both cells with a total of 2 transmembrane connexin subunits

e)

None of the above

50.

How does hyaluronic acid differ from other glycosaminoglycans of the extracellular matrix?

a)

It lacks sulfate groups.

b)

It is generally not covalently linked to proteins.

c)

It is not assembled in the Golgi apparatus.

d)

It can be several megadaltons in mass.

e)

All of the above.

51.

Talin is to the actin-linked cell-matrix junction as …

a)

E-cadherin is to the adherens junction.

b)

E-cadherin is to the tight junction.

c)

α-catenin is to the adherens junction.

d)

α-catenin is to the tight junction.

e)

Plekstrin is to the desmosome.

52.

Cell movement over an extracellular matrix involves …

a)

Desmosomes and intermediate filaments.

b)

Desmosomes and microtubules.

c)

Integrins and microtubules.

d)

Integrins and actin.

e)

Integrins and kinesin.

53.

Which of the following is the term used to describe a thin, sheet-like meshwork of extracellular matrix components that can be found underlying epithelial cells?

a)

Basal lamina

b)

Basement layer

c)

Gap junction

d)

Cell wall

e)

Collagen

54.

Components of the innate immune system include …

a)

A cells and B cells.

b)

B cells and T cellls

c)

Neutrophils and B cells.

d)

Neutrophils and T cells

e)

Macrophages and Neutrophils.

55.

Components of the adaptive immune system include …

a)

A cells and B cells.

b)

B cells and T cells.

c)

Neutrophils and B cells.

d)

Neutrophils and T cells

e)

Macrophages and Neutrophils.

56.

The immune cell type involved in triggering apoptosis in targeted cells is a …

a)

B cell

b)

Cytotoxic T cell

c)

Helper T cell

d)

Regulatory T cell

e)

Cardiomyocyte

57.

Dendritic cells …

a)

Can activate B cells in the peripheral tissues

b)

Can activate B cells in the lymph nodes

c)

Can activate T cells in the peripheral tissues

d)

Can activate T cells in the lymph nodes

e)

None of the above

58.

What role do C3a and C5a play in the immune response depicted in the figure?

a)

They promote phagocytosis of bacterial cells by macrophages.

b)

They stimulate the production of antibodies.

c)

They act as chemoattractants, recruiting immune cells to the site of infection.

d)

They inhibit the formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC).

59.

Mutations in the important cancer-critical gene encoding p53 is commonly found in cancers. What type of mutations are these expected to be?

a)

Loss-of-function mutation in both copies.

b)

Loss-of-function mutation in one copy.

c)

Gain-of-function mutation in both copies.

d)

Gain-of-function mutation in one copy.

e)

None of the above.

60.

In intrinsic apoptosis, cytochrome c binds to which protein complex to activate caspase-9?

a)

Apoptosome

b)

Death-inducing signaling complex (DISC)

c)

Death receptor

d)

Mitochondrial membrane

61.

Which molecular process depicted in the figure is involved in the activation of F-actin polymerization and stabilization?

a)

RAC1 activation and the ARP2/3 complex

b)

CDC42 activation and WASP complex

c)

Binding of IP3 to calcium channels

d)

Both A and B

62.

Identify what type of membrane protein A and B are and whether they function by passive or active transport mechanism.

a)

Protein A is a sodium-glucose symporter (active transport), and Protein B is a glucose uniporter (passive transport).

b)

Protein A is a glucose uniporter (passive transport), and Protein B is a sodium-glucose symporter (active transport).

c)

Protein A is a sodium-glucose symporter (passive transport), and Protein B is a glucose uniporter (active transport).

d)

Protein A is an enzyme (active transport), and Protein B is a glucose uniporter (passive transport).

63.

Describe what junction(s) may be involved in the area circled in the diagram and what functional role they play in the function of the tissue.

a)

Tight junctions - prevent leakage of extracellular fluid

b)

Gap junctions - allow communication between cells

c)

Desmosomes - provide mechanical strength

d)

Adherens junctions - connect actin filaments between cells

64.

What did Shemin eat to investigate how heme was made in animals?

a)

A. Radioactive glycine

b)

B. Vitamin C

c)

C. Iron supplements

d)

D. Protein shakes

65.

What are two main destinations for protein after being made in the ER and processed in the Golgi apparatus?

a)

Plasma membrane and extracellular space

b)

Nucleus and mitochondria

c)

Cytoplasm and ribosomes

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus

66.

Proteins that are synthesised in the cytosol are trafficked to the nucleus through which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Through the endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Via nuclear pore complexes

c)

By vesicular transport

d)

Through the Golgi apparatus

67.

Compare and contrast the smooth ER and rough ER.

a)

Smooth ER is involved in lipid synthesis, while rough ER is involved in protein synthesis.

b)

Smooth ER has ribosomes on its surface, while rough ER does not.

c)

Both smooth ER and rough ER are involved in protein synthesis.

d)

Rough ER is involved in detoxification, while smooth ER is not.

68.

What is the purpose of mannose 6-phosphate in cells?

a)

It acts as a signal for protein targeting to lysosomes.

b)

It tags proteins for secretion outside the cell.

c)

It activates proteins for use in the cytosol.

d)

It directs proteins to the plasma membrane.

69.

How is an extracellular signal converted into an intracellular signal?

a)

The signal binds to a transporter protein, which directly moves the signal inside the cell.

b)

The signal binds to a receptor on the cell membrane, triggering a signaling cascade inside the cell.

c)

The signal enters the cell through endocytosis, where it binds to intracellular organelles.

d)

The signal directly passes through the membrane and binds to cytoplasmic proteins.

70.

Which of the following is NOT a way that cells can adjust their sensitivity to an extracellular signal?

a)

By altering the number of receptors on the cell surface

b)

Desensitization by receptor phosphorylation

c)

Receptor endocytosis and degradation

d)

Modifying gene expression to produce more receptors

e)

Reducing the concentration of intracellular second messengers

71.

Listeria monocytogenes uses the bacterially-encoded ActA protein to hijack one part of a eukaryotic cell’s cytoskeleton. Identify the cytoskeleton filament and host accessory protein to facilitate this hijacking

a)

Microtubules, Tubulin

b)

Actin filaments, Profilin

c)

Intermediate filaments, Myosin

d)

Actin filaments, Tropomyosin

72.

Fill in the blanks below with the most appropriate word (2 marks): Cdk levels are __________________ throughout cell-cycle _______________ regulate checkpoints in cycle cell progression

a)

Cdk levels are constant throughout cell-cycle Cyclins regulate checkpoints in cycle cell progression

b)

Cdk levels are variable throughout cell-cycle Proteins regulate checkpoints in cycle cell progression

c)

Cdk levels are decreasing throughout cell-cycle Enzymes regulate checkpoints in cycle cell progression

d)

Cdk levels are increasing throughout cell-cycle Hormones regulate checkpoints in cycle cell progression

73.

Which process describes intrinsic apoptosis?

a)

A process involving the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria

b)

A process triggered by external signals binding to death receptors

c)

A process that involves phagocytosis of apoptotic cells

d)

A process that results in necrosis

74.

It was observed some time ago that the genomes of unicellular eukaryotic cells lack the genes necessary to make proteins associated with tight junctions. Why might this be?

a)

Unicellular eukaryotes do not form tissues so they don't require tight junctions.

b)

They have alternative mechanisms for cell adhesion.

c)

Tight junctions are only used to connect cell membranes to the extracellular matrix.

d)

Their cellular structure does not support tight junction formation.

75.

Which type of cell-cell junction connects actin filaments of adjacent cells?

a)

Tight junctions

b)

Adherens junctions

c)

Desmosomes

d)

Gap junctions

76.

Which of these is NOT a function of the basal lamina?

a)

Provides structural support to epithelial cells by interacting with integrins and other adhesion molecules

b)

Facilitates cell adhesion and acts as a barrier to macromolecules, particularly in filtration processes

c)

Serves as a foundation for cell attachment and regulates cell behavior such as proliferation and differentiation

d)

Directly mediates nutrient exchange between epithelial cells and connective tissues by acting as a conduit for growth factors

77.

Describe one structural characteristic of collagens.

a)

Collagens are composed of two polypeptide chains wound together in a double helix.

b)

Collagens are composed of three polypeptide chains wound together in a triple helix.

c)

Collagens are composed of multiple beta-sheets stacked in a planar configuration.

d)

Collagens are made of a single chain of amino acids arranged in a random coil.

78.

Describe one functional characteristic of collagen

a)

Collagens allow tissues to stretch beyond their natural limits without damage.

b)

Collagens provide structural support and resist stretching forces in connective tissues

c)

Collagens primarily facilitate nutrient exchange in connective tissues.

d)

Collagens function as enzymes that break down tissue during repair processes.

79.

Which of the following innate immune system events likely occurred before the situation depicted in the figure?

a)

Phagocytosis of the bacteria by macrophages

b)

Complement activation through recognition of bacterial cells

c)

Production of memory cells by T lymphocytes

d)

Secretion of antibodies by B cells

80.

What is the first molecular process that occurs after the T cell receptor (TCR) recognizes the antigen presented by the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)?

a)

Activation of ARP2/3 complex

b)

Phosphorylation of ZAP70

c)

Binding of GTP to RAC1

d)

F-actin severing and depolymerization

81.

Which of the following events triggers extrinsic apoptosis?

a)

DNA damage within the cell

b)

Mitochondrial release of cytochrome c

c)

Binding of death ligands to death receptors on the cell surface

d)

Release of calcium ions from the endoplasmic reticulum

82.

In the extrinsic apoptosis pathway, which caspase is directly activated by the death receptor signaling?

a)

Caspase-3

b)

Caspase-8

c)

Caspase-9

d)

Caspase-6

83.

Which of the following events initiates the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

a)

Activation of caspase-8

b)

Binding of ligands to death receptors

c)

Release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria

d)

Activation of cell surface receptors