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Y9 SCIENCE REVISION

Total questions: 184

Worksheet time: 2hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Magnesium (Mg) and Oxygen (O) form an ________ bond.

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

d)

Giant Covalent

2.

What is the charge of an oxide (O) ion?

a)

+1

b)

-2

c)

+2

d)

-1

3.

When an atom loses an electron, it becomes a:

a)

positive ion

b)

negative ion

c)

neutral ion

d)

neutral atom

4.

Heat transfers from an area of ________ temperature to an area of _______ temperature.

a)

high to low

b)

low to high

c)

high to high

d)

low to low

5.

What is the goal of the Lewis Dot Structure?

a)

To determine the electron position.

b)

To show the element's valence electrons & bonding capabilities.

c)

To find the atomic mass of an element.

d)

To search for the number of electrons in an individual atom.

6.

Why do all bonds form?

a)

filling the outermost energy level to be stable

b)

to make all atoms the same

c)

to make other atoms unstable

d)

to make all atoms different

7.

What is the general rule for the movement of electrons in an ionic bond?

a)

Electrons move from the non-metal to the metal

b)

Electrons move from the metal to the non-metal

c)

Electrons move from the outermost shell to the inner shells

d)

Electrons move randomly between atoms

8.

How many valence electrons does Aluminum Have?

a)

1 Valence electron

b)

2 Valence electron

c)

3 Valence electron

d)

4 Valence electron

e)

5 Valence electron

9.

How is temperature related to heat?

a)

Temperature is a measure of the Average heat of an object.

b)

Heat causes a change in the temperature of an object.

c)

Raising the temperature causes the heat of an object to increase.

d)

Temperature and heat are two different ways to measure the same thing.

10.

Uranium-238 decays into Thorium-234 by emitting

a)

a neutron

b)

an alpha particle

c)

a beta particle

d)

a gamma particle

11.

What part of the atom has a mass of nearly 0?

a)

proton

b)

atom

c)

electron

d)

neutron

12.

This rock formed when bits of other rocks became pressed into a solid. What type of rock is it?

a)

Sedimentary Rock

b)

Metamorphic Rock

c)

Igneous Rock

13.

This rock was formed when molten rock cooled into a solid. What type of rock is it?

a)

Igneous Rock

b)

Metamorphic Rock

c)

Sedimentary Rock

14.

When you watch a volcano erupt molten rock, you are seeing _____

a)

Lava

b)

Magma

c)

Mineral Crystals

d)

Igneous Rocks

15.

Which of the words below describe mud, sand, and tiny bits of rocks that cement together to form a type of rock?

a)

stalactites

b)

magmas

c)

metamorphs

d)

sediments

16.

When sediments are pressed together tightly, this is called ____________.

a)

Compaction

b)

Cementation

c)

Weathering

d)

Erosion

17.

The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called

a)

erosion

b)

weathering

c)

sediments

18.

The movement of weathered material (sediment) is called?

a)

weathering

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

19.

Extreme Heat and Pressure creates a _________ rock.

a)

Igneous

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Sedimentary

d)

Mineral

20.

The three groups of rocks are classified by

a)

How they form

b)

Color

c)

Grain size

d)

Chemical Composition

21.

Cooling & crystalization produce

a)

igneous rocks

b)

metamorphic rocks

c)

sedimentary rocks

22.

Deposition & lithification or compacting & cementing produce

a)

sedimentary rocks

b)

igneous rocks

c)

metamorphic rocks

23.

What is a y?

(a)  

24.
If an element has 5 protons and 5 electrons, what is its net charge?
a)
+5
b)
-5
c)
0
d)
-1
25.
The positive particles of an atom are 
a)
electrons 
b)
positrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
26.
the central region of an atom where its neutrons and protons are is its 
a)
nucleus 
b)
electron cloud
c)
core 
d)
center 
27.
an atom with atomic number 6 would have how many protons 
a)
6
b)
12
c)
3
d)
cannot be determined 
28.
When an atom loses a valence electron, it becomes a(n) _____________ ion.
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
polyatomic
29.
When an atom gains a valence electron, it becomes a(n) _____________ ion.
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
polyatomic
30.
An electron has what kind of charge?
a)
no charge
b)
positive 
c)
negative
d)
it depends
31.
Atoms that gain & lose electrons are called _________
a)
ions
b)
isotopes
c)
radioactive
d)
corrosive
32.
What is the charge of an atom that has lost one electron?
a)
-1
b)
-2
c)
+1
d)
+2
33.
What is the charge of an atom that has gained one electron?
a)
-1
b)
-2
c)
+1
d)
+2
34.
What is the atomic number for an element with three protons?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
3
d)
6
35.
How many neutron are in the atom "K"?
a)
7
b)
2
c)
39
d)
20
36.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
37.

This is an example of a -------- circuit.

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Combination

38.

In this circuit, the bulb(s) that light up are:

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 2

d)

None of them

39.

In this circuit, the bulb(s) that light up are:

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 2

d)

None of them

40.

The bulbs have the same resistance. The brightest bulb in this circuit is:

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

Same brightness

d)

None of them

41.

The bulbs have the same resistance. The brightest bulb is:

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 2

d)

None of them

42.

This circuit shows:

a)

Conventional flow

b)

Electron flow

c)

Electricity

d)

This diagram is incorrect

43.

This diagram shows:

a)

Conventional flow

b)

Electron flow

c)

Electricity

d)

This diagram is incorrect

44.

This circuit will work.

a)

Yes

b)

No

45.

The fault in this circuit is the:

a)

Ammeter

b)

Cell

c)

Bulb

d)

There is no fault.

46.

The fault in this circuit is the:

a)

Bulb

b)

Cell

c)

Voltmeter

d)

There is no fault.

47.
what is this symbol for?
a)
light bulb
b)
switch
c)
battery
d)
resistor
48.
A series circuit has how many pathways for the electrons to flow?
a)
Two
b)
One
c)
Many
d)
Zero
49.
What is one problem with using a series circuit? 
a)
It has a lot of series. 
b)
If one light goes down, they all go down! 
c)
It doesn't work properly.
d)
There are no problems. 
50.
What is a benefit of using a parallel circuit?  
a)
It gets confusing.
b)
There are no problems.
c)
If one light goes out, it does not affect the others. 
d)
If one light goes out, they all go out. 
51.
In most electrical circuits, the pathway is made of:
a)
Wood
b)
Plastic
c)
Metal
d)
Static
52.
If the voltage across the battery was 10V in this diagram. What would the voltage across each bulb be?
a)
10V
b)
5V
c)
20V
d)
0V
53.
An ammeter is a device that can be used to measure
a)
Current
b)
Voltage
c)
Resistance
d)
Power
54.
A voltmeter is described as a device that can be used to measure
a)
Voltage
b)
Current
c)
Resistance
d)
Power
55.

The amount of "push" available to move electrons is _____

a)

Current

b)

Resistance

c)

Voltage

d)

Static Electricity

56.

The continuous flow of electrons is ______

a)

Current

b)

Static electricity

c)

Voltage

d)

Resistance

57.

The opposition to electron movement

a)

Voltage

b)

Static electricity

c)

current

d)

Resistance

58.

If a bulb is added between the battery and the switch, ____

a)

The bulbs get brighter

b)

The bulbs get dimmer

c)

The bulb brightness stays the same

d)

All the bulbs go out

59.

If you add another bulb in parallel,_____

a)

The bulbs get brighter

b)

The bulbs get dimmer

c)

The bulb brightness stays the same

d)

All the bulbs will go out

60.

Devices in a parallel circuit receive

a)

equal current but different voltage

b)

equal voltage but different current

c)

equal voltage and equal current

d)

different voltage and different current

61.

Devices in a series circuit receive

a)

Equal current but different voltage

b)

Equal voltage but different current

c)

Equal voltage and equal current

d)

different voltage and different current

62.

Which of the following has the greatest resistance?

a)

long, thin wires

b)

Short, thick wires

c)

long, thick wires

d)

short, thin wires

63.

lowing has the least resistance?

a)

Long, thin wires

b)

Short, thick wires

c)

Long, thick wires

d)

Short, thin wires

64.

In a parallel circuit

a)

All devices receive the same current

b)

There are 2 or more paths for current to flow

c)

All devices always go on and off together

d)

Each device operates with a different voltage

65.

A light switch

a)

is a resistor

b)

opens and closes a circuit

c)

changes voltage

d)

generates electricity

66.
Which letter represents the wave trough?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
67.
Sound travels fastest through
a)
solids
b)
liquids
c)
gases
d)
empty space
68.
What is measured from crest to crest or trough to trough?
a)
Frequency
b)
Amplitude
c)
Wavelength
d)
Origin
69.
The number of wavelengths that pass a point each per second is:
a)
frequency
b)
period
c)
longitudinal 
d)
transverse wave 
70.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
71.
The SI unit for frequency is ________.
a)
m
b)
m/s
c)
hertz
d)
s
72.

As the wavelength of the wave increases, the frequency ..........................

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

fluxuates

d)

remains the same

73.

how is sound created?

a)

when something vibrates or moves back and forth quickly

b)

when particles zoom around

c)

ups and downs in volume

74.

a soundwave has two parts...

a)

compressions and rarefactions

b)

ups and downs

c)

left and right

d)

potato

75.
Highest point of a wave
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
wavelength
d)
frequency
76.
What does pitch depend on?
a)
amplitude 
b)
frequency
c)
intensity 
d)
volume of sound
77.
The shorter the wavelength the 
a)
shorter the frequency
b)
higher the freuqnecy
c)
frequency stays the same
d)
less energy
78.
What property of the wave is represented by the letter "B"?
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
79.
A mechanical wave cannot travel through...
a)
a vacuum(empty space).
b)
water.
c)
air. 
d)
glass.
80.
What is interference?  
a)
occurs when two or more waves overlap and combine 
b)
occurs when two or more waves combine and neutralize each other 
c)
when one waves travels alone
81.
Which wave behavior do noise cancelling headphones use?
a)
diffraction
b)
refraction
c)
constructive interference
d)
destructive interference
82.
A guitarist strums two strings on a guitar. The first string vibrates more quickly than the second string. What is true about the pitch of the string?
a)
The first string has a higher pitch than the second string
b)
The second string has a higher pitch that the first string.
c)
The first string and the second string have the same pitch.
d)
The pitch of the second string depends on the pitch of the first string.
83.
If two overlapping waves are in-phase, the resultant wave will have ______ compared to the two waves.
a)
Greater amplitude
b)
Greater frequency
c)
Greater wavelength
d)
Greater wave speed
84.
When the crests of two waves combine in one single wave... It's called?
a)
Combined Wave
b)
Interference
c)
Destructive Interference
d)
Constructive Interference
85.

What type of interference is represented in this diagram?

a)

Constructive

b)

Destructive

86.

What type of interference is represented in the diagram?

a)

Constructive

b)

Destructive

87.
Stars are formed in a large cloud of gas and dust called a
a)
cumulonimbus cloud
b)
nebula
c)
neutron star
d)
black hole
88.
Nebula's are mixtures of gases and what?
a)
clouds
b)
stars
c)
tiny particles
d)
dust
89.
the planets of the solar system formed as 
a)
the center of the gas cloud cooled
b)
planetesimals flattened into a rotating disk
c)
planetesimals collided into one another
d)
the sun absorbed extra gas and dust from the solar system
90.
A nebula starts to collapse because of:
a)
A nearby star shining it's light
b)
A passing spaceship
c)
A passing comet
d)
Gravity
91.
A nebula starts to move because:
a)
A nearby supernova
b)
A nearby star
c)
A passing spaceship
d)
A passing comet
92.
Nebulae are considered "Stellar Nurseries" because...
a)
Planets are created from the gases
b)
Stars form from them
c)
Asteroids are formed from them
93.
Frank has a paper clip. It has a mass of 9g and a volume of 3cm3. What is its density?
a)
3 g/cm3
b)
1/3 g/cm3
c)
27 g/cm3
d)
39 g/cm3
94.
How much water has been displaced in the image shown?
a)
40 mL
b)
65 mL
c)
20 mL
d)
25 mL
95.
How much water has been displaced in the image shown?
a)
80 mL
b)
100 mL
c)
20 mL
d)
60 mL
96.
Find the density of a 2 cm x 2 cm x 2 cm cube with a mass of 64 g.
a)
6 cm3
b)
12 g/cm3
c)
128 g/cm3
d)
8  g/cm3
97.
Find the volume of the given figure.
a)
308.9 cm3
b)
308.2 cm3
c)
312.8 cm3
d)
302.9 cm3
98.

As part of a lab experiment, Tasha drops a metal cube into a beaker of water, as shown in the figure below.


After energy in the form of heat transfers between the substances, what is the final temperature of the water?

a)

The final temperature is 25 °C because there is more water than metal.

b)

The final temperature is 50 °C because the metal warms the water to the temperature of the metal.

c)

The final temperature is between 25 °C and 50 °C because energy is transferred from the metal to the water.

d)

The final temperature is between 25 °C and 50 °C because most of the thermal energy is lost to the air around the substances.

99.

The water in Mario’s swimming pool absorbs energy as heat during the day. Which of the following would the water in the pool be most likely to do?

a)

condense

b)

evaporate

c)

freeze

d)

melt

100.

Emerson places a beaker of water on a hotplate and turns the hotplate on. The temperature in the room is 25 ºC. After the water heats to 75 ºC, she adds pieces of ice to the beaker.


Which of the following describes a transfer of heat energy that occurs during this experiment?

a)

from the air to the water

b)

from the ice to the beaker

c)

from the water to the ice

d)

from the water to the hotplate

101.

How does the thermal energy of the liquid in the larger beaker compare to the thermal energy of the liquid in the smaller beaker?

a)

The liquid in the larger beaker has less thermal energy than the liquid in the smaller beaker.

b)

The liquid in the larger beaker has more thermal energy than the liquid in the smaller beaker.

c)

The liquid in the larger beaker has the same amount of thermal energy as the liquid in the smaller beaker.

d)

The exact volume of the liquid in each beaker must be known to compare the thermal energy of the liquids.

102.

Which description defines heat?

a)

total thermal energy of an object or substance

b)

change in the temperature of a substance in degrees Celsius

c)

energy transferred between objects at different temperatures

d)

average kinetic energy of the particles that make up a substance

103.
When you touch something that feels cold, 
a)
heat from your hand moves into the cold substance.
b)
coldness moves from the cold substance into your hand.
c)
it melts.
d)
it freezes.
104.

The pan is made of iron. The handle is NOT too hot to touch. What might the pan's handle be made of?

a)

copper

b)

aluminum

c)

wood

d)

iron

105.

Rahma got an ice cream from her mom. The ice cream melts under the sun because the ice cream ___________.

a)

gains heat from the sun

b)

loses heat to the sun

c)

cannot withstand the heat from the sun

d)

produce too much heat

106.

A device that measures temperature. 

a)
Thermal energy
b)
Temperature
c)
Thermometer
d)
Heat
107.
The faster molecules move, 
a)
the higher the temperature
b)
the less temperature
c)
the same temperature
d)
I don't know
108.
How heat is transfered?
a)
From high to low temperature
b)
From low to high
c)
Up to down
d)
Left to right
109.

According to the law of conservation of energy, energy can be created or destroyed.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

According to the law of conservation of energy, the total amount of energy in the universe ____.

a)

remains constant

b)

changes constantly

c)

increases

d)

decreases

111.

How does heat energy from the Sun reach Earth?

a)

radiation

b)

solar wind

c)

conduction

d)

convection

112.

Sarah is stirring her hot chocolate with a metal spoon, and she notices that the spoon is getting hot. This is most likely caused by which type of heat?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

insulation

113.

Molecules in cold things move more _________

than in hot things.

a)

quickly

b)

slowly

c)

speedy

d)

Rapidly

114.
You're holding hands with your best friend.  Your friend's hands are REALLY warm and yours are really cold.  After a few minutes, this has changed.  How might you explain what happened?
a)
The cold energy from your hand transferred to your friend's hand through conduction.
b)
The heat energy from your friend's hand transferred to your hand through conduction. 
c)
The cold energy from your hand transferred to your friend's hand through convection.
d)
The heat energy from your friend's hand transferred to your hand through convection.
115.

The Kinetic Molecular theory states that

a)

all matter is made of particles

b)

particles are in constant motion

c)

particles collide with each other & their containers

d)

all the above

116.

Which heat transfer is being shown in box #2?

a)

conduction

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

freezing

117.

Which heat transfer is being shown at box #1?

a)

conduction

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

heat

118.

Which heat transfer is being shown in box #3?

a)

conduction

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

vaporization

119.

Evaporation is the change of state from ___________ to __________

a)

liquid to gas

b)

solid to liquid

c)

gas to liquid

120.

What factors affect the rate of evaporation?

a)

Temperature only

b)

Temperature and Wind only

c)

Temperature, Wind and Exposed Surface Area

d)

None of the above

121.

When you spray a perfume on your palm, the liquid get evaporated after some time and you will feel cool. This is because evaporation give .....

a)

heating effect

b)

magnetic effect

c)

cooling effect

d)

warming effect

122.

What will happen if you do an experiment with two bottles of water and one of them is covered with cap and the other is with no cap?

a)

The one with no cap will go less and the particles do not like to be together so they go up and turn to gas.

b)

The one with cap will go less and the particle do not like to be together so they go up and turn to gas.

123.

Which of the following does NOT provide evidence for the Theory of Plate Tectonics?

a)

Similar fossils found on different continents

b)

Continents seem to fit together

c)

Traces of glacial activity found on different continents

d)

Different types of rocks found on different continents

124.

The source of energy that drives or causes tectonic plate movement is

a)

convection currents in the mantle

b)

subduction of oceanic crust

c)

plates grinding past one another

d)

slab pull

125.

This movement of tectonic plates will MOST likely cause

a)

mountains to form

b)

seafloor spreading

c)

an earthquake

d)

a rift valley

126.

What causes the tectonic plates to move?

a)

rotation of the Earth

b)

convection currents

c)

earthquakes

d)

gravity from the core

127.

Alfred Wegener proposed the idea of

a)

the Big Bang theory.

b)

the theory of Plate Tectonics.

c)

biodiversity.

d)

natural selection.

128.

Looking at the diagram, where do think most earthquakes would most likely occur?

a)

in the center of tectonic plates

b)

along the boundaries of tectonic plates

129.
Subduction zones occur on Earth where dense oceanic crust dives under more buoyant continental crust. These boundaries are characterized by a deep ocean trench next to a high continental mountain range, large numbers of earthquakes and volcanoes. All of this is further evidence for the
a)
big bang theory.
b)
theory of plate tectonics.
c)
origin of the species.
d)
theory of natural selection.
130.

The collision theory suggests that an object called Theia collided with Earth. Which of these planets is closest in size to Theia?

a)

Earth

b)

Moon

c)

Venus

d)

Mars

131.

The collision theory for the formation of the Moon describes an object the same size as Mars. What was this object?

a)

an asteroid

b)

a newly formed star

c)

a newly formed planet

d)

a comet from outside the Solar System

132.

The collision theory is a theory of how the Moon was formed. It refers to a collision that happened relatively soon after the formation of the ...?

a)

universe

b)

Solar System

c)

Milky Way

d)

Moon

133.

Which evidence supports the collision theory?

a)

The Moon has a small iron core, similar to the Earth

b)

Venus has no moon

c)

The Moon is Earth's only permanent natural satellite

d)

The surface of the Earth does not appear to ever have been molten

134.

Which evidence contradicts the collision theory?

a)

Samples of rock from the Moon show that its surface was once molten

b)

Similar collisions causing rings of rock and dust outside the Solar System

c)

The collision theory fits with the theory of how the Solar System was formed

d)

None of them

135.

Nebulae are clouds of ... ?

a)

Phineas and Ferb

b)

dust and gas

c)

Bonnie and Clyde

d)

atoms and molecules

136.

Nebulae are primarily composed of what element?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Helium

c)

Iron

d)

Oxygen

137.

Which of these statements is correct?

a)

all nebulae act as stellar nurseries

b)

only some nebulae act as stellar nurseries

c)

no nebulae ever act as stellar nurseries

d)

most nebulae are smaller than the Sun

138.

"Nebula" is Latin for ___

a)

cloud

b)

gas

c)

glow

d)

colour

139.

What force acted on the massive nebula to collapse it and eventually form our sun?

a)

electrostatic force

b)

gravity

c)

friction

d)

strong force

140.
Electrical circuits are comprised of a power source, wires, a load and a switch.  What physical property of the wire makes it function?
a)
solubility
b)
density
c)
conductivity
d)
magnetism
141.

As the mass of an object increases, the force needed to move it:

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

stay the same

d)

works

142.

The bending of light is the definition of

a)

Refraction

b)

Reflection

c)

Diffusion

d)

Critical Angle

143.

What is it called when objects appear to be closer underwater then they actually are?

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Total Internal Reflection

d)

Depth Illusions

144.

Which cells in the retina detect colours?

a)

Cones

b)

Sphincter Muscles

c)

Rods

d)

Dilator Muscles

145.

What is the Law of Reflection?

a)

Low refractive index = light bending away from the normal line

b)

Angle of Incidence = Angle of Reflection

c)

Angle of Incidence = Angle of Refraction

d)

High refractive index = light bending towards the normal line

146.
The Modern Periodic Table of Elements is arranged by
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
147.
What does the 6 represent?
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
element name
d)
chemical symbol 
148.
These are found on the Periodic Table.
a)
Compounds
b)
Elements
c)
Mixtures
149.

the basic structural unit of matter

a)

atom

b)

matter

c)

element

d)

nucleus

150.

the positively charged subatomic particle contained in the nucleus of an atom

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

matter

151.

a subatomic particle, contained in the nucleus of an atom, having the same mass as a proton but no electrical charge

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

matter

152.

a negatively charged subatomic particle that orbits the nucleus of an atom

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

matter

153.

one or two letters that represent the name of an element

a)

element name

b)

element symbol

c)

atomic number

d)

atomic mass

154.

a grouping of elements based on similar properties, arranged by columns in the periodic table; also known as a group

a)

family

b)

period

c)

row

d)

isotope

155.

All matter is made of what...

a)

energy

b)

atoms

c)

electrons

d)

compounds

156.

The central region of an atom where its neutrons and protons are is its

a)

nucleus

b)

electron cloud

c)

core

d)

center

157.

What does the 1.00794 stand for?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

atomic number

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic explosion

158.

An atom with atomic number 6 would have how many protons

a)

6

b)

12

c)

3

d)

cannot be determined

159.
What is the atomic mass of "F"
a)
9
b)
18
c)
17
d)
19
160.
What are the 3 particles that make-up the atom?
a)
protons, neutrons, and isotopes
b)
neutrons, isotopes, and electrons
c)
positives, negatives, and electrons
d)
protons, neutrons, and electrons
161.

The picture shows how heat energy travels from...

a)

Hot to cold

b)

Cold to Hot

c)

North to South

d)

Thermal Energy

162.

Conduction is defined as ...

a)

Heat transfer through air

b)

Heat transfer through touch

c)

Thermal energy travelling in a cycle

d)

42

163.

Convection is ...

a)

Heat staying in one place

b)

Heat moving in all directions

c)

Heat moving in a cycle

d)

How the Earth stays heated

164.

Radiation is ...

a)

When heat travels through space

b)

When heat travels in a taxi

c)

When heat flows through touch

d)

When heat travels in a cycle

165.

You leave a plastic fork on top of the stove and it melts. This is an example of ...

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Cooking

166.

When you go outside, the sun is shining and it causes you to get hot. This is a result of ...

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

A lack of sunscreen

167.

When you turn on the air conditioner in a house, the air moves in a circle. This example shows ...

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Humidity

168.

Uneven heating in Earth's atmosphere causes weather. We call this heating a ...

a)

Air mass

b)

Barometric pressure

c)

Convection cell

d)

Conduction cable

169.

A campfire roasts a marshmallow, and the heat rises in the air to cool. These examples show ...

a)

Conduction and radiation

b)

Radiation and math

c)

Conduction and convection

d)

Radiation and convection

170.

Which is a better conductor?

a)

Paper

b)

Foil

c)

Plastic

d)

Wood

171.

The transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves through space is ...

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Electrical

d)

Radiation

172.

The transfer of two objects in direct contact with one another is ...

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

Insulation

173.

As water in a freezer turns to ice ...

a)

Water absorbs the coldness from the air in the freezer

b)

The water neither absorbs nor releases energy

c)

Freezer air absorbs heat from the water

d)

None of the above

174.

On a hot day, upstairs rooms in a house are hotter than the downstairs rooms. Why?

a)

Roof insulation warms the air

b)

Warm air rises and cool air sinks

c)

Heat from the sun reaches the upstairs more than downstairs

d)

None of the above

175.

Atoms are in everything. If thermal energy is lost, the vibration of atoms ...

a)

Speeds up

b)

Slows down

c)

Doesn't change

d)

None of these

176.

Heat, energy and temperature are all different names for the same thing.

a)

True

b)

False

177.

Potential energy is stored energy.

a)

True

b)

False

178.

Energy cannot be changed into different forms.

a)

True

b)

False

179.

Heat travels from warmer to colder places.

a)

True

b)

False

180.

Conduction of heat only occurs in liquids.

a)

True

b)

False

181.

When an object is heated, the particles vibrate more slowly.

a)

True

b)

False

182.

All materials conduct heat as well as each other.

a)

True

b)

False

183.

Silver and shiny surfaces are not good at absorbing heat radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

184.

Infra-red rays travel at the speed of light.

a)

True

b)

False

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