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Worksheets

Skeletal and Muscular System

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chondrocytes are mature cartilage cells found within in the _______ and they are derived from ________

a)

perichondrium, fibroblasts

b)

perichondrium, chondroblasts

c)

lacunae, fibroblasts

d)

lacunae, chondroblasts

2.

Which of the following substances make up the major portion of bone?

a)

collagen

b)

hydroxyapatite

c)

osteocytes

d)

osteoblasts

3.

The flexibility of bone is due to

a)

osteoclasts

b)

ligaments

c)

calcium salts

d)

collagen fibers

4.

Which of the following connective tissue membranes cover the surface of mature bones?

a)

periosteum

b)

perichondrium

c)

hyaline cartilage

d)

fibroblasts

5.

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the

a)

epiphysis

b)

perichondrium

c)

diaphysis

d)

articular cartilage

6.

The portion of the long bone that stores yellow marrow in adults is the

a)

medullary cavity

b)

spongy bone

c)

compact bone

d)

epiphysis

7.

Intramembranous bone formation

a)

occurs in the epiphyseal plate

b)

gives rise to the flat bones of the skull

c)

is responsible for bone growth in diameter

d)

occurs within the hyaline cartilage model

8.

The prime function of OSTEOBLASTS is to

a)

prevents osteocytes from forming

b)

resorb bone along the epiphyseal plate

c)

inhibit the growth of bone

d)

be involved in the production salts and collagen fibers

9.

The prime function of OSTEOCLASTS is to

a)

prevent osteoblats from forming

b)

breakdown bone

c)

secrete calcium salts and collagen fibers

d)

form compact bone

10.

in a bone that is no longer growing, where would one be most likely to find an osteoclast?

a)

under the periosteum

b)

epiphyseal plate

c)

articular cartilage

d)

Volkmann's canal

11.

Destruction and remolding of bone may occur (select all that applies)

a)

as bones change shape during growth

b)

as bones are subjected to varying patterns of stress

c)

during and following the healing of fractures

d)

when a bone is no longer growing

12.

In the healing of bone fractures

a)

a blood clot forms around the break

b)

a callus is formed

c)

both intramembranous and endochondral ossification are involved

d)

the callus may eventually disappear

13.

All descriptions of the body start with the assumption that the body is in the___________ position.

a)

physiological

b)

anatomical

c)

directional

d)

supine

14.

Which orientation terms have opposite meanings?

a)

superficial and proximal

b)

distal and proximal

c)

medial and distal

d)

posterior and intermediate

15.

The_______________ plane divides the body into right and left.

a)

horizontal

b)

transverse

c)

coronal

d)

sagittal

16.

Which term refers to structures that are found on the same side of the body?

a)

bilateral

b)

ipsilateral

c)

horizontal

d)

contralateral

17.

The transverse plane divides the body

a)

diagonally.

b)

vertically, into front and back portions.

c)

horizontally.

d)

vertically, into left and right portions.

18.

Proximal is defined as

a)

away from the middle.

b)

closest to the middle.

c)

farthest from the center.

d)

nearest to the point of attachment.

19.

________________ is the anterior side, whereas_____________ is the posterior side.

a)

Ventral; posterior

b)

Dorsal; ventral

c)

Ventral; dorsal

d)

Anterior; dorsal

20.

When the body is divided into front and back halves, the front half of the body is the

a)

anterior.

b)

inferior.

c)

posterior.

d)

superior.

21.

The term "medial" refers to a position on the body that is

a)

farther away from the midline.

b)

farther away from the midaxillary line.

c)

closer to the midaxillary line.

d)

closer to the midline.

22.

The knees are_______________ to the head.

a)

posterior

b)

anterior

c)

superior

d)

inferior

23.

Which is NOT a component of the skeletal system?

a)

bones

b)

ligaments and tendons

c)

cartilage

d)

muscles

24.

Which best describes the function of your RIBCAGE?

a)

support of the body

b)

protection of soft organs

c)

storage of minerals and fats

d)

blood cell formation

25.

Bones that are roughly as long as they are wide are called

a)

long bones

b)

short bones

c)

irregular bones

d)

flat bones

26.

Which is NOT a long bone?

a)

radius

b)

humerus

c)

tibia

d)

carpals

27.

Which bone group typically is made of spongy bone surrounded by a thin layer compact bone?

a)

long bones

b)

short bones

c)

irregular bones

d)

flat bones

28.

Red bone marrow is responsible for

a)

hematopoiesis

b)

bone remodelling

c)

growth ad repair

d)

production of fat

29.

Yellow bone marrow is responsible for

a)

hematopoiesis.

b)

bone remodelling.

c)

growth and repair.

d)

production of fat.

30.

What type of bone is shown in areas C and E?

a)

spongy

b)

compact

31.

What is the purpose of articular cartilage?

a)

covers the ends of long bones

b)

prevents two bones from rubbing on each other at a joint

c)

supports a tendon or ligament

d)

provides a structure for new bone growth

32.

Mature bone cells that live in tiny cavities within the bone are called?

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteoclasts

d)

osteons

33.

What part of the long bone is found on the ends and contains the red marrow?

a)

spongy bone

b)

compact bone

34.

After the boney callus is formed when a bone heals, the next step is...

a)

the bone then becomes inflammed

b)

the bone is 100% healed

c)

the bone begins to remodel

d)

the bone doesn't form a callus

35.

Which lists the steps of bone repair in order?

a)

hematoma forms; callus formation; bone material is laid down; bone material is remodeled

b)

callus forms; hematoma forms; bone material laid down; bone material remodelled

c)

bone material laid down; bone material remodeled; callus forms; hematoma forms

36.

What is the place where two bones meet?

a)

Ball and socket

b)

Ligaments

c)

Tendons

d)

Joint

37.

If your body were a tall building, your skeleton would be?

a)

Beams and joints that hold it up

b)

Apartments and offices inside it

c)

Plumbing and electrical systems

d)

Foundation that anchors it to ground

38.

The following are the functions of the skeleton EXCEPT?

a)

Protection

b)

Movement

c)

Body shape

d)

Circulation of blood

39.

The spine is made up of ________ vertebrae.

a)

206

b)

26

c)

14

d)

8

40.

This material is in our ears and nose and can bend without breaking.

a)

Blood

b)

Bones

c)

Smooth muscles

d)

Cartilage

41.

Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident?

a)

Fat storage

b)

Storage of minerals

c)

Facilitation of movement

d)

Protection of internal organs

42.

Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones; however, the bones in the wrist are categorized as ________.

a)

Flat bones

b)

Short bones

c)

Irregular bones

d)

Sesamoid bones

43.

A fracture can be both ________.

a)

Open and closed

b)

Open and transverse

c)

Transverse and greenstick

d)

Greenstick and comminuted

44.

Each bone has a particular job. The job of the skull is to?

a)

Protects the brain

b)

Tells the brain what to do

c)

Pumps blood to the brain

d)

Helps the body to make decision

45.

When calcium levels are too high or too low, which body system is primarily affected?

a)

Digestive system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Nervous system

d)

Skeletal system

46.

The smallest bone in the human body is the?

a)

Mandible

b)

Nose

c)

Outer finger

d)

Stapes

47.

What is the largest joint in the human body?

a)

Knee

b)

Clavicle

c)

Elbow

d)

Neck

48.

Humerus is the bone of the forearm.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The pectoral girdle connects the upper limb, whereas the pelvic girdle connects the lower limb to the axial skeleton.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which of these is a sesamoid bone?

a)

Patella

b)

Radius

c)

Tibia

d)

Ulna

51.

This is the ability of skeletal muscle wherein it recoils to its original resting length after it has been stretched

a)

Contractility

b)

Excitability

c)

Extensibility

d)

Elasticity

52.

Striated and under voluntary control

a)

Skeletal Muscle

b)

Smooth Muscle

c)

Cardiac Muscle

53.

This is the connective tissue sheath that surrounds entire skeletal muscle

a)

perimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

epimysium

d)

muscle fascicles

54.

This attaches your bone to bone

a)

Tendons

b)

Ligaments

c)

Aponeurosis

55.

It stores and release your neurotransmitters

a)

Postsynaptic membrane

b)

Synaptic Cleft

c)

Synaptic vesicle

d)

Presynaptic terminal

56.

How do muscles receive their ability to move the body?

a)

Muscular System

b)

Nervous System

c)

Skeletal System

57.
Which of the following best describes actin filaments?
a)
A thin filament made of two intertwining strands whose subunits bind together like beads on a string
b)
A thick filament that looks like two golf clubs twisted together
c)
A small, globular regulatory protein that holds another protein in place
d)
A long, ropelike regulatory protein that spirals around another protein, covering its active sites
58.
The storage and release of calcium ions is the key function of the:
a)
sarcolemma.
b)
sarcoplasm.
c)
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
d)
mitochondrion.
59.
Which of the following is NOT a major function of muscle tissue?
a)
generating heat through contractions
b)
stabilizing joints
c)
promoting movement of body structures
d)
storing energy
60.
The Na+/K+ pump helps a muscle cell maintain a state of:
a)
depolarization.
b)
propagation.
c)
resting membrane potential.
d)
action potential.
61.
Calcium ions bind to the ___ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.
a)
actin
b)
troponin
c)
tropomyosin
d)
myosin
62.
This is a band of connective tissue that surrounds whole muscles.
a)
ligament
b)
endomysium
c)
epimysium
d)
perimysium
63.
Which of the following represents the sequence that muscle action potentials must go through to excite a muscle cell?
a)
sarcolemma, axon of neuron, T tubules
b)
T tubules, sarcolemma, myofilament
c)
muscle fiber, axon of neuron, mitochondria
d)
axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules
64.
Which of the following functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue?
a)
actin
b)
myosin
c)
troponin
d)
titin
65.

Fascia that connects muscle to muscle is called______

a)

Tendon

b)

Deep Fascia

c)

Aponeurosis

66.

What is the name of the neurotransmitter released at a neuromuscular junction?

a)

Calcium

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Troponin

67.
A mitochondria's role in muscle contraction is the production of...
a)
Synthesis of ATP
b)
Metabolism of ATP
c)
Synthesis of Proteins
d)
Metabolism of Worn out Proteins
68.
Which is more true to cause muscle contraction?
a)
Actin Pulls on the myosin
b)
Myosin Pulls on the Titin
c)
Myosin Pulls on Actin
d)
Actin Pulls on Titin
69.
Which ion, when present, changes the conformation of tropomyosin?
a)
Calcium
b)
Sodium
c)
Potassium
d)
Lithium
70.
Which TWO IONS are pumped in/out of the sarcolemma as part of muscle contraction?
a)
Sodium / Calcium
b)
Calcium / Potassium
c)
Sodium / Potassium
71.

What is the opposing muscle group for the biceps?

a)

abdominals

b)

triceps

c)

deltoids

d)

hamstrings

72.

Which muscle contraction results from a high amount of Ca still remaining in the muscle

a)

Treppe

b)

Tetanus

c)

Muscle Energy

d)

Metabolism

73.

What is the contractile unit of the muscle?

a)

Z disk

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Muscle fiber

d)

Muscle cell

74.

What part of the muscle fiber stores Ca ions and releases them when stimulated?

a)

T tubule

b)

Sarcolemma

c)

Nucleus

d)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

75.

What is the name of the location where the neuron and muscle fiber meet?

a)

Sarcoplasm

b)

Sacolemma

c)

Neuromuscular junction

d)

Axon terminal

76.

What is the name of the neurotransmitter that is released from the neuron to the sarcolemma?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Acetone

c)

ATP

d)

Calcium

77.

Which of these occurs last during a muscle contraction?

a)

The nerve signal reaches the neuromuscular junction

b)

Ach is released and opens Na ion channels

c)

The sarcomere shortens

d)

The myosin binds to the actin

78.

Myofibrils are composed primarily of

a)

actin and myosin

b)

ATP and ADP

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

79.

The enzyme cholinesterase causes acetylcholine to

a)

be secreted from the motor end plate.

b)

form cross bridges.

c)

bind to actin.

d)

decompose.

80.

What chemical helps to regenerate ATP?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

cholinsterase

c)

creatine phosphate

d)

ADP