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Air Tech - CPL Exam Ready

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select the advantages of incorporating hydraulic systems

a)

Lightweight

b)

Efficient at transmitting force

c)

Minimal Maintenance required

d)

More Maintenance required

2.

If a one axis autopilot system is fitted to a light aircraft, the most likely axis it would control is

a)

yaw

b)

pitch

c)

roll

3.

What is this a picture of?

a)

piston

b)

cylinder

c)

carburettor

d)

gudgeon

4.

Temporary magnets...

a)

are also known as electromagnets

b)

are materials that are easily magnetised

c)

can be found inside batteries

d)

are used in aircraft magnetic compasses

5.

I am going to study hard and pass CPL Air Tech.

a)

Not a chance

b)

Of Course

c)

You're dreaming ma'am/sir

d)

I don't want to be a pilot

6.

Select the the types of Hydraulic pumps

a)

Vane Type

b)

Geared Type

c)

Piston Type

d)

Turbo Type

7.

Select the advantages of a pneumatic system

a)

Air is limited

b)

Weight and simplicity

c)

Air is unlimited

d)

Increased risk of fire

8.

This type of fire extinguisher is well-suited to deal with Class E and Class B fires as they don't leave a residue that might harm sensitive equipment

a)

Co2 Fire Extinguisher

b)

Methyl Bromide

c)

Dry Powder

d)

Oxygen enhancing type Fire Extinguishers

9.

Select the ways that aircraft protect, stop and remove the formation of ice

a)

Mechanical

b)

Fluid

c)

Thermal

d)

Petroleum

10.

Current that does NOT reverse direction is called ____. 

a)

magnetic current

b)

direct current

c)

circuit current

d)

alternating current

11.

Mechanical efficiency involves the relationship between power input and power output. It can be calculated by;

a)

brake power divided by fuel consumption

b)

volume of the charge divided by piston displacement

c)

brake power divided by indicated power

d)

fuel flow divided by brake power

12.

The capacity to do work is

a)

Power

b)

Energy

c)

Torque

d)

Force

13.

What is the outcome when a current passes through a coil of wire?

a)

No magnetic field is formed

b)

The lines of the magnetic field will be in line with the axis of the coil

c)

The lines of the magnetic field will be in line with the wire at all times

d)

The magnetic field formed will block the current from flowing through the coil

14.

Select the different types of undercarriage types

a)

Elastic Bungee Cord

b)

Flat Leaf Spring

c)

Oleo-Pneumatic

d)

Curved Leaf Spring

15.

Oleo-Pneumatic incorporates what two components to provide the dampening?

a)

Fuel + Air

b)

Air + Hydraulic Oil

c)

Engine Oil + Air

d)

Air + Torque Link

16.

How many satellites must be in view to have RAIM capability?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

2

17.

How many satellites must be in view in order to remove a faulty satellite? (RAIM)

a)

4

b)

6

c)

5

d)

3

18.

How many satellites are required to obtain a 2D fix?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

19.

Select all the transponders that can utilize TCAS

a)

Mode C

b)

Mode A

c)

Mode S

d)

Mode B

20.

Select the main functions of oil in an engine

a)

lubrication

b)

cooling

c)

cleaning

d)

anti-knock

21.

Top Dead Centre refers to when

a)

the piston is furthest from the crankshaft

b)

the piston is closest to the crankshaft

c)

the camshaft is furthest from the crankshaft

d)

the camshaft is closest to the crankshaft

22.

What is "valve lead"?

a)

The timing of the exhaust valve so that it opens prior to BDC

b)

The timing of the exhaust valve so it opens before TDC

c)

The timing of the inlet valve so that it opens prior to BDC

d)

The timing of the inlet valve so it opens before TDC

23.

Spark Advance refers to

a)

the spark plugs firing just before TDC

b)

the spark plugs firing just before BDC

c)

the spark plugs firing only on the induction stroke

d)

the spark plugs firing only on the exhaust stroke

24.

Inputs into an Air Data Computer are....

(select all that apply)

a)

pitot pressure

b)

outside air temperature

c)

temperature at the nearest three aerodromes

d)

True Airspeed

25.

A creep mark on an aircraft tyre indicates...

a)

If the inner tube is moving relative to the tyre

b)

if the tyre tread is low and needs replacing

c)

if the wheel rim is damaged

d)

if there is insufficient air in the tyre

26.

What is the correct statement regarding TCAS 1?

a)

TCAS 1 can provide a Resolution Advisory

b)

TCAS 1 cannot provide a Resolution Advisory

27.

A disadvantage of a fixed pitch propeller is...

a)

it has only one altitude at which it reaches maximum efficiency

b)

it has only one temperature at which it reaches maximum efficiency

c)

it has only one air density at which it reaches maximum efficiency

d)

it has only one speed at which it reaches maximum efficiency

28.

When you want to increase the speed of an aircraft fitted with a CSU, the correct method is to;

a)

select a rich mixture, select a coaser pitch, increase the throttle

b)

increase the throttle, select a rich mixture, select a finer pitch

c)

select a rich mixture, select a finer pitch, increase the throttle

d)

select a coarser pitch, increase the throttle, select a rich mixture

29.

Pascal's principle states that if...

a)

pressure is applied at any point to any substance in a closed system, that same pressure is felt throughout the system

b)

pressure is applied at any point to a liquid in a closed system, that same pressure is felt throughout the system

c)

pressure is applied at any point to air in a closed system, that same pressure is felt throughout the system

d)

pressure is applied at any point to a solid in a closed system, that same pressure is felt throughout the system

30.

Which of these are types of fire detection mechanisms found in aircraft?

Select all that apply

a)

bi-metallic switch

b)

capacitance measuring

c)

thermocouple

d)

thermal imaging

31.

The Chemically Correct Mixture (CCM) ratio of Fuel to Air is

a)

1:15

b)

15:1

c)

12:1

d)

1:12

32.

Normal working limits for Fuel to Air ratio are

a)

1:8 to 1:20

b)

1:5 to 1:15

c)

1:9 to 1:18

d)

1:12 to 1: 20

33.

The fuel to air ratio for best economy is found at about

a)

1:12

b)

1:16

c)

1:15

d)

1:9

34.

Select the two qualities of a spinning gyroscope

a)

Precession

b)

Rigidity

c)

Suction

d)

Transference

e)

Resultant

35.

Select all types of systems which can be used to spin a gyroscopic rotor

a)

Venturi

b)

Vacuum

c)

Positive pressure

d)

Magnetic flux

36.

Component Z is the...

a)

horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field which acts on a compass needle

b)

allowance for residual dip made in the manufacture of the compass

c)

vertical component of the earth's magnetic field which acts on a compass needle

d)

allowance for the angle of dip made in the manufacture of the compass

37.

An object that allows electricity to flow through it is a

a)

resistance

b)

insulator

c)

conductor

d)

cotton

38.

The measure of how much a material opposes the flow of current is called

a)

conductor

b)

insulator

c)

electrical field

d)

resistance

39.

Electric current that reverses its direction of flow in a regular pattern is...

a)

Voltage

b)

Direct Current

c)

Alternating Current

d)

Parallel Circuit

40.

Volumetric efficiency can be calculated by

a)

brake power divided by indicated power

b)

brake power divided by fuel consumption

c)

fuel flow divided by brake power

d)

volume of the charge divided by piston displacement

41.

A generator...

a)

contains an electromagnet

b)

produces AC which is rectified to DC by diodes

c)

spins a coil of wire inside a magnet

d)

contains a primary coil, secondary coil and an impulse coupling

42.

Acceleration error exists due to...

a)

pendulous suspension

b)

residual dip

c)

deviation

d)

variation

43.

What is the procedure for a LIVE CUT CHECK

a)

BOTH, L, R, OFF

b)

OFF, L, R, BOTH

c)

BOTH

d)

R, OFF, BOTH, L

44.

Component H is the...

a)

vertical component of the earth's magnetic field which acts on a compass needle

b)

allowance for residual dip made in the manufacture of the compass

c)

allowance for the angle of dip made in the manufacture of the compass

d)

horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field which acts on a compass needle

45.

What would a Centre zero ammeter indicate if the alternator failed?

a)

Zero

b)

Positive

c)

Negative

d)

Fluctuating

46.

Which statement about a bourdon tube is correct ?

a)

It is used to measure Exhaust Gas Temperature

b)

As pressure in the tube increases, it will try to straighten

c)

It is used to measure Manifold Air Pressure

d)

As ambient air pressure increases, it will constrict the tube

47.

What sort of engine is shown here?

a)

inline piston engine

b)

inverted inline

c)

turbine

d)

radial

48.

Cylinder volume with the piston at bottom dead center (BDC) compared to cylinder volume with the piston at top dead center (TDC) is known as...

a)

Compression Ratio

b)

Postion Comparison

c)

Piston Aspect Ratio

d)

Engine Displacement

49.

What's another name for the four-stroke engine cycle?

a)

Tesla Cycle

b)

Brayton Cycle

c)

Otto Cycle

d)

Bi Cycle

50.

When flying an aircraft fitted with a constant speed unit, what controls the manifold pressure?

a)

throttle

b)

mixture

c)

pitch lever

d)

carburettor heat

51.

Ohm's law states that in a circuit if the current is 25 Amperes and resistance is 19 Ohms, then the Voltage will be...

a)

475 volts

b)

2 volts

c)

0.5 volts

d)

2 millivolts

52.

Placing the two north poles of magnets together would result in which electromagnetic force?

a)

repulsion

b)

attraction

c)

polarity

d)

intransigence

53.

A practical alternator consists of...

a)

electrolytes and electrodes

b)

a coil of wire rotating between the poles of a stationary magnet

c)

magic

d)

an electromagnet rotating inside a coil of wire

54.

A normally aspirated engine is one which

a)

is not fitted with a supercharger or turbocharger

b)

has a turbocharger but no supercharger

c)

has a supercharger but no turbocharger

d)

has both a supercharger and a turbocharger

55.

Torque is

a)

what some NZAAL students do too much of

b)

measured in Joules

c)

a force which produces a turning motion

d)

the capacity to do work

56.

Force is equal to

a)

Acceleration x Mass

b)

Power x Time

c)

Distance x Torque

d)

Brake Power x Distance

57.

Select all types of systems which can be used to spin a gyroscopic rotor

a)

Venturi

b)

Vacuum

c)

Positive Pressure

d)

Magnetic Flux

58.

According to the picture, the aircraft is...

a)

in a turn to the right and is slipping

b)

has its right wing down and the aircraft is yawing

c)

yawing and the left wing is down

d)

in a turn to the right and is skidding

59.

In an Artificial Horizon the gyroscope is mounted so that...

a)

it's axis of rotation is horizontal and in line with the aircraft's wings

b)

it cannot rotate beyond 55 degrees in pitch

c)

it's axis of rotation is vertical

d)

it's axis of rotation is horizontal and in line with the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

60.

Zero Fuel Weight is equal to...

a)

APSW + payload

b)

APSW + fuel

c)

Ramp weight + fuel

d)

Gross weight + fuel

61.

Your aircraft has a AUW of 5087kg with a CG limit between STA20 - STA30. Your CG is at STA22 currently. How much freight can you load at STA-28 without exceeding limits?

Answer to the nearest full number (no decimals)

a)

212 kg

b)

110 kg

c)

363 kg

d)

508 kg

62.

Using the C152 pchart and the data below, what is your day landing distance in meters on an air transport runway paved?

W/V ºM : 220 / 14

Runway: 25

Temp: 20ºc

Elevation: 11ft

a)

380

b)

400

c)

420

d)

450

63.

If my initial landing distance is 342m and I see I am landing on a 0.38 uphill runway what will my new landing distance be?

a)

342m

b)

335.5m

c)

348.5m

d)

339m

64.

Landing on runway 18 and the wind is 215/21 what is the total headwind experienced?

a)

17kts

b)

20kts

c)

15kts

d)

10kts

65.

You are working in load control today and realised you need to move a 43kg package. The aircraft has an all up weight of 4500kg, the CG is currently 312 cm aft of the datum. Our CG limits are 313 to 319 cm aft of the datum. You have decided to move the package from the forward hold located at STA 101 and move it rearwards to a hold located at STA 590.
What is the new CG? (answer to 2 decimal places)

(a)  

66.

If the weight of a bag is 46kg and it creates a moment of 172.13kgm, what is the arm?

a)

3.742m

b)

3.123m

c)

3.627m

d)

3.751cm

67.

My aircraft has an AUW of 7860kg and my CG is currently sitting at 107cm aft of the datum. The CG limits are 104 to 113 cm aft of the datum. How much weight can I load at STA 222 without exceeding the aft limit?

a)

432kg

b)

422kg

c)

411kg

d)

444kg

68.

The function of a bus bar in an electrical circuit is to...

a)

distribute power to a number of circuits

b)

break the circuit in case of an electrical overload

c)

provide over voltage protection

d)

generate power for a system

69.

If my runway was declared 515m long on the operational data sheet and I am landing on a 135 operation, what distance must I stop within?

a)

440m

b)

438m

c)

430m

d)

428m

70.

One reason that prolonged use of the starter motor should be avoided is...

a)

it can wear out the valve assembly in the engine

b)

the key switch may deteriorate

c)

the battery may go flat

d)

the impulse coupling will supply too much voltage to the spark plugs

71.

The AUW of your aircraft is 4500lb and the current CofG is computed to be 2 inches forward of the forward CofG limit. The permissible range of the CofG is from 80 inches aft to 90 inches aft of the datum and the rear luggage locker is positioned 150 inches aft the datum. What is the minimum ballast to be added to the rear luggage locker to bring the CofG within limits? (DO NOT INCLUDE UNITS)


(a)  

72.
What is a possible consequence if a hand operated fuel priming pump is not locked in the closed position after the engine has started?
a)

An over rich mixture

b)

Spark plug fouling

c)

Detonation

d)

The engine may stop

73.

What frequency does an ELT transmit on

a)

119.1

b)

All nearby frequencies

c)

121.5 only

d)

121.5 & 406 MHz

74.

When does an ELT activate?

a)

When set off by the PIC

b)

When subjected to 5 or 6 G's

c)

On all emergencies

d)

Never

75.

Which of these are types of oxygen systems?

a)

Constant Flow

b)

Altitude Compensating

c)

Altitude Adjusting

d)

Altitude Correcting

76.

How is payload calculated?

a)

BEW + ZFW

b)

BOW + ZFW

c)

APSW - BOW

d)

Ramp Weight - BOW

77.

Given the following information, what is the ZFW:

MCTOW: 30,000 kg

MLW: 26,000 kg

Ramp Weight: 32,000 kg

BOW: 20,000 kg

Payload: 2,000 kg

NO UNITS IN ANSWER

(a)  

78.

If I land on a runway that has an upslope towards the threshold my landing distance will be:

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

Stay the same

d)

Aspeq??

79.

Which of the following is a de-icing aid?

a)

Pneumatic boots

b)

Windscreen heater

c)

Bonding strips

d)

Heated propellor

80.

What is tyre creep

a)

A tube tyre rotating around the stationary wheel rim

b)

A tubeless tyre rotating around the stationary wheel rim

c)

A wierd dude

d)

The wheel advancing over the side of the rim

81.

Most light a/c have independent hydraulic brake systems

a)

False

b)

True

82.

Anti-skid systems incorporate an a/c generator in the hub of each wheel

a)

False

b)

True

83.

What is 100L of AVGAS in kg?

(NO UNITS)

(a)  

84.

The most common type of brake system is:

a)

Drum-Type

b)

Boosted Brakes

c)

Hydraulic Disc Brake

d)

Pneumatic Brake-Shoe

85.

An accumulator is used in what type of hydraulic system

a)

Open Centre

b)

Pressurised

c)

Manual Pump

d)

Pneumatic

86.

In order, what is the colour of these hydraulic fluids:

Synthetic, Vegetable, Mineral

a)

Green, Red, Blue

b)

Red, Purple, Blue

c)

Blue, Red, Purple

d)

Purple, Blue, Red

87.

AUW is 4,170 kg and the present CG is 4,015 mm. CG limits are 4,020 to 4,080 mm aft of datum. How much weight must be off-loaded from STA 1,300 to bring the CG to 20mm aft of the forward datum? (NO UNITS, ANSWER TO 2 DECIMAL PLACES)

(a)  

88.

What are the 2 most common types of autopilot systems?

a)

Four-axis

b)

Single-axis

c)

Trim

d)

Two-axis

89.

What system would provide the pilot with a Resolution Advisory?

a)

GPWS

b)

TCAS II

c)

TCAS 1

d)

EGPWS

90.

What is the Global Datum used in GPS in NZ?

a)

WSG 84

b)

WPS 84

c)

WGS 84

d)

GPS 84

91.

If my CSU is underspeed, what position will the flyweights be in?

a)

No change

b)

Tilted outward

c)

Level

d)

Tilted inward

92.

In which direction does Lift act on a windmilling propellor

a)

In the direction of flight

b)

Straight up

c)

Opposite the direction of flight

d)

90 degrees to the Plane of Rotation

93.

Does CTM act to fine or coarsen the blade in windmilling flight?

a)

Fine

b)

Coarsen

94.

What is the condition of the propellor when it is producing no net propellor torque

a)

5 degrees Coarse

b)

Feathered

c)

Reverse Thrust

d)

Fine

95.

If I lower my nose in a CSU equipped a/c without changing any setting, what will happen to my propellor

a)

There will be no change

b)

It will fine

c)

It will fall off

d)

It will coarsen

96.

ATM is stronger than CTM

a)

True

b)

False

97.

What is the main difference between turboprop and piston engines?

a)

They operate more efficiently

b)

They produce power continually

c)

They are bigger

d)

They look cooler

98.

Thermal efficiency of a piston engine can be as low as:

a)

50%

b)

20%

c)

17%

d)

30%

99.

The Fuel:Air ratio for max power is:

a)

1:18

b)

1:15

c)

1:12

d)

1:16

100.

AMC is a type of carburettor

a)

Talse

b)

True

c)

False

d)

Frue