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Electrophysiology Review 2025

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 6hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are Auditory Evoked Potentials?

a)

Responses within the auditory system stimulated or evoked by sounds

b)

Neuro-electric signals that travel down the axon

c)

Endogenous EEG signals that allow you to infer the health of the cochlea

d)

Behavioral responses generated by pure tones

2.

What are neurons?

a)

Electrically excitable cells that make up the nervous system

b)

Signals that travel down the axon

c)

Potentials evoked by an auditory stimulus

d)

Receptors that bind to neurotransmitters

3.

Where do clicks best stimulate the cochlea?

a)

The first turn of the cochlea around 2-4 kHz

b)

The base of the cochlea around 0.5 kHz

c)

The apex of the cochlea around 5-6 kHz

d)

The middle of the cochlea around 4-5 kHz

4.

How is a dipole generated?

a)

Transmembrane ionic current flow creates negative sink & positive source charges in the extracellular space separated by a small distance

b)

By neurotransmitters binding to receptors

c)

A cell creates a negative source and that negativity propagates through the skin and muscles

d)

A cell becomes positive and then travels through skin

5.

Why are ABR recordings completed twice at the same protocol settings?

a)

To ensure the waves are replicable

b)

To increase the wave amplitudes

c)

To decrease the wave latencies

d)

To enhance the wave frequency

6.

Which is NOT a factor that influences volume conduction of a neural signal?

a)

Dipole negativity

b)

Distance of recording electrode from dipole

c)

Geometric orientation of neuronal population

d)

Temporal synchrony of firing neurons

7.

How does intensity affect AEP latency and amplitude?

a)

Latency decreases and amplitude increases with greater intensities

b)

Latency increases and amplitude decreases with greater intensities

c)

Latency and amplitude both increase with greater intensities

d)

Latency and amplitude both decrease with greater intensities

8.

What causes an action potential?

a)

Membrane potential depolarizes and crosses threshold potential due to excitatory input

b)

Binding of neurotransmitters to receptors leading to more negative intracellular environment

c)

Evoked potentials by an auditory stimulus

d)

Resting potential of -70 mV

9.

What is an ASSR?

a)

A steady-state AEP evoked by periodically varying, continuous stimuli

b)

A rapid response to sudden loud noises

c)

A slow response to low-frequency sounds

d)

A temporary change in hearing sensitivity

10.

How does frequency affect the duration of tone bursts? Assume identical number of cycles

a)

Higher frequency = shorter duration

b)

Higher frequency = longer duration

c)

Lower frequency = shorter duration

d)

Duration does not change if the number of cycles is identical across frequencies

11.

What are the general guidelines for a typical ABR?

a)

85 dB NHL click will have a V latency of 5.5 ms, an amplitude of 0.5 uV, and a I-V IPL upper limit of 4.5 ms

b)

60 dB NHL click will have a V latency of 4.5 ms, an amplitude of 0.3 uV, and a I-V IPL of 3.5 ms

c)

70 dB NHL click will have a V latency of 6.5 ms, an amplitude of 0.4 uV, and a I-V IPL of 5.5 ms

d)

95 dB NHL click will have a V latency of 7.5 ms, an amplitude of 0.6 uV, and a I-V IPL of 6.5 ms

12.

What presentation rate is best for maximizing responses from higher-level auditory structures (e.g., cortex)?

a)

Fast presentation rate

b)

Slow presentation rate

c)

Moderate presentation rate

d)

Variable presentation rate

13.

The dipole generators of which wave(s) are more horizontally oriented?

a)

Wave I

b)

Wave II

c)

Wave IV

d)

Wave V

14.

Which wave is often the most robust wave in an ABR?

a)

Wave V

b)

Wave I

c)

Wave II

d)

Wave IV

15.

What is the approximate resting potential of a typical neuron?

a)

-70 mV relative to the extracellular environment

b)

0 mV relative to the extracellular environment

c)

+70 mV relative to the extracellular environment

d)

-90 mV relative to the extracellular environment

16.

What effect does a contralateral montage have on ABR recordings?

a)

Enhances IV/V but reduces I

b)

Enhances I/II but reduces IV

c)

Enhances II/III but reduces V

d)

Enhances III/IV but reduces II

17.

Why does latency increase at lower frequencies?

a)

The traveling wave delay associated with stimulating apical regions takes longer

b)

The traveling wave delay associated with stimulating basal regions takes longer

c)

The traveling wave delay associated with stimulating middle regions takes longer

d)

The traveling wave delay associated with stimulating distal regions is faster

18.

Which components of the ECochG flip with polarity?

a)

CM

b)

SP

c)

AP

d)

Wave I

19.

What are the typical effects of repetition rates (RR) on adult ABR Wave V latencies?

a)

Latencies will increase ~0.4-0.6 ms with a RR increase from 20-80/sec

b)

Latencies will decrease ~0.4-0.6 ms with a RR increase from 20-80/sec

c)

Latencies will increase ~0.2-0.4 ms with a RR increase from 20-80/sec

d)

Latencies will decrease ~0.2-0.4 ms with a RR increase from 20-80/sec

20.

The dipole generators of which wave(s) are more vertically oriented?

a)

Wave IV

b)

Wave V

c)

Wave I

d)

Wave II

21.

What is an example of neural adaptation?

a)

Fewer natural elements firing at high stimulus rates which causes reduced spatial summation or fewer synchronous neurons firing

b)

Increased firing of neurons at high stimulus rates

c)

Constant firing of neurons regardless of stimulus rates

d)

Increased spatial summation at low stimulus rates

22.

Which of the following is NOT associated with alternating polarity?

a)

Diminished stimulus artifact in the averaged recording

b)

Equal number of condensation and rarefaction trials

c)

Cochlear microphonic is absent in response waveform

d)

Stimulus intensity increases

23.

What is the neural generator of ABR wave I?

a)

Proximal auditory nerve

b)

Outer hair cells

c)

Cochlear nucleus

d)

Distal auditory nerve

24.

What are the components of the MLR?

a)

P0, Na, Pa, Nb, Pb

b)

P1, N1, P2, N2

c)

CM, SP, AP

d)

OHC, IHC, CN

25.

What is a chirp stimulus?

a)

A stimulus that uses input compensation via low to high frequency sweep to account for the traveling wave delay

b)

A stimulus that increases the amplitude of sound waves

c)

A stimulus that decreases the frequency of sound waves

d)

A stimulus that uses output compensation by aligning response waves to generate a bigger response

26.

What effect does a horizontal montage have on ABR recordings?

a)

Enhances I/II

b)

Enhances II/III

c)

Enhances III/IV

d)

Enhances IV/V

27.

The oddball paradigm is often used to elicit which AEP?

a)

Acoustic change complex (ACC)

b)

Auditory late response (ALR)

c)

Mismatch negativity (MMN)

d)

N400

28.

What does a phasor plot depict in ASSR analysis?

a)

Phase lag between the stimulus fm and response

b)

The amplitude of sound waves

c)

The magnitude of different frequencies in a sound

d)

Onset phase of the sound waves

29.

Which of the following is NOT an ECochG component?

a)

Cochlear Microphonic

b)

Summating Potential

c)

Compound Action Potential

d)

Summary Action

30.

What fm produces the largest ASSR amplitudes in adults?

a)

40 Hz

b)

70 Hz

c)

15-20 Hz

d)

60 Hz

31.

The inferior colliculus is involved in generation of which ABR wave?

a)

I

b)

V

c)

None

d)

III

32.

What are the components of the LLR?

a)

P1, N1, P2

b)

P0, Na, Pa, Nb

c)

CM, SP, AP

d)

OHC, IHC, CN

33.

 

By what age should infants have an appropriate audiologic evaluation if screening shows a concern?

a)

By 1 month of age

b)

By 2 months of age

c)

By 3 months of age

d)

By 6 months of age

34.

Compared with adults, the protocol used for infant ABR is generally:

a)

Wider filter, narrower time window, faster rate

b)

Wider filter, wider time window, slower rate

c)

Narrower filter, wider time window, slower rat

d)

Narrower filter, narrower time window, faster rate

35.

Which statement best describes OAEs as a hearing test?

a)

They are a complete test of hearing on their own

b)

They directly predict pure-tone thresholds

c)

They are not a test of hearing per se, but reflect cochlear status

d)

They only measure middle ear status

36.

On ECochG, which finding is most consistent with Ménière’s disease?

a)

Increased SP/AP ratio due to enlarged SP

b)

Decreased SP/AP ratio due to absent SP

c)

Normal SP/AP ratio with absent AP

d)

No measurable SP or AP

37.

Which test pattern is most consistent with ANSD?

a)

Absent OAEs, normal ABR, present acoustic reflexes, normal ECochG

b)

Present OAEs, abnormal ABR, absent acoustic reflexes, normal CM, poor/absent AP

c)

Absent OAEs, absent ABR, absent acoustic reflexes, ECochG with no response

d)

Present OAEs, normal ABR, present acoustic reflexes, normal ECochG

38.

 

For a patient with ANSD, which test provides the best objective estimate of auditory thresholds?

a)

CM from Ecochg

b)

ABRs with Chirps

c)

MLR/LLR

d)

DPOAEs

39.

Which statement correctly contrasts MMN and P300?

a)

MMN reflects pre-conscious detection of changes, while P300 reflects active, attention-dependent processing of deviants.

b)

MMN requires the listener’s attention, but P300 does not.

c)

Both MMN and P300 require active attention to the sounds.

d)

MMN and P300 are both purely “pre-conscious” responses.

40.

Which pairing correctly matches each ERP with the type of violation it is most associated with?

a)

N400 – grammatical errors; P600 – semantic anomalies

b)

N400 – semantic anomalies; P600 – grammatical errors

c)

N400 – motor planning; P600 – visual processing

d)

N400 – attention; P600 – pre-conscious change detection