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Biostatistics 3 course

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The science that studies methods for processing the results of observations of mass random phenomena with a pattern is called:

a)

mathematics

b)

computer science

c)

biology

d)

statistics

e)

chemistry

2.

Science related to the development and use of statistical methods in scientific research in medicine, healthcare, and epidemiology:

a)

judicial statistics

b)

biological statistics

c)

municipal statistics

d)

industrial statistics

e)

agricultural statistics

3.

What are the two main groups into which all data is divided?

a)

ordinal, discrete

b)

qualitative, quantitative

c)

ordinal, categorical

d)

exact, continuous

e)

binary, nominal

4.

Quantitative data is divided into:

a)

qualitative, quantitative

b)

ordinal, categorical

c)

continuous, discrete

d)

binary, nominal

e)

nominal, categorical

5.

Qualitative data is divided into:

a)

continuous, discrete

b)

continuous, discrete

c)

qualitative, quantitative

d)

binary, nominal

e)

exact, categorical

6.

What is the name for data that takes strictly fixed numerical values?

a)

Continuous

b)

Discrete

c)

Ordinal

d)

Nominal

e)

Qualitative

7.

What are the names of features whose values ​​can differ by any arbitrarily small amount?

a)

Nominal

b)

Ordinal

c)

Continuous

d)

Qualitative

e)

Discrete

8.

What feature takes one value from a finite number of obviously established gradations that cannot be ordered?

a)

Quantitative

b)

Continuous

c)

Ordinal

d)

Discrete

e)

Continuous

9.

Nominal data that are distributed into two non-overlapping categories:

a)

quantitative

b)

discrete

c)

ordinal

d)

binary

e)

qualitative

10.

A small group of randomly selected values of a random variable reflecting the essential features of the population is called:

a)

population

b)

interval series

c)

normal population

d)

sample

e)

demographic  population

11.

A sample whose characteristics correspond to the population parameters:

a)

random

b)

normal

c)

representative

d)

reliable

e)

parametric

12.

What is the name of the dataset, where the elements are all residents of a given territory with a given pathology:

a)

sample

b)

interval

c)

parametric

d)

population

e)

nomal

13.

A quantity that, as a result of an experiment, can take values depends on various random events is called...

a)

discrete.

b)

random.

c)

continuous.

d)

absolute.

e)

categorical

14.

The quantity X (x1, x2, x3 …..xi……xn), which as a result of the experiment can take values within certain limits, it is not known in advance which one exactly. It is called... variable.

a)

discrete.

b)

random

c)

continuous.

d)

absolute.

e)

categorical

15.

What type of data does the number of doctor house calls refer to?

a)

continuous.

b)

discrete.

c)

finite.

d)

deterministic.

e)

random

16.

What values ​​do discrete features take?

a)

any values.

b)

only fractional.

c)

only integer numeric values.

d)

both integer and fractional numeric values.

e)

does not accept numeric values

17.

A random variable is called discrete (discontinuous) if it takes...

a)

any values ​​within a certain interval.

b)

qualitative features that are measured on a nominal scale.

c)

countable numerical values

d)

values ​​from a finite number of established gradations.

e)

ranked variation series

18.

The quantitative assessment of the possibility of the occurrence of a given random event is…

a)

frequency.

b)

polygon.

c)

cumulate.

d)

ogive.

e)

probability

19.

Which of the following are basic statistical characteristics?

a)

mean, variance, standard error.

b)

Spearman correlation coefficient.

c)

t-test, Fisher test.

d)

significance level

e)

Pearson correlation coefficient.

20.

The difference between the maximum and minimum values ​​of the observation frequencies in statistical data is...

a)

median.

b)

mean.

c)

deviation.

d)

range.

e)

frequency

21.

What is the name of the value of a random variable that divides the variation series into two equal parts?

a)

mode.

b)

quartile.

c)

sample mean.

d)

coefficient of variation

e)

median

22.

Variance, D(X) is

a)

characteristic of the position of values ​​of a random variable on the measurement axis.

b)

characteristic of the dispersion of values of a random variable relative to the mean value.

c)

characteristic of dispersion, introduced in order to get rid of the square of the unit of measurement.

d)

relative measure of dispersion, expressed as a percentage.

e)

most frequently occurring value of a random variable

23.

Standard deviation is

a)

characteristic of the position of values ​​of a random variable on the measurement axis.

b)

difference between the maximum and minimum values ​​of the observation frequencies.

c)

a statistic measuring the dispersion of a dataset relative to its mean.

d)

relative measure of dispersion, expressed as a percentage.

e)

most frequently occurring value of a random variable

24.

Since the mean value is usually determined from a limited sample, and not from the population, it differs from the true (general) mean, that is, it has a certain error, called

a)

Coefficient of variation.

b)

Standard error of the mean.

c)

Standard deviation.

d)

Variance.

e)

Mean

25.

What does the quantity  determine in the calculation of theoretical frequencies for a normal distribution?

a)

mathematical constants

b)

series variants

c)

normal deviation coefficient

d)

average value of variants

e)

standard deviation

26.

To find the theoretical probability, the following is used:

a)

Sturgess's Formula

b)

Coefficient of Variation

c)

Standard Deviation

d)

Gaussian Law

e)

Interquartile Range

27.

One of the properties of normal distribution

a)

Хmean=R=Mo

b)

Хmean=M(X)=D(X)

c)

Хmean=Мо=Ме

d)

Ме=D(X)=Mo

e)

Mo=S=Хmean

28.

Which of the following is an incorrect property of normal distribution?

a)

Mean=Median=Mode

b)

The curve is not symmetrical about the mean

c)

It extends from (−∞) to (+∞)

d)

This is a continuous probability distribution

e)

The curve is shaped like a "bell"

29.

What is the name of a bell-shaped graph in which the horizontal axis represents the effect size and the vertical axis represents the number of patients who experienced an effect of that size?

a)

Frequency polygon

b)

Survival curve

c)

Gaussian curve

d)

Frequency histogram

e)

Pie chart

30.

What is used to represent interval variation row?

a)

Polygon

b)

Cumulates

c)

Empirical Distribution Function

d)

Pie Chart

e)

Histogram

31.

The relative frequency is equal to

a)

the length of a partial interval

b)

the quotient of the interval frequency divided by the interval length

c)

the frequency of a random variable value falling within an interval

d)

the area of ​​a curvilinear trapezoid within the boundaries of the interval ∆Х

e)

the ratio of the number of cases in which a given result occurred to the total number of cases

32.

A table containing partial intervals and their frequencies or relative frequencies is called:

a)

random variable distribution curve

b)

ranked series

c)

statistical interval distribution row.

d)

discrete distribution series

e)

sample series

33.

The ratio of the number of occurrences of an observed feature to the total number of objects in the population.

a)

variant

b)

frequency

c)

range

d)

size

e)

relative frequency

34.

Graphical representation of distributions of continuously varying features

a)

polygon

b)

histogram

c)

median

d)

mode

e)

curve

35.

The normal distribution has the property of equality of what numerical characteristics?

a)

Mode, median, and standard deviation

b)

Sample mean, variance, and standard deviation

c)

Variance, standard deviation, and standard error of the mean

d)

Sample mean, mode, and median

e)

Standard deviation, standard error of the mean, and coefficient of variation

36.

Parametric criteria are applied:

a)

to distributions of the most varied forms.

b)

when the population from which the sample is taken is normally distributed.

c)

that the samples are obtained from homogeneous populations and, in particular, have equal means and medians.

d)

on the homogeneity of two populations of pairwise related samples.

e)

on the homogeneity of three populations of pairwise related samples

37.

The Student's t-test is used to test the null hypothesis:

 

a)

both means do not belong to the same population.

b)

both means belong to the same population.

c)

the means of infinite samples do not belong to the same population.

d)

the population variances are not equal.

e)

the factor variance is greater than the residual

38.

One group of students had their heart rates measured before and after physical education classes. The resulting samples are

a)

independent

b)

both means belong to the same population.

c)

inversely dependent

d)

directly proportionally dependent

e)

partially dependent

39.

Student's t-test for assessing the difference in the mean values ​​of two samples is used if they are distributed…

a)

poisson

b)

normal

c)

smooth

d)

binomial

e)

exponential

40.

The criteria used to test the assumption that the variances of two normally distributed populations are equal?

 

a)

Pearson Chi-Square

b)

Fisher

c)

Mann-Whitney

d)

Wilcoxon

e)

Student

41.

A statistical method used to compare the means of two groups of the same subjects.

a)

factor analysis

b)

cluster analysis

c)

t-test for dependent samples

d)

t-test for independent samples

e)

discriminant analysis

42.

Samples consisting of different objects, where the values ​​of a random variable in one sample do not depend on its values ​​in another sample

a)

Dependent samples

b)

Simple samples

c)

Independent samples

d)

Clustered samples

e)

Regional samples

43.

The researchers were faced with the task of comparing potassium in urine (g/day) in groups of healthy people and patients with pulmonary insufficiency. A preliminary test was conducted for the normality of the distribution of the random variable, the results of which showed that it was distributed normally. What method of analysis can be used to solve the task?

a)

Fisher's test

b)

Student's t-test

c)

Mann-Whitney test

d)

Wilcoxon test

e)

McNimar test

44.

A method of parametric statistical analysis used to compare the means of two normally distributed dependent groups:

a)

factor analysis

b)

non-proportional test

c)

paired test

d)

χ 2 test

e)

goodness-of-fit test

45.

In a study of the effects of a certain drug on 120 volunteers, the levels of liver enzymes in the blood were measured. What statistical method can be used to determine the effect of this drug on liver function if the liver enzymes being measured are known to have a normal distribution

a)

Spearman test

b)

Mann-Whitney test

c)

Student's t-test for dependent samples

d)

Wilcoxon test

e)

Wald test

46.

A method of statistical analysis used to compare means in two groups of different objects

a)

discriminant analysis

b)

t-test for independent samples

c)

descriptive statistics

d)

t-test for dependent samples

e)

correlation analysis

47.

What equality of indicators does F- Fisher criteria test?

a)

means

b)

population variances

c)

standard deviations

d)

mathematical expectations

e)

medians

48.

The Mann-Whitney test is:

a)

parametric

b)

nonparametric

c)

trigonometric

d)

logarithmic

e)

systematic

49.

When testing statistical hypotheses, the Mann-Whitney U test is used to:

a)

dependent samples

b)

independent samples

c)

normally distributed samples

d)

building a regression model

e)

calculating the correlation coefficient

50.

Nonparametric tests in statistics include:

a)

Pearson goodness-of-fit test

b)

Wilcoxon test

c)

Fisher test

d)

Shapiro-Wilk test

e)

Student test

51.

A test that allows one to determine whether two dependent samples belong to the same population

a)

Wilcoxon W-test

b)

Mann-Whitney U-test

c)

McNimar Chi-square test

d)

Pearson Chi-square test

e)

Fisher F-test

52.

to calculate the power of relationship  between two qualitative features is used


a)

Pearson correlation coefficient

b)

Yula association coefficient

c)

Spearman correlation coefficient

d)

determination coefficient

e)

regression equation coefficient

53.

Nonparametric tests are used:

a)

when the general population from which the sample is taken is distributed normally

b)

to distributions of the most varied forms

c)

when the general population is distributed according to the Gaussian law

d)

when the variances of two normal populations are equal to each other

e)

when the means of two samples belong to the same population

54.

The Wilcoxon test is used to test the hypothesis H0:

a)

that the population is distributed according to the Gaussian law

b)

about the homogeneity of two populations with pairwise related samples

c)

that the variances of two normal populations are equal to each other

d)

that the means of two samples belong to the same population

e)

about the equality of population variances for samples of the same size

55.

The Mann-Whitney test is used to test the hypothesis H0:

a)

that the population is distributed according to the Gaussian law

b)

that the samples are obtained from homogeneous populations and, in particular, have equal means and medians

c)

that the variances of two normal populations are equal to each other

d)

that the means of the two samples belong to the same population

e)

on the equality of population variances for samples of the same size

56.

The number that an observation will receive in the set of all data after they have been ordered according to a certain rule is called:

a)

sample

b)

random number series

c)

observation rank

d)

absolute value data

e)

variable series

57.

When ranking pairwise differences for the Wilcoxon criterion, the following feature is observed:

a)

the values ​​of each sample are ranked separately

b)

ranks are assigned sequentially from negative to positive values

c)

negative and positive values ​​are ranked separately

d)

"zero" is not ranked

e)

"zero" is assigned the first rank equal to "one"

58.

Specify a nonparametric test designed to test the equality of medians of several samples:

a)

Fisher test

b)

Wilcoxon test

c)

Kruskal-Wallis test

d)

Student test

e)

Pearson test

59.

A criterion designed to study the determination of the direction of the shift in the values ​​of the studied feature in two samples?

a)

McNimar chi-square test

b)

Fisher F-test

c)

Student t-test

d)

sign test

e)

Kolmogorov-Smirnov test

60.

A group of statistical criteria that do not include probability distribution parameters in the calculation and are based on the operation of frequencies or ranks:

a)

parametric

b)

nonparametric

c)

sampling method

d)

analysis of variance

e)

regression analysis

61.

A statistical hypothesis is...

a)

assumption about the sample

b)

assumption about the type of unknown of the problem

c)

assumption about the type of distribution

d)

expectation of random variable occurrence

e)

methods of recording random variables

62.

Goodness-of-fit test

a)

for hypothesis testing about the assumed law of a known distribution

b)

for hypothesis testing about relationship of variables

c)

for hypothesis testing about equality of variances

d)

for hypothesis testing about the assumed law of an unknown distribution

e)

for hypothesis testing about equality of mean values

63.

A type I error is 

a)

that the null hypothesis will be accepted when it is false

b)

that neither hypothesis will be accepted

c)

that the decision to accept the hypothesis is not wrong

d)

that the null hypothesis will be rejected when it is true

e)

that the solution to the problem is rejected

64.

A type II error is

a)

that the null hypothesis will be rejected when it is true

b)

that neither hypothesis will be accepted

c)

that the null hypothesis will be accepted when it is not true

d)

that the decision to accept the hypothesis is not wrong

e)

that the solution to the problem is rejected

65.

During a statistical study, a decision was made to reject the null hypothesis when it was true. What type of error is allowed in this case?

 

a)

type II error

b)

systematic

c)

type I error

d)

relative

e)

random

66.

In a statistical study, a decision was made to accept the null hypothesis when it was not true. What type of error is allowed in this case?

a)

type I error

b)

systematic

c)

relative

d)

type II error

e)

random

67.

The probability of making a type I error is called

a)

confidence interval

b)

degrees of freedom

c)

power of test

d)

sampling function

e)

significance level of test

68.

The probability of not making a type II error is called

a)

confidence interval

b)

degrees of freedom

c)

significance level of test

d)

power of test

e)

sampling function

69.

Hypotheses tested for random variables distributed according to the normal law

a)

random

b)

parametric

c)

complex

d)

competing

e)

nonparametric

70.

A mathematical rule by which a statistical hypothesis with a given level of significance is accepted or rejected

a)

significance level

b)

criterion power

c)

confidence interval

d)

statistical test

e)

coefficient of variation

71.

The confidence interval for the difference of means lies in the positive range. Which hypothesis should the researcher most likely accept?

a)

Alternative hypothesis about the difference of two sample statistics

b)

Complex hypothesis about the difference of two population means

c)

Alternative hypothesis about the difference of two population variances

d)

Alternative hypothesis about the difference of two population means

e)

Null hypothesis about the equality of two population means

72.

Nominal features are

a)

quantitative features whose values ​​can differ by any arbitrarily small amount

b)

qualitative features that take one value from a finite number of obviously established gradations that cannot be ordered

c)

quantitative features whose values ​​differ by no less than a unit of measurement of the feature

d)

quantitative features that take any value from a finite number of obviously known values

e)

qualitative features that can be ordered

73.

To calculate the odds ratio (OR), the outcome and factor variables must be measured in

a)

absolute scale

b)

interval scale

c)

ordinal scale

d)

ratio scale

e)

nominal scale

74.

To what test does this formula apply?

a)

Pearson's χ2 with Yates's correction

b)

McNemar's χ2

c)

Cramer's V

d)

Pearson's χ2

e)

Student's t

75.

To what test does this formula apply

a)

Pearson's χ2

b)

McNemar's χ2

c)

Pearson's χ2 with Yates's correction

d)

Cramer's V

e)

Student's t

76.

To what test does this formula apply?

a)

χ2 Pearson

b)

χ2 Yates

c)

χ2 McNemara

d)

Cramer's V

e)

Student's test

77.

What is the number of degrees of freedom of the Pearson χ2 critical value for a 2*2 table?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

78.

What is the number of degrees of freedom of the Pearson χ2 critical value for a 3*3 table?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

3

e)

7

79.

to test the hypothesis about the presence of a relationship between independent features based on the contingency table is


a)

Wald-Wolfowitz test

b)

Fisher test

c)

Chi-square test

d)

Wilcoxon test

e)

Mann-Whitney test

80.

What test is applied when the expected values ​​in any of the cells are less than 5.


a)

Chi-square test

b)

Fisher's test

c)

Fisher's exact test

d)

Wilcoxon test

e)

McNemer test

81.

to test the hypothesis about the presence of a relationship between dependent features based on the 2*2 contingency table is


a)

Wald-Wolfowitz test

b)

Fisher test

c)

McNemer test

d)

Wilcoxon test

e)

Mann-Whitney test

82.

The ratio of the probability that an event will occur to the probability that the event will not occur


a)

  risk

 

b)

 sensitivity

 

c)

 chance

d)

  specificity

e)

  prevalence

83.

risk of occurrence of the initial outcome

 


a)

 odds ratio

  

b)

sensitivity

c)

  risk ratio

d)

  specificity

  

e)

prevalence

84.

The proportion of people in the population tested who are actually sick and who are identified as sick by the test results


a)

  sensitivity

 

b)

 risk

c)

  chance

d)

  specificity

e)

  prevalence

85.

The proportion of people who test negative among all people who do not have the disease (condition)


a)

  risk

 

b)

 chance

c)

  sensitivity

d)

  prevalence

e)

  specificity

86.

The Fisher test is:


a)

  nonparametric

b)

  trigonometric

c)

  logarithmic

d)

  parametric

e)

  systematic

87.

In which cases is Pearson's correlation coefficient used to determine the relationship between random variables?


a)

  for ordinal features

b)

  for normally distributed features

  

c)

for nominal features

d)

  for qualitative features

e)

  for independent features

88.

Most often, the measure of dependence between variables is the correlation coefficient proposed by...


a)

  Kolmagorov-Smirnov

b)

  Mann-Whitney

c)

  Pearson

d)

  Wilcoxon

 

e)

 Fisher

89.

In which cases is the Pearson correlation coefficient used to determine the relationship between random variables?


a)

  for qualitative features

 

b)

 for ordinal features

 

c)

 for nominal features

 

d)

 for quantitative features

e)

  for independent features

90.

Pearson's linear correlation is applied


a)

  to determine the statistical significance of differences in qualitative features

b)

  to determine the relationship between two series of quantitative features with a normal distribution

c)

  to determine pairwise relationships between ordinal features

 

d)

 for multiple comparison

 

e)

 for nonparametric data

91.

The parameter that characterizes the degree of linear relationship between two samples is called


a)

  variance

 

b)

 correlation coefficient

 

c)

 regression coefficient

d)

  Q coefficient

e)

  proportionality coefficient

92.

Choose the interval on which the values of the correlation coefficient lie.


a)

  (0;1)

b)

  (-1;0)

c)

  (-1;1)

d)

  (-∞;+∞)

e)

  (0;+∞)

93.

Sample coefficient of linear correlation r=0.99. Nature and strength of correlation:

 

a)

  positive, weak

  

b)

negative, weak

  

c)

positive, strong

 

d)

  positive, medium

e)

  strong

94.

In which cases is the Spearman correlation coefficient used to determine the relationship between random variables?


a)

   for qualitative features

b)

  for independent features

  

c)

 for quantitative features

d)

  for independent samples

e)

  for normally distributed samples

95.

Spearman's rank correlation is used

  


a)

for determining pairwise relationships of quantitative features with normal distribution

b)

  for determining pairwise relationships of ordinal features

 

c)

 for determining statistical significance of differences in qualitative features

d)

  for multiple comparison

e)

  for nonparametric data

96.

What is the relationship between the parameters if Spearman's rank correlation coefficient is 1?


a)

  there is a negative dependence

b)

  there is a positive dependence

c)

  there is a complete dependence

d)

  there is a curvilinear dependence

 

e)

 there is a power dependence

97.

What is the relationship between the parameters if Spearman's rank correlation coefficient is 0?

 


a)

 complete relationship exists

b)

  inverse relationship exists

c)

  no relationship

d)

  direct relationship exists

e)

  curvilinear relationship  exists

98.

The condition for the Spearman rank correlation coefficient with a negative relationship:


a)

  |q |=1 

b)

  |q |=0  

c)

  q= - 0,55

d)

  q=0,23

e)

  q=0,75 

99.

What condition is satisfied for the Spearman rank correlation coefficient in the case of a positive  relationship?


a)

  |q|=1 

b)

  | q|=0  

c)

  q= 0,55

d)

  q= - 0,23

e)

  q= - 0,75 

100.

The ratio of the correlation coefficient to the average error of the correlation coefficient is called

a)

  Student's coefficient.

 

b)

 correlation coefficient.

c)

  constant correlation.

 

d)

 reliability test

e)

  average error of the correlation coefficient.

101.

 Only the presence and direction of the relationship between correlated features can be represented using


a)

  scatterplots

b)

  tables

 

c)

 correlation coefficient

d)

  regression coefficient

  

e)

regression constant

102.

The term "survivability" refers to


a)

  number of patients who survived after some initial event

  

b)

number of patients who died after some initial event

c)

  probability of surviving any point in time after some initial event

d)

  probability of surviving after admission to hospital

 

e)

 ratio of the number of survivors to the number of deaths after some initial event

103.

Life time is

 


a)

 time of occurrence of some event

b)

  time of occurrence of an undefined event

c)

  time until a predetermined event occurs

  

d)

time of expected undefined event

e)

  time from the start of occurrence and the end of an undefined event

104.

Which method is more accurate in survival analysis?


a)

  Wald-Wolfowitz

 

b)

 Kaplan – Meyer

 

c)

 Cutler – Ederer

d)

  Berkson – Gage

e)

  Mann-Whitney

105.

Which data is called censored?

a)

  real-time data

 

b)

 treatment duration with unknown data

c)

  data consisting of disease duration

 

d)

 data containing incomplete information

 

e)

 treatment duration with known data

106.

Which data is called uncensored?


a)

  incomplete data

 

b)

 unknown data

c)

  duration of disease

 

d)

 duration of treatment

e)

  complete data

107.

Survival characteristic is

 

a)

 Histogram

 

b)

 Survival line

c)

  Polygon

d)

  Survival curve

 

e)

 Cumulates

108.

The median survival is


a)

  the value of the random variable that divides the sample in half
 

b)

the probability of surviving to a certain time

  

c)

 the time by which exactly half of the subjects have survived
 

d)

the most frequently occurring value of the random variable

e)

  the number of subjects who survived half of the study time

109.

The variable "number of home doctor visits" is:
 

a)

deterministic

b)

  continuous
 

c)

nominal

d)

  discrete

e)

  random

110.

The random variable "body temperature" belongs to:
 

a)

discrete
 

b)

continuous 

c)

  nominal

d)

  ordinal

e)

  qualitative 

111.

Examples of ordinal data include:
 

a)

blood type, number of doctor visits 

 

b)

 stages of a disease, intensity of pain
 

c)

gender, ethnic group
 

d)

gender, number of children

e)

  temperature, blood type

112.

The mean arterial pressure (mmHg) during the initial stage of shock was studied. What type of data does this characteristic represent?

a)

  categorical
 

b)

discrete

c)

  ordinal
  

d)

nominal

e)

  continuous

113.

A graph that represents individual data points and is most suitable for small datasets is:

a)

  histogram

b)

  pie chart

c)

  scatter plot

d)

  box-and-whisker plot

e)

  stem-and-leaf plot

114.

An example of an ordinal scale is:
 

a)

gender and nationality 

 

b)

 hair and eye color
 

c)

weight and height
 

d)

test scores
 

e)

disability groups 1, 2, 3

115.

Which of the following are quantitative characteristics?


a)

  Body temperature, social status

b)

  Nationality, type of activity

c)

  Quality of life, worker qualification

d)

  Population size, body weight   

e)

Eye color, hair color

116.

Heart rate measurements (beats/min) for 1st-year students: 73, 73, 62, 67, 81, 63, 80, 64, 66, 67, 67, 66, 71, 68, 71, 76, 63, 66. What is the range?

a)

  12

b)

  20

c)

  11

d)

  19

e)

  0

117.

A study of the health status of people aged 18 to 25 covered 1,000 students from various universities. What type of data set coverage is this?
 

a)

average
 

b)

general

c)

  selective

d)

  sample

e)

  volumetric

118.

If the standard deviation is 6, what is the variance?

a)

  56

b)

  160

c)

  √(5)
 

d)

36

e)

  3

119.

Hematocrit indicators (red blood cells-plasma): 0.26, 0.12, 0.20, 0.28, 0.29, 0.21, 0.45, 0.38, 0.29, 0.24. Which of the following is the ranked series?

a)

0.12; 0.20; 0.21; 0.24; 0.26; 0.28; 0.29; 0.29; 0.38; 0.45

b)

  0.26; 0.12; 0.20; 0.28; 0.29; 0.21; 0.45; 0.38; 0.29; 0.24

c)

  0.29; 0.21; 0.45; 0.38; 0.29; 0.24; 0.26; 0.12; 0.20; 0.28

d)

  0.28; 0.29; 0.29; 0.38; 0.45; 0.12; 0.20; 0.21; 0.24; 0.26

e)

  0.12; 0.20; 0.21; 0.24; 0.38; 0.45; 0.26; 0.28; 0.29; 0.29

120.

A study of the health status of people aged 40 to 65 covered 2,000 cities worldwide. What type of data set coverage is this?

a)

  average
 

b)

population
 

c)

selective
 

d)

sample
 

121.

Find the standard error of the mean if the standard deviation is 35 and the sample size is 25:

a)

  7
 

b)

8

c)

  2

d)

  22
 

e)

23

122.

The mean value that divides a dataset into two equal parts, with one part having values less than the mean and the other part having values greater than the mean, is called:

a)

  mode
 

b)

median
 

c)

sample arithmetic mean
 

d)

weighted arithmetic mean

e)

  simple arithmetic mean

123.

What is the proportion of units within ONE standard deviation under a normal distribution, in %?

a)

100

b)

  95.4

c)

  99.7
 

d)

68.3
 

e)

1

124.

What is the proportion of units within two standard deviations under a normal distribution, in %?

a)

  1
 

b)

68.3

c)

  99.7

d)

  100

e)

  95.4

125.

To assess the "normality" of a distribution more accurately, one can use metrics characterizing the shape of the curve:

a)

  Coefficient of variation, coefficient of skewness

b)

  Correlation coefficient, regression coefficient
 

c)

Rank correlation coefficient, coefficient of kurtosis

d)

  Coefficient of skewness, coefficient of kurtosis
 

e)

Regression coefficient, rank correlation coefficient

126.

What does the value of π,е determine in the calculation of theoretical frequencies for the normal distribution?

a)

normalized deviation

b)

series variants

c)

average value of variants

d)

standard deviation

e)

mathematical constants