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Untitled formAUX

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the primary purpose of deck machinery on ships?
a)
A) Communication
b)
B) Lifting, towing, mooring, and anchoring
c)
C) Cleaning the deck
d)
D) Fueling the ship
2.
Which part of a crane provides additional reach beyond the boom?
a)
A) Sheave
b)
B) Jib
c)
C) Hoist
d)
D) Hook
3.
In a crane, which component primarily creates lift?
a)
A) Outriggers
b)
B) Jib
c)
C) Hoist drum
d)
D) Boom
4.
What is the function of the gypsy head on a hydraulic winch?
a)
A) It stabilizes the crane.
b)
B) It provides extra lifting power.
c)
C) It wraps around the wire rope to control it.
d)
D) It controls the winch speed.
5.
Which type of winch has lower installation costs and is environmentally friendly?
a)
A) Electric driven winch
b)
B) Hydraulic driven winch
c)
C) Pneumatic winch
d)
D) Diesel driven winch
6.
What is a primary disadvantage of an electric-driven winch?
a)
A) Requires noisy HPUs
b)
B) Expensive to install
c)
C) Sensitive to water, dust, and contaminants
d)
D) Cannot operate in harsh environments
7.
What should be checked if a crane does not lift its load?
a)
A) Power connection
b)
B) Brake mechanism
c)
C) Control switch
d)
D) Hoisting motor
8.
What is a common cause of excessive noise in crane operations?
a)
A) Loose wiring
b)
B) Lack of lubrication
c)
C) Overloaded crane
d)
D) Power surge
9.
Which part of the crane stabilizes it during heavy lifting?
a)
A) Hook
b)
B) Outriggers
c)
C) Sheave
d)
D) Rope drum
10.
What is a disadvantage of a hydraulic-driven winch?
a)
A) Low torque capacity
b)
B) High risk of electric shock
c)
C) Requires frequent maintenance and cleaning
d)
D) Environmentally friendly
11.
What is the main function of pumps on ships?
a)
A) Generating electricity
b)
B) Moving fluids from low to high pressure
c)
C) Filtering contaminants
d)
D) Regulating temperature
12.
Positive displacement pumps are characterized by their ability to
a)
A) Pump fluids with high viscosity
b)
B) Operate only at constant speed
c)
C) Self-prime
d)
D) Handle only low-pressure fluids
13.
Which of these is NOT a type of positive displacement pump?
a)
A) Rotary pump
b)
B) Centrifugal pump
c)
C) Screw pump
d)
D) Diaphragm pump
14.
What is the main difference between positive displacement and rotodynamic pumps?
a)
A) Positive displacement pumps are not self-priming.
b)
B) Rotodynamic pumps use a rotating impeller.
c)
C) Rotodynamic pumps cannot handle volatile liquids.
d)
D) Positive displacement pumps do not use any type of valve.
15.
What is the function of a centrifugal pump’s volute?
a)
A) To create a suction chamber
b)
B) To maintain constant pressure
c)
C) To collect fluid discharged from the impeller
d)
D) To increase rotational speed
16.
What type of pump is ideal for high-viscosity fluids and precise volume control?
a)
A) Rotary pump
b)
B) Axial flow pump
c)
C) Centrifugal pump
d)
D) Screw pump
17.
Which of the following systems commonly uses centrifugal pumps on ships?
a)
A) Mooring systems
b)
B) Seawater cooling systems
c)
C) Fuel injection systems
d)
D) Hydraulic winches
18.
In centrifugal pumps, cavitation can occur if:
a)
A) Fluid temperature is too high
b)
B) The discharge valve is closed
c)
C) The pump casing is not sealed
d)
D) Impeller diameter is too large
19.
Why are positive displacement pumps often equipped with relief valves?
a)
A) To regulate temperature
b)
B) To prevent excessive pressure build-up
c)
C) To increase flow rate
d)
D) To reduce pump speed
20.
What is the main characteristic of an ejector?
a)
A) Creates low pressure in a suction chamber
b)
B) Uses mechanical seals
c)
C) Generates high torque at low speeds
d)
D) Has a variable speed impeller
21.
Which type of strainer requires the system to be shut off for cleaning?
a)
A) Duplex strainer
b)
B) Simplex strainer
c)
C) Triple strainer
d)
D) Basket strainer
22.
What makes duplex strainers more efficient than simplex strainers?
a)
A) They are easier to install.
b)
B) They do not need to be shut down for cleaning.
c)
C) They are compatible with all fluids.
d)
D) They require fewer parts.
23.

What is the main function of a ball valve?

a)
A) To control pressure
b)
B) To allow fluid flow when open and block it when closed
c)
C) To prevent backflow
d)
D) To filter particles
24.
Which valve has a rotating disk used to control flow?
a)
A) Gate valve
b)
B) Needle valve
c)
C) Butterfly valve
d)
D) Check valve
25.
Which of these valves automatically closes to prevent reverse flow?
a)
A) Gate valve
b)
B) Ball valve
c)
C) Check valve
d)
D) Needle valve
26.
What is the main function of an air compressor?
a)
To move fluids from low to high pressure
b)
To compress air to a smaller volume with higher pressure
c)
To cool down engine parts
d)
To start diesel engines
27.
Which type of air compressor is most commonly used on ships?
a)
Reciprocating Air Compressor
b)
Rotary Air Compressor
c)
Centrifugal Air Compressor
d)
Single-Stage Compressor
28.
What is the primary use of compressed air in marine service?
a)
For generating high-pressure air
b)
For cooling machinery
c)
For starting engines
d)
For operating pneumatic tools and cleaning machinery
29.
A multi-stage reciprocating compressor is mainly used:
a)
For high-pressure air generation
b)
For cooling applications
c)
For low-pressure air generation
d)
For heavy-duty mechanical devices
30.
Which compressor type has an element that rotates and compresses the air?
a)
Reciprocating compressor
b)
Rotary Air Compressor
c)
Centrifugal compressor
d)
Piston compressor
31.
What is the purpose of a safety valve in a compressed air system?
a)
To increase pressure
b)
To release gases or liquids when pressure exceeds a safe limit
c)
To regulate temperature
d)
To compress air further
32.
Which component cools the air after the final compression stage?
a)
Intercooler
b)
Pump
c)
Aftercooler
d)
Reservoir
33.
Why are compressed air tanks typically cylindrical?
a)
For cost-effectiveness
b)
To increase air capacity
c)
For durability and structural integrity
d)
For structural strength under high pressure
34.
The function of a fusible plug in an air compressor system is to
a)
Prevent explosions due to oil vapor ignition
b)
Increase air temperature
c)
Release excess compressed air
d)
Lubricate the compressor
35.
Which type of compressor is used in emergencies to start auxiliary engines?
a)
Main air compressor
b)
Service air compressor
c)
Emergency air compressor
d)
Deck air compressor
36.
Positive displacement pumps move fluids by:
a)
Using centrifugal force
b)
Enclosing a fixed volume and moving it mechanically
c)
Heating the fluid
d)
Compressing air
37.
Centrifugal pumps are best for:
a)
High-viscosity fluids
b)
Low-viscosity fluids in large volumes
c)
Small quantities of thick fluids
d)
Only non-corrosive fluids
38.
Which type of pump is not self-priming?
a)
Rotodynamic pump
b)
Positive displacement pump
c)
Reciprocating pump
d)
Gear pump
39.
What is the main function of a pressure regulator?
a)
To increase the pressure of fluids
b)
To reduce and maintain outlet pressure
c)
To filter contaminants
d)
To pump fluids at a constant speed
40.
What is the main function of a pressure regulator?
a)
To increase the water temperature
b)
To collect liquid and reduce velocity, converting it to static pressure
c)
To regulate pressure
d)
To filter the liquid
41.
Ejectors operate by:
a)
Heating the fluid
b)
Compressing the fluid
c)
Accelerating a high-pressure stream through a nozzle
d)
Using centrifugal force
42.
What is the difference between a strainer and a filter?
a)
Strainers are only used for gases, while filters are for liquids
b)
Strainers remove larger particles, filters remove smaller contaminants
c)
Filters are reusable, strainers are disposable
d)
There is no difference
43.
Gland packing is used in pump systems primarily to:
a)
Increase pump speed
b)
Seal the shaft and prevent leaks
c)
Regulate temperature
d)
Control pump flow
44.
Freshwater generators on ships primarily produce water by:
a)
Filtering seawater
b)
Evaporating seawater and condensing it
c)
Distilling river water
d)
Using fuel energy
45.
What heat source is commonly used for the evaporation in a freshwater generator?
a)
Fuel oil
b)
Boiler steam
c)
Main engine jacket water
d)
Atmospheric heat
46.
Why is a vacuum created in the freshwater generator?
a)
To cool the water faster
b)
To prevent salt buildup
c)
To allow evaporation at a lower temperature
d)
To increase water production rate
47.
In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move through the membrane from:
a)
Low to high pressure
b)
Low to high temperature
c)
High to low concentration
d)
High to low density
48.
What is the main function of a salinometer in a freshwater generator?
a)
To filter salt from the water
b)
To measure dissolved salt concentration
c)
To maintain water pressure
d)
To increase water flow
49.
Why should freshwater generators not operate near shore?
a)
Effluents and sewage may contaminate the seawater
b)
It’s too cold for effective operation
c)
The water is too salty near the shore
d)
They consume more power
50.
Which type of heat transfer occurs through direct physical contact?
a)
A) Convection
b)
B) Conduction
c)
C) Radiation
d)
D) Evaporation
51.
What is the main purpose of a heat exchanger?
a)
A) To mix two fluids at different temperatures
b)
B) To facilitate heat exchange between two or more fluids without mixing them
c)
C) To cool down only one fluid
d)
D) To heat up only one fluid
52.
Which material is commonly used in plate-type heat exchangers?
a)
A) Copper
b)
B) Carbon steel
c)
C) Stainless steel (AISI 304, 316)
d)
D) Lead
53.
In a finned tube heat exchanger, what is the purpose of adding fins?
a)
A) To prevent leaks
b)
B) To increase the surface area for heat transfer
c)
C) To decrease fluid velocity
d)
D) To facilitate radiation
54.
In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the fluid passes through the tubes multiple times in:
a)
A) Single pass arrangement
b)
B) Parallel flow arrangement
c)
C) Double or multiple pass arrangement
d)
D) Counter flow arrangement
55.
Which of the following is a common cause of fouling in heat exchangers?
a)
A) Excessive radiation
b)
B) Lack of pressure
c)
C) Accumulation of deposits on plates or tubes
d)
D) High temperature gradient
56.
Which issue in a plate-type heat exchanger can result from improper tightening of plates?
a)
A) Fouling of tubes
b)
B) Excessive heat transfer
c)
C) Plate damage
d)
D) Fluid freezing
57.
What is the primary cooling medium used in marine heat exchangers?
a)
A) Freshwater
b)
B) Oil
c)
C) Seawater
d)
D) Steam
58.
What is a major consequence of flow-induced vibrations in a heat exchange
a)
A) Increased heat transfer
b)
B) Reduction in fluid flow rate
c)
C) Potential damage to tubes and components
d)
D) Decrease in fluid temperature
59.
Which of the following is NOT a common troubleshooting issue in shell and tube heat exchangers?
a)
A) Loss of heat transfer efficiency
b)
B) Leaking gaskets or O-rings
c)
C) Tube corrosion
d)
D) Plate fouling
60.
Which method is used in a heat exchanger to maximize heat transfer between fluids of different temperatures?
a)
A) Increasing fluid pressure
b)
B) Flowing liquids in opposite directions (counterflow)
c)
C) Mixing the fluids together
d)
D) Reducing fluid speed
61.
What should be done if a reciprocating pump has loose foundation bolts?
a)
A) Replace the bolts
b)
B) Tighten the foundation bolts
c)
C) Replace the bearings
d)
D) Clean the vanes
62.
In a screw pump, what could be the cause of excessive noise?
a)
A) Air in the suction line
b)
B) Misalignment between screws
c)
C) Closed discharge valve
d)
D) Worn out vanes
63.
For a rotary vane pump, if vanes are sticking inside the rotor, the suggested remedy is to:
a)
A) Increase pump speed
b)
B) Replace the bearings
c)
C) Clean or replace the vanes
d)
D) Open the discharge valve
64.
Which of the following could be a possible cause for low flow in a reciprocating pump?
a)
A) Worn out screws
b)
B) Damaged valves
c)
C) Misalignment between screws
d)
D) Sticking vanes
65.
If a centrifugal pump shows excessive noise or vibration, which of the following could be the cause? ?
a)
A) Worn out vanes
b)
B) Loose foundation bolts
c)
C) Misalignment between pump & driver
d)
D) Sticking vanes
66.
If a crane does not start or operate, what is a possible cause?
a)
A) Loose components
b)
B) Power source disruption
c)
C) Overheating of the motor
d)
D) Worn out hook latch
67.
What is a common remedy for excessive noise during crane operation due to lack of lubrication?
a)
A) Tighten components
b)
B) Lubricate as per manufacturer's recommendations
c)
C) Reset the circuit breaker
d)
D) Replace the wire rope
68.
If the crane moves but doesn’t lift a load, what could be the problem?
a)
A) Damaged bearings
b)
B) Overloaded beyond SWL (Safe Working Load)
c)
C) Faulty limit switch
d)
D) Loose track alignment
69.
If the crane moves slower or faster than usual, which issue should be checked?
a)
A) Loose wire rope
b)
B) Motor issues
c)
C) Hook latch damage
d)
D) Brake mechanism
70.
When the crane is making excessive noise due to damaged bearings, the correct remedy is:
a)
A) Tighten components
b)
B) Adjust the motor speed
c)
C) Inspect and replace damaged bearings
d)
D) Lubricate moving parts