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BIOL 108 A&P Lecture Exam4

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the enzymes below has/have the ability to BOTH separate the strands of the DNA in order to expose the bases AND pair up complementary nucleotides to make new nucleic acid chains?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

A and B

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

A and C

e)

Helicase

2.

On the X chromosome, there is a dominant gene (we’ll call it Q) for an enzyme that is critical to normal body function. When the defective recessive gene is inherited and expressed, the result is a horrible disease. If a healthy father mates with a sick/afflicted mother, what are the odds that any of the sons will have the horrible disease?

(a)  

3.

Which of the following epidermal strata is the most superficial layer in which cells are typically still living?

a)

Lucidum

b)

Basale

c)

Granulosum

d)

Corneum

e)

none of these

4.

What is the name for the class of exocrine glands that produce a water secretion created by exocytosis?

(a)  

5.

What is the name for the primary component of the inorganic material found in bone?

(a)  

6.

Which of the following cells plays the primary role in the resorption of bone during bone remodeling?

a)

fibroblasts

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteocytes

d)

osteoclasts

7.

Which of the following hormones is made/secreted in response to high calcium in the blood?

a)

Parathyroid Hormone

b)

Calcitriol

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Two of the above

e)

None of the above

8.

What is the term for a calcium imbalance in the blood that leads to decreased excitability of the nervous and muscular systems and lethargy?

(a)  

9.

Removing phosphate from blood into the urine is a good way to maintain higher calcium concentrations in the blood.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

A fracture of a bone that is broken into two distinct pieces that breaks through the skin is:

a)

Incomplete:Open

b)

Complete:Closed

c)

Comminuted:Closed

d)

Linear:Open

e)

Complete:Open

11.

Both males and females typically lose bone density at the same rate as they age.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Which of the first four statements below is TRUE regarding bone healing?

a)

Bones do not bleed when they are broken.

b)

A soft (fibrocartilage) callus forms within two days following the fracture.

c)

External fixation can be removed once the soft callus has formed.

d)

Granulation tissue forms in the hematoma within the first 48 hours following the fracture.

e)

both C and D are TRUE statements

13.

Name one specific cartilaginous joint and specify the type of cartilage found in it.

(a)  

14.

Name one of the three types of fibrous joints and give one location where the specific type of joint you named may be found.

(a)  

15.

which of the following is not a component of all synovial joints?

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Synovial fluid

c)

Fibrous capsule

d)

Endosteum

16.

Meniscus are made of fibrocartilage and functions as straps holding the knee joint together.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What are the ligaments found on the inside of the knee joint connecting to the femur to the tibia called?

(a)  

18.

What is the name for the fluid filled sacs that wrap around tendons to provide cushioning and increase slide ability of those tendons?

(a)  

19.

What is an example of a condylar joint?

(a)  

20.

give an example of a saddle joint

(a)  

21.

A high mechanical advantage, gained by the use of levers leads to

a)

more force, less speed

b)

More force, more speed

c)

Less force, more speed

d)

Less force, less speed

22.

What is the relationship of the effort fulcrum and resistance in a 2nd class lever?

(a)  

23.

What is the most common type of lever found in the body?

a)

1st class

b)

2nd class

c)

3rd class

24.

When a ballerina rises on point, on her toes, what motion is she preforming?

(a)  

25.

what motion is a softball pitcher performing when she swings her arm in a complete circle to deliver a pitch to home?

(a)  

26.

Which of the following muscle types are typically under voluntary control?

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

d)

More than one above

27.

Which of the following muscle types has cylindrical fibers?

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

d)

More than one option

28.

What is the name for the connective tissue membrane surrounding a single myofiber within a muscle?

(a)  

29.

What is the name for a bundle of muscle fibers packaged within the perimysium in a muscle?

a)

Fascial

b)

Periostracum

c)

Cross bridges

30.

The series elastic components of muscles are elastic fibers that give the muscle extensibility.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is the name for the extension of the sarcolemma that projects into the muscle cell forming the center channel of the triad?

(a)  

32.

Name the protein that makes up the thick filaments in skeletal muscle.

(a)  

33.

A single efferent neuron, with all of the skeletal muscle fibers that it innervates, is called a _____ ____

(a)  

34.

Which of the following is the sarcomere band that contains no think filaments?

a)

A-Band

b)

H-Band

c)

I-Band

d)

M-Band

35.

The H-band of the sarcomere is defined by the length of the thick filaments.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What is the name of the structure that holds the thin filaments in their 3-dimensional alignment in the sarcomere?

(a)  

37.

What is the name for the synapse between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber?

(a)  

38.

What protein makes up Z-discs?

(a)  

39.

ACh is stored in vesicles in the synaptic knob prior to being released by exocytosis.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The gap between a neuron and the muscle fiber it innervates is called the synaptic chasm.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What is the name for the infoldings of the sarcolemma covered in ACh receptors located at the motor end plate?

(a)  

42.

Which is the name for the effect on membrane polarity caused by a single ACh receptor opening at the motor end plate?

a)

Local Potential

b)

Motor potential

c)

Action Potential

d)

End-Plate Potential

e)

Isolation Potential

43.

Which sarcomere band does not shorten during muscle contractions?

a)

A-Band

b)

M-line

c)

I-band

d)

H-Band

e)

Triad

44.

Which is the location where ATP is broken down to ADP and phosphate during muscle contraction?

a)

T-T complex

b)

ACh receptor

c)

Z-Disc

d)

Myosin Head

e)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

45.

What enzyme is required to stop the chemical signal being sent from the neuron to the muscle fibers?

(a)  

46.

What molecule needs to bind to the complex that regulates the exposure of active sites on the thin filaments?

(a)  

47.

Which of the following statements are TRUE relating to muscle contraction and relaxation.

a)

ATP is required for an action potential to travel down the sarcolemma

b)

Junctional folds at the motor end plate contain AChE channels

c)

Calsequestrin binds Ca+ in the terminal cisternae

d)

Voltage-gates channels in the motor end plate open to allow Ca+ into the muscle fiber causing and end plate potential

48.

If a toxin blocks the binding of acetylcholine to its receptor and does not open the ligand-gated channels, what will happen to the muscle?

a)

Spastic Paralysis

b)

Flaccid Paralysis

c)

Nothing, the muscle will act normally

49.

Rigor mortis occurs because after an individual dies there is no ATP to break the ___ ___ between thick and thin filaments.

(a)  

50.

What is the term in neuron/ muscle electrophysiology that represents the minimum level of stimulus in order to elicit a response

(a)  

51.

Which answer is FALSE with regard to a muscle twitch:

a)

The contraction phase involves increasing tension but no shortening of the anatomical muscle

b)

The latent period is the shortest phase of the muscle twitch

c)

The relaxation phase occurs after contraction phase

d)

The latent period is the time necessary for excitation, contraction-coupling of the myofilaments, and overcoming the extensibility of the series- elastic components

52.

Which of the following is TRUE with respect to phases of muscle contraction?

a)

Isotonic = tension decreasing

b)

Isometric = Muscle shortening

c)

Isotonic = tension increasing

d)

Isometric = tension changing

53.

Glycolysis, in the absence of oxygen, produces no ATP.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which is FALSE regarding the process of ATP metabolism in muscles during exercise?

a)

Glycogen is the storage form of glucose for immediate use when a muscle is stimulated

b)

Prior to repayment of the oxygen dept at the end of exercise, the very first and last phases of normal muscle metabolism involve aerobic processes

c)

Aerobic respiration occurs in the muscle once o2 is being effectively delivered to the muscle by the circulatory and respiratory system

d)

Aerobic respiration produces lactic acid which is detrimental to muscle function

55.

What molecule is produced by both enzymes in the phosphagen system?

(a)  

56.

Repayment of the oxygen debt at the end of exercise involves hyperventilation to reload (a)   with o2

57.

Which of FALSE regarding protein synthesis?

a)

RNA polymerase is needed to read the template strand of the DNA in order to make proteins

b)

Transcription occurs at the template DNA strand

c)

mNRA, tRNA, and ribosomes are all involved in translation

d)

Exons are cleaved out of the Pre-mRNA