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Exam #3 1230 Quiz

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is educating a patient about the difference between local and systemic medications. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates an understanding of the education?

a)

Local medications work throughout the body

b)

Systemic medications are only effective on the site of application.

c)

Local medications typically have fewer side effects than systemic medications.

d)

Systemic medications are always administered topically.

2.

A patient receives a local anesthetic for a minor surgical procedure. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to evaluate the effectiveness of the local anesthetic?

a)

Assess for respiratory rate changes.

b)

Monitor the patient's blood pressure and heart rate.

c)

Evaluate the patient's level of consciousness.

d)

Test the patient's ability to feel pain at the surgical site.

3.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has just received an IM injection of a corticoid steroid. Which of the following is an expected systemic response of this medication?

a)

Localized swelling at the injection site

b)

Increased blood glucose levels

c)

Redness around the area of injection

d)

Itchiness around the injection site

4.

Which of the following patients is most likely to experience systemic effects from a topical medication?

a)

A patient applying a hydrocortisone cream to a rash

b)

A patient using a lidocaine patch for localized pain

c)

A patient using a transdermal nicotine patch

d)

A patient applying antibiotic ointment to a small wound

5.

A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list and notices the patient is prescribed both a local anesthetic and a systemic pain reliever. Which of the following is the primary reason for using both types of medications?

a)

To enhance the overall effect of pain relief

b)

To avoid the need for surgical intervention

c)

To minimize the risk of medication interactions

d)

To reduce the dosage of the systemic medication

6.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which type of isolation precaution should the nurse implement for this patient?

a)

Standard precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Airborne precautions

d)

Contact precautions

7.

A nurse is caring for a patient in contact isolation due to a multi-drug resistant organism (MDRO). Which of the following interventions is most important to prevent transmission of the organism?

a)

Placing the patient in a private room

b)

Performing hand hygiene before and after patient contact

c)

Wearing gloves and gown during patient care

d)

Limiting visitors to the patient

8.

A nurse is educating a patient who is scheduled for a total hip replacement. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I will need to avoid crossing my legs after surgery.

b)

I can return to normal activities immediately after surgery.

c)

I should use a raised toilet seat to prevent hip dislocation.

d)

I will need to follow up with physical therapy after my surgery.

9.

A patient who underwent a total knee replacement complains of severe pain and swelling in the operated knee. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

a)

Apply a heat pack to the knee.

b)

Elevate the leg and apply ice.

c)

Encourage ambulation to reduce swelling.

d)

Administer the prescribed pain medication.

10.

A nurse is assessing a patient post-total hip replacement for signs of dislocation. Which of the following findings would indicate a potential dislocation?

a)

The patient reports mild discomfort in the hip area.

b)

The affected leg appears shorter and externally rotated.

c)

The patient has full range of motion in the hip joint.

d)

The patient can bear weight on the affected leg.

11.

Which of the following nursing interventions is most important for a patient who has just had a total knee replacement to help prevent complications?

a)

Encourage the patient to keep the knee straight at all times.

b)

Monitor the patient’s vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.

c)

Instruct the patient to perform ankle pumps to promote circulation.

d)

Keep the knee immobilized at all times to prevent injury.

12.

A nurse is preparing a care plan for a patient who is recovering from a total hip replacement. Which goal is most appropriate for this patient?

a)

The patient will ambulate independently within 24 hours post-surgery.

b)

The patient will demonstrate proper use of a walker by discharge.

c)

The patient will have no pain post-operatively.

d)

The patient will regain full range of motion in the hip joint before discharge.

13.

A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected fracture. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Pain at the site of injury

b)

Deformity of the affected limb

c)

Increased range of motion

d)

Swelling and bruising

e)

Numbness or tingling in the extremity

14.

A patient is being discharged after a wrist fracture. The nurse provides education on home care. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicate a need for further teaching?

a)

I can remove the splint if I feel uncomfortable.

b)

I should elevate my wrist to reduce swelling.

c)

I will follow up with my doctor in one week.

d)

I should apply ice for 20 minutes every hour.

15.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a femoral fracture. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Monitor vital signs for signs of shock.

b)

Assess neurovascular status of the affected limb.

c)

Encourage the patient to ambulate as soon as possible.

d)

Administer prescribed pain medication.

e)

Maintain the affected limb in a dependent position.

16.

A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with a recent hip fracture. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Monitor the patient's vital signs regularly.

b)

Teach the patient how to use a walker safely.

c)

Ensure that the patient's call light is within reach.

d)

Advise the patient to bear weight on the affected leg as soon as possible.

17.

A patient with a fractured femur is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which nursing interventions are appropriate to help prevent this complication? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Encourage the patient to perform ankle pumps.

b)

Ensure adequate hydration.

c)

Apply compression stockings as prescribed.

d)

Instruct the patient to remain in bed with the leg elevated.

e)

Encourage early ambulation as tolerated.

18.

A nurse is monitoring a patient post-operatively following an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a wrist fracture. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse monitor for that may indicate complications? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Increased pain at the surgical site

b)

Signs of infection (redness, warmth, discharge)

c)

Weakness in the unaffected hand

d)

Numbness or tingling in the fingers

e)

Increased range of motion in the affected wrist

19.

A patient with a compound fracture of the tibia is concerned about the healing process. Which of the following factors can affect bone healing that the nurse should discuss with the patient? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Fat embolism

c)

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

d)

Hypovolemic shock

e)

Osteoporosis

20.

A nurse is assessing a patient who has just undergone a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following findings would the nurse recognize as a potential indicator of compromised circulation? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Diminished pulse in the affected limb

b)

Skin temperature cooler than the unaffected limb

c)

Severe pain at the surgical site

d)

Numbness and tingling in the toes of the affected limb

e)

Pink coloration of the skin on the affected limb

21.

A patient with a fractured femur is being monitored for complications. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to evaluate the 6 P's? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Assess for pain intensity on a scale of 0 to 10

b)

Check capillary refill in the toes

c)

Evaluate the patient’s ability to move the affected leg

d)

Monitor for swelling around the fracture site

e)

Observe the color of the skin over the fracture site

22.

A nurse is assessing a patient who has suffered a traumatic amputation of the arm. Which of the following findings would indicate a need for immediate intervention? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Pulses are absent in the affected arm

b)

Patient reports a pain level of 4 out of 10

c)

The skin is pale and cool to touch

d)

Patient exhibits signs of anxiety

e)

The patient has a weak pulse in the unaffected arm

23.

During a post-operative assessment of a patient who had a below-the-knee amputation, the nurse notes the following findings: pain rated as 8/10, numbness and tingling in the toes of the remaining foot, and a cool, pale foot. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Elevate the residual limb to reduce swelling.

b)

Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

c)

Administer prescribed pain medication.

d)

Continue to monitor the patient

24.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained a fracture of the tibia and is at risk for compartment syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor closely? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Severe pain that is unrelieved by pain medication

b)

Increased swelling in the affected limb

c)

Weak or absent pulse in the affected limb

d)

Tingling or numbness in the toes of the affected leg

e)

Blood pressure elevation

25.

A patient is being monitored for the development of fat embolism syndrome after a long bone fracture. Which of the following signs and symptoms should the nurse recognize as potentially indicative of this condition? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Petechiae over the conjunctiva

b)

Hypoxia and shortness of breath

c)

Sudden onset of confusion

d)

Elevated blood pressure

e)

Fever with a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C)

26.

A nurse is educating a patient recovering from a fractured femur about the signs of complications, including compartment syndrome and fat embolism syndrome. Which statements made by the patient indicate a correct understanding? (Select all that apply.)

a)

I should notify my nurse if I have severe pain that doesn't go away.

b)

If I feel numbness or tingling, it might just be from the anesthesia.

c)

I need to watch for a rash or spots on my skin, especially around my eyes.

d)

Shortness of breath after my injury could mean I have fat embolism syndrome.

e)

I can ignore mild pain since it’s normal after surgery.

27.

During a post-operative assessment of a patient with a fractured pelvis, the nurse notes sudden confusion, a petechial rash, and shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Administer oxygen

b)

Call the physician

c)

Start an IV line

d)

Monitor vital signs

28.

A patient is diagnosed with MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus). Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing the spread of this infection?

a)

Using standard precautions only

b)

Wearing gloves and gown when entering the patient's room

c)

Educating the patient about the importance of hand hygiene

d)

Isolating the patient in a private room

29.

A nurse is caring for a patient with bacterial meningitis. Which of the following signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Stiff neck (nuchal rigidity)

b)

Photophobia

c)

Hyperactive reflexes

d)

Increased heart rate

e)

Bradycardia

30.

Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for developing tuberculosis (TB)?

a)

A patient with a recent history of smoking

b)

A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

c)

A patient who is immunocompetent

d)

A patient who has just received a flu vaccination

31.

A nurse is assessing a patient for symptoms of TB. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Persistent cough lasting more than three weeks

b)

Night sweats

c)

Unexplained weight gain

d)

Hemoptysis

e)

Fatigue

32.

A nurse is caring for a patient with MRSA. Which laboratory finding would the nurse expect to be elevated in this patient?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Platelets

c)

White blood cell count

d)

Blood glucose

33.

A nurse is preparing to administer the Mantoux test for TB screening. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Inject 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative (PPD) intradermally.

b)

Assess the injection site 24-48 hours after administration.

c)

Use a 25-gauge needle for the injection.

d)

Instruct the patient to cover the injection site with a bandage.

e)

Document the date, time, and site of administration.

34.

A patient with tuberculosis is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

a)

You will need to take your medication for at least 6 months.

b)

You should avoid contact with children and pregnant women.

c)

You can return to work when you feel better.

d)

You will need to follow up with your doctor every month.

35.

A patient with a history of severe allergies is being discharged with a prescription for an epinephrine auto-injector. Which instruction should the nurse prioritize?

a)

Inject the epinephrine into your thigh, and massage the site for 10 minutes.

b)

Use the auto-injector at the first sign of an allergic reaction.

c)

You can administer it anywhere in the body if you feel an allergic reaction coming.

d)

Store the auto-injector in the refrigerator for best results.

36.

A patient presents to the emergency department with signs of anaphylaxis after eating peanuts. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Wheezing

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hives

d)

Swelling of the tongue

e)

Elevated blood pressure

37.

A nurse is teaching a patient about avoiding allergens. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I should read food labels carefully to avoid allergens.

b)

I can safely eat foods labeled 'may contain traces of peanuts.'

c)

I need to inform restaurant staff about my allergies.

d)

I will carry my epinephrine auto-injector with me at all times.

38.

A nurse is assessing a patient with a known allergy to shellfish who presents with a rash and difficulty breathing. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Administer antihistamines as prescribed.

b)

Prepare for intubation.

c)

Administer epinephrine as prescribed.

d)

Obtain a complete allergy history.

39.

A patient with a history of multiple allergies is experiencing anaphylaxis. Which finding would indicate that epinephrine has been effective?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Improved wheezing and respiratory effort

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Resolution of hives

40.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has just received a bee sting and is showing early signs of an allergic reaction. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

a)

Apply a cold compress to the sting site.

b)

Observe the patient for 30 minutes for any changes.

c)

Administer epinephrine immediately.

d)

Instruct the patient to take an oral antihistamine.

41.

A patient with a known allergy to latex is scheduled for surgery. Which nursing intervention is most important to prevent an allergic reaction during the procedure?

a)

Use non-latex gloves for all procedures.

b)

Inform the surgical team of the latex allergy.

c)

Monitor the patient for signs of an allergic reaction during surgery.

d)

Provide the patient with an antihistamine before surgery.

42.

A patient with a severe peanut allergy asks the nurse about desensitization therapy. What should the nurse explain about this therapy?

a)

Desensitization therapy can completely cure your allergy.

b)

It involves gradually increasing exposure to peanuts under medical supervision.

c)

It is not necessary if you carry an epinephrine auto-injector.

d)

This therapy is available for all types of allergies.

43.

A nurse is preparing to educate a patient about anaphylaxis. Which statement should the nurse include regarding the timing of epinephrine administration?

a)

Epinephrine should be given only if symptoms persist for more than 30 minutes.

b)

You can wait to see if symptoms improve before using the auto-injector.

c)

Epinephrine should be administered at the first sign of anaphylaxis.

d)

If you use the auto-injector, you won't need to seek medical attention.

44.

A patient with osteoarthritis is being taught about self-management strategies. Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the condition?

a)

I should avoid all physical activity to prevent joint pain.

b)

Using heat or cold therapy can help relieve my symptoms.

c)

Weight loss is not important since I have osteoarthritis.

d)

I should take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) only when the pain is severe.

45.

During a routine assessment, the nurse notes that a patient with osteoarthritis has joint deformities and crepitus. Which of the following is the best explanation for these findings?

a)

These changes indicate an advanced stage of rheumatoid arthritis.

b)

Joint deformities and crepitus are common in osteoarthritis due to cartilage breakdown.

c)

This suggests that the joint is infected and needs immediate intervention.

d)

These symptoms are typical for a patient with gout.

46.

Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed to help manage pain in patients with osteoarthritis?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Prednisone

d)

Colchicine

47.

A nurse is educating a patient about the importance of physical activity in managing osteoarthritis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I should try low-impact exercises like swimming or cycling.

b)

I can stop exercising if I feel pain during my workouts.

c)

Regular activity can help maintain joint function.

d)

Stretching exercises can improve my flexibility and reduce stiffness.

48.

A patient with osteoarthritis is experiencing difficulty sleeping due to joint pain. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse suggest?

a)

Try to stay up late to tire yourself out.

b)

Consider taking a warm bath before bedtime.

c)

Avoid any pain medications before bed.

d)

It's best to sleep in a recliner to keep your joints elevated.

49.

A nurse is reviewing the treatment plan for a patient with osteoarthritis. Which of the following interventions should be included to promote joint health? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Weight management

b)

Yoga or Pilates

c)

Running

d)

Water aerobics

e)

Cross fit

50.

A patient with osteoarthritis is considering complementary therapies. Which of the following should the nurse recommend discussing with their healthcare provider?

a)

A) Acupuncture

b)

B) Essential oils

c)

C) Glucosamine and chondroitin supplements

d)

D) All of the above

51.

When assessing a patient with osteoarthritis, which symptom is most characteristic of this condition?

a)

A) Morning stiffness that lasts more than an hour

b)

B) Symmetrical joint involvement

c)

C) Joint pain that worsens with activity

d)

D) Fever and malaise

52.

A nurse is assessing a patient’s pain using a pain scale. Which question is most appropriate for evaluating the impact of osteoarthritis on the patient?

a)

"How would you rate your pain right now?"

b)

"What medications are you currently taking?"

c)

"How does your pain affect your ability to perform daily activities?"

d)

"Have you experienced any weight changes recently?"

53.

A patient comes in with suspected Hepatitis A. Which of the following history finding would put the patient at risk for contracting this disease? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Consumption of well-done steaks

b)

Travel to Africa two weeks ago

c)

Living in the United States

d)
Recent vaccination against Hepatitis A
e)

Eating shellfish last week

54.

A nurse is caring for a patient in an airborne isolation room. What complications should the anticipate for this patient given their isolation status?

a)

Social isolation

b)

Decreased anxiety

c)
Improved sleep quality
d)
Increased physical activity
55.

The clinic nurse is reassessing the site of a PPD test. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate that it is negative? Select all that apply.

a)
10 mm induration, no redness
b)
0 mm induration, redness present
c)

15 mm induration, slight swelling and redness

d)
3 mm induration, palpable swelling
e)
0 mm induration, no palpable swelling
56.

A nurse is education a patient being treated for TB about their medication regimen so they can be discharged. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)
Take medication only when symptoms are present.
b)
Stop medication if you feel better after a week.
c)
Share medication with family members to prevent TB.
d)
Adhere to the full course of medication and report side effects.
57.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has a newfound anaphylactic reaction to shellfish. Which of the following education pieces should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? Select all that apply

a)

Eat shellfish in moderation

b)

Take antihistamines before eating shellfish

c)
Using a regular inhaler for symptoms
d)

Recognizing symptoms of anaphylaxis

e)

Carry an epinephrine auto-injector at all times

58.

A family member asks the nurse about the difference between active immunity and passive immunity. Which of the following are appropriate responses by the nurse? Select all that apply.

a)
Passive immunity is permanent and does not require the body's immune system.
b)
Active immunity is achieved through vaccination only, while passive immunity is always natural.
c)
Passive immunity is long-lasting and involves the body's own immune response.
d)

Passive immunity is temporary and involves external antibodies

e)

Active immunity is long-lasting and involves the body's own immune response

59.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected MRSA infected open wound. Which of the following orders can the nurse expect to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

a)

Blood test

b)
X-ray of the affected area
c)

Urine culture

d)

Wound culture

60.

A charge nurse is preparing room assignments for incoming patients to the floor. Which of the following room assignments is appropriate?

a)

A patient with MRSA in the urine paired with a patient who has VRE in a wound bed.

b)

A post-operative patient paired with a patient with influenza A.

c)

A TB positive patient paired with a diabetic patient.

d)

A patient with VRE in the urine paired with a patient with VRE in a wound bed.

61.

A community nurse is helping to spread awareness about the rise in MRSA cases at her community college. Which of the following has the highest risk for developing MRSA?

a)

Nursing students who share the same class

b)

PT/OT students who work at the same clinic

c)

Students who live in college dorms

d)

Students who study in the library together

62.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a fractured femur. Which complication should the nurse look out for?

a)

Fat emboli

b)
Delayed union of the fracture
c)
Infection at the fracture site
d)
Pulmonary embolism