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MBD FINAL EXAM - AU MANILA

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the function of restriction endonucleases?
a)
a. They splice short pieces of DNA together.
b)
b. They cleave DNA at specific sites.
c)
c. They make RNA copies of DNA.
d)
d. They make DNA copies from RNA.
2.
Which of the following methods best describes a nucleic acid probe?
a)
a. It attaches to double-stranded DNA.
b)
b. It is used in transcription-mediated amplification.
c)
c. It is used to detect specific single-stranded DNA sequences.
d)
d. It plays a key role in DNA chain termination sequencing.
3.

How many Bp is the band is sample A?

a)

1200bp

b)

1000bp

c)

500bp

d)

2--bp

4.

What are the bands in Sample C?

a)

1000bp, 600bp, and 100bp

b)

50bp, 200bp and 400 bp

c)

1200bp, 500bp, and 100bp

d)

600bp, 300bp, and 100bp

5.
Put the following in order from 1st step to last step.
A. Stain the gel
B. PCR
C. Load the DNA
D. Analyze
E. Add restriction enzymes
F. Electrophorese
a)
B, E, C, F, A, D
b)
D, A, C, B, F, E
c)
F, C, A, E, B, D
d)
B, C, E, A, D, F
6.

a technique used to separate nucleic acids or proteins according to size and charge in an agarose or acrylamide gel

a)

genetic engineering

b)

vector

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

two-dimensional gel electrophoresis

7.

This is a molecule that cuts DNA at a specific sequence.

a)

restriction enzyme

b)

DNA probe

c)

gene

d)

electrophoresis

8.

DNA has a ___________ charge and will migrate through a gel towards the ___________ electrode.

a)

positive, negative

b)

positive, positive

c)

negative, positive

d)

negative, negative

9.

Larger DNA fragments move through a gel _____________ smaller DNA fragments.

a)

faster than

b)

at the same rate as

c)

slower than

10.

Place the steps of DNA Sequencing below into their correct order.

A. Detection of fluorescence w/ lasers & sensors

B. PCR w/ fluorescent dideoxynucleotides

C. Separate DNA by size w/ gel electrophoresis

D. Match DNA sequence using BLAST database

a)

A, B, C, D

b)

B, C, A, D

c)

B, A, C, D

d)

D, B, C, A

11.

which strand in the Gel Electrophoresis will be faster

a)

short strand

b)

tall strand

c)

i don't know:)

12.

The combined mixture of all labeled DNA fragments is electrophoresed to _____ the fragments by______ and the ladder of fragments is scanned for the presence of each of the four labels.

a)

separate, size

b)

separate, pH

c)

assimilate, pH

d)

assimilate, size

13.
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
a)
separate DNA fragments.
b)
combine DNA fragments.
c)
count the genes in DNA.
d)
insert DNA in cells.
14.

DNA has a _________ charge.

a)

positive

b)

opposite

c)

negative

d)

attractive

15.
This image is an example of which DNA Technology process?
a)
PCR
b)
Blotting
c)
Gel Electrophoresis
d)
Cloning
16.

What is the primary purpose of electrophoresis?

a)

To amplify DNA

b)

To separate molecules based on size and charge

c)

To visualize nucleic acids

d)

To synthesize proteins

17.

Which gel type is derived from seaweed?

a)

Agarose Gel

b)

Capillary Gel

c)

Silica Gel

d)

Polyacrylamide Gel

18.

What is the role of buffer systems in electrophoresis?

a)

To enhance the visibility of the samples

b)

To increase the temperature of the gel

c)

To carry the current and protect samples

d)

To provide nutrients to the samples

19.

Which dye is most widely used for DNA analysis?

a)

Ethidium Bromide

b)

Fluorescein

c)

Silver Stain

d)

SyBr Green

20.

What is the typical concentration range for low-concentration agarose gels?

a)

2000-50,000 bp

b)

1-10%

c)

50-500 bp

d)

10-20%

21.

What is the purpose of using pulsed field gel electrophoresis?

a)

To synthesize nucleic acids

b)

To visualize proteins

c)

To enhance migration of very large DNA pieces

d)

To separate small DNA fragments

22.

Which of the following is a common buffer used in electrophoresis?

a)

Acetic acid

b)

Tris borate EDTA (TBE)

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Sodium chloride

23.

What is the main advantage of polyacrylamide gels?

a)

Higher resolution for small fragments

b)

Lower cost

c)

More durable

d)

Easier to prepare

24.

What does a pure preparation of DNA typically have as an OD260/OD280 ratio?

a)

1.0-1.5

b)

2.5-3.0

c)

1.8-2.0

d)

0.5-1.0

25.

What is the function of the comb in electrophoresis equipment?

a)

To heat the gel

b)

To stir the buffer solution

c)

To create wells for sample loading

d)

To measure DNA concentration

26.

Which of the following is a characteristic of capillary electrophoresis?

a)

Requires high temperatures

b)

Only for protein analysis

c)

Separates based on size and charge

d)

Uses large gel slabs

27.

What is the purpose of using additives like formamide in electrophoresis?

a)

To enhance gel strength

b)

To modify sample molecules for migration

c)

To increase the pH

d)

To reduce sample size

28.

What is the primary use of a UV-VIS spectrophotometer in nucleic acid analysis?

a)

To amplify DNA

b)

To separate DNA fragments

c)

To measure absorbance at specific wavelengths

d)

To visualize proteins

29.

What happens to negatively charged molecules in high pH buffers during capillary electrophoresis?

a)

They become protonated

b)

They migrate slower

c)

They are completely ionized

d)

They precipitate out

30.

What is the primary function of restriction enzymes?

a)

To synthesize DNA

b)

To cleave DNA at specific sites

c)

To transfer RNA

d)

To amplify DNA

31.

What type of sequences do restriction enzymes recognize?

a)

Linear sequences

b)

Palindromic sequences

c)

Circular sequences

d)

Random sequences

32.

What is the purpose of hybridization in nucleic acid analysis?

a)

To separate DNA fragments

b)

To bond complementary DNA or RNA molecules

c)

To amplify DNA sequences

d)

To visualize proteins

33.

Which technique is used to evaluate specific DNA sequences?

a)

Northern blotting

b)

PCR

c)

Western blotting

d)

Southern blotting

34.

What is the first step in the Southern blot technique?

a)

Hybridization

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

DNA digestion

d)

Probe labeling

35.

What is the main purpose of Southern blotting?

a)

To amplify RNA

b)

To identify proteins

c)

To detect specific DNA sequences

d)

To analyze RNA sequences

36.

What is the role of a probe in hybridization techniques?

a)

To identify complementary sequences

b)

To digest DNA

c)

To amplify DNA

d)

To separate RNA

37.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Northern blotting?

a)

It analyzes RNA sequences

b)

It is used for DNA amplification

c)

It is used for protein detection

d)

It focuses on DNA sequences

38.

What is the purpose of the blocking step in blotting techniques?

a)

To enhance signal detection

b)

To amplify DNA

c)

To prevent nonspecific binding

d)

To digest RNA

39.

What is the main application of Western blotting?

a)

To amplify nucleic acids

b)

To analyze DNA sequences

c)

To visualize RNA

d)

To detect specific proteins

40.

What is the significance of using a radioactive probe?

a)

To enhance DNA synthesis

b)

To amplify RNA

c)

To visualize protein bands

d)

To detect specific nucleic acid sequences

41.

What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis in nucleic acid analysis?

a)

To amplify DNA

b)

To separate nucleic acid fragments by size

c)

To label probes

d)

To digest RNA

42.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the Western blot technique?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

Probe labeling

c)

Protein denaturation

d)

DNA digestion

43.

What is the role of dithiothreitol in Western blotting?

a)

To denature proteins

b)

To label probes

c)

To separate RNA

d)

To digest DNA

44.

Check the purity of the DNA.

OD260 - 0.456

OD280 -0.245

a)

Pure

b)

Protein contamination

c)

Chloroform contamination

45.

Compute the DNA Concentration.

How much DNA is present in a diluted sample (1uL of sample in 50 ul diluting fluid) and the at ab260 is 1.98?

(a)  

46.

Compute the DNA Yields.

A DNA extraction resulted in 100 uL total volume. The sample was diluted 1:10 and gave an OD260 of 0.291.

(a)  

47.

If the target sequence or restriction site is 5'GCTTCG3', what is the complementary sequence read in the 3'-5' direction?

a)

CGAAGC

b)

GCTTCG

c)

CGUUCG

d)

GCUUCG

48.

The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as.....

a)

sticky end.

b)

base sequence.

c)

single strands.

d)

restriction fragments.

49.

What kind of cuts were made in the scenario above?

a)

Blunt

b)

Sticky

c)

No cuts were made

d)

Palindrome

50.
Which restriction enzyme listed below was isolated from E.coli bacteria?
a)
AluI
b)
HindIII
c)
HaeII
d)
EcoRI
51.

1. If the recognition sequence of the restriction enzyme HindIII is AAGCTT, then how many covalent bonds will be broken by the enzyme in the following DNA molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

52.
Some restriction enzymes produce "sticky ends". Sticky ends are . . . 
a)
single-stranded DNA "overhangs" that can bind to complementary DNA
b)
smooth cuts that are sticky due to the "goo" left behind by the enzyme
c)
The two wires (black and red) on a gel box
d)
The surface of the LB agar plates so that bacteria can grow
53.
Restriction enzymes need the right temperature and buffer in order to work because . . . 
a)
they recreate the conditions from the bacteria at which the enzyme works 
b)
they cut the DNA
c)
they allow the DNA to move through the gel 
d)
they aren't needed - it's just a waste of time
54.

Which mutation is most commonly associated with cystic fibrosis?

a)

ΔF508

b)

K-RAS

c)

TP53

d)

RB1

55.

What type of lung cancer accounts for over 80% of cases?

a)

Non-small cell lung cancer

b)

Small cell lung cancer

c)

Lung carcinoid tumor

d)

Mesothelioma

56.

Which gene is often mutated in small cell lung cancer?

a)

EGFR

b)

RB1

c)

K-RAS

d)

TP53

57.

What molecular biology technique is used to amplify specific DNA sequences?

a)

Immunohistochemistry

b)

Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

d)

Next-Generation Sequencing

58.

What is a major cause of hospital-acquired infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a)

Cystic fibrosis lung infections

b)

Burn infections

c)

Eye infections

d)

Urinary tract infections

59.

Which gene is linked to insulin resistance in Type 2 diabetes?

a)

MYC

b)

INS

c)

TCF7L2

d)

PTEN

60.

What does the blaKPC gene in Klebsiella pneumoniae confer resistance to?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Carbapenem antibiotics

c)

Colistin

d)

Penicillin

61.

Which gene mutation is commonly associated with aggressive prostate cancer?

a)

HLA-DQ

b)

FTO

c)

TP53

d)

BRCA1

62.

Which molecular technique is used to detect chromosomal rearrangements in prostate cancer?

a)

Western Blotting

b)

Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization (FISH)

c)

PCR

d)

RNA Sequencing

63.

Which technique is used to amplify specific genes related to diabetes?

a)

CRISPR-Cas9

b)

Mass Spectrometry

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

d)

Next-Generation Sequencing

64.

Which gene is primarily associated with quinolone resistance in Acinetobacter baumannii?

a)

oxa23

b)

qnrA

c)

armA

d)

aadB

65.

What is a significant virulence factor produced by Acinetobacter baumannii?

a)

Dystrophin

b)

Phospholipase D

c)

BRCA1

d)

TP53

66.

What is the primary cause of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

a)

Mutations in the TP53 gene

b)

Mutations in the DMD gene

c)

Mutations in the BRCA1 gene

d)

Mutations in the PTEN gene

67.

Which molecular technique is used to amplify specific regions of the DMD gene?

a)

Sanger Sequencing

b)

Western Blot

c)

PCR

d)

NGS

68.

Which gene is frequently mutated in high-grade serous ovarian carcinoma?

a)

BRCA1

b)

TP53

c)

PALB2

d)

PTEN

69.

What is the primary function of the armA gene in Acinetobacter baumannii?

a)

Encodes a 16S rRNA methylase

b)

Encodes a protein that enhances biofilm formation

c)

Encodes a phospholipase

d)

Encodes a protein that facilitates DNA repair

70.

What is the function of the TP53 gene in colon cancer?

a)

Enhances DNA repair

b)

Increases cholesterol levels

c)

Promotes cell division

d)

Regulates apoptosis

71.

Which gene is commonly mutated in the early stages of colon cancer?

a)

BRCA1

b)

APC

c)

TP53

d)

KRAS

72.

What is Familial Hypercholesterolemia primarily caused by?

a)

Viral infections

b)

Sedentary lifestyle

c)

Genetic mutations

d)

High sugar intake

73.

What is the role of the APC gene in colon cancer?

a)

Regulates cell growth

b)

Inhibits apoptosis

c)

Promotes tumor growth

d)

Enhances DNA replication

74.

What is the primary mechanism of the vanB gene?

a)

Alters peptidoglycan synthesis

b)

Increases antibiotic absorption

c)

Enhances metabolic pathways

d)

Promotes cell adhesion

75.

What is the main risk factor for developing colon cancer?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Low cholesterol levels

c)

Genetic predisposition

d)

High fiber diet

76.

Which gene is involved in binding LDL particles to the LDL receptor?

a)

LDLR

b)

APOB

c)

TP53

d)

KRAS

77.

What is the significance of mutations in the LDLR gene?

a)

Increase blood pressure

b)

Lead to high cholesterol levels

c)

Enhance immune response

d)

Reduce inflammation

78.

Which organ is NOT typically affected by Gaucher cells?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Heart

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

79.

What accumulates in lysosomes due to GCase deficiency?

a)

Glucocerebroside

b)

Sphingomyelin

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Galactocerebroside

80.

What genetic mutation is associated with Gaucher disease?

a)

Mutation in the GBA2 gene

b)

Mutation in the GBA4 gene

c)

Mutation in the GBA1 gene

d)

Mutation in the GBA3 gene

81.

What type of genetic disorder is Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

Mitochondrial

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

Autosomal dominant

82.

On which chromosome is the HPRT1 gene located?

a)

Chromosome 2

b)

Y chromosome

c)

X chromosome

d)

Chromosome 1

83.

What is the effect of the mutation in the HPRT1 gene?

a)

Increased HPRT enzyme activity

b)

No effect on HPRT enzyme

c)

Severely reduced HPRT enzyme

d)

Complete absence of HPRT enzyme

84.

Which gene is associated with bone cancer?

a)

LDLR

b)

TP53

c)

APOB

d)

PCSK9

85.

Which of the following is NOT a type of bone cancer?

a)

Osteosarcoma

b)

Chondrosarcoma

c)

Melanoma

d)

Ewing sarcoma

86.

What is the most well-known gene associated with an increased risk of breast cancer?

a)

TP53

b)

BRCA1

c)

HER2

d)

EGFR

87.

What is a common method used to detect MRSA?

a)

Sanger Sequencing

b)

Real-Time PCR

c)

Microsatellite Instability Testing

d)

Immunohistochemistry

88.

Which type of diabetes is characterized by mutations in the HNF1A gene?

a)

Gestational diabetes

b)

Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)

c)

Type 2 diabetes

d)

Type 1 diabetes

89.

What does the mecA gene encode?

a)

Penicillin-binding protein 2a

b)

Mismatch repair protein

c)

Insulin receptor

d)

Tumor suppressor protein

90.

The haptens that can be used in non-radioactive labelling of probes are

a)

Biotin

b)

Digoxigenin

c)

Fluorescein

d)

All of the above

91.

DNA on agarose gel can be stained with

a)

Ethidium bromide

b)

Gram Stain

c)

Eosin Stain

d)

All of the above

92.

Another name for complementary DNA is:

a)

cDNA

b)

miDNA

c)

ncDNA

d)

snRNP

e)

RFLP

93.

In Southern blotting _________ type of gel is used for the separation of molecular band

a)

Polyacrylamide

b)

Agarose

c)

Starch

d)

None

94.

In Southern blotting, ___________ type paper is used for blot transfer

a)

Nitrocellulose membrane or Nylon membrane filter

b)

Whatman filter paper

c)

Paper towel filter paper

d)

None

95.

A student researcher overexpresses an exogenous protein in cell culture and wants to determine if that protein, is in fact, overexpressed. What technique would best demonstrate that this protein is expressed in these cells?

a)

NORTHERN BLOT

b)

SOUTHERN BLOT

c)

WESTERN BLOT

d)

EASTERN BLOT

96.

Which of the following probes are most commonly used in Western blotting?

a)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

b)

ANTIBODIES

c)

BOVINE SERUM ALBUMIN

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

97.

What is the purpose of washing in every step in western blotting?

a)

to ensure a stable pH environment in the tank

b)

to remove any unbound antibodies

c)

to remove any contaminating residues

d)

to avoid protein degradation

e)

to moisten the transfer membrane

98.

What is the first step in blotting technique?

a)

Detection and analysis of molecules of interest

b)

Separation of molecules based on size and charge

c)

Transfer of separated molecules from a gel to a membrane

d)

Labeling of probes or antibodies

99.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are?

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

smaller, and move faster

c)

larger, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

100.

Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?

a)

DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit

b)

the agarose gel in negatively charged

c)

DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit

d)

the agarose gel is positively charged

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