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AP Macroeconomics Mastery Review

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the definition of the economic term Opportunity Cost?
a)
the value of the next best alternative that is given up due to the choice you made 
b)
The price you pay to purchase something 
c)
The benefit you gain by making a decision 
d)
The amount of debt you take on by making a decision 
2.

The following diagram shows the production possibility frontier for an economy that produces bread and honey.


If the economy is initially at point W, then the opportunity cost of moving to point X is

a)

6 units of honey.

b)

8 units of honey.

c)

12 units of bread.

d)

23 units of bread.

3.

What is the Opportunity Cost of moving from C to A? (Think in the terms of what do we have to forgo in the process.)

(a)  

4.

Which of the following does Economics primarily study?

a)

how scarcity can be eliminated

b)

how firms manipulate prices

c)

how government influences resource allocation decisions

d)

the problem of scarce resources relative to human wants

5.

The equilibrium price of a good occurs if the

a)

quantity of the good demanded equals the quantity of the good supplied

b)

quantity of the good demanded is greater than the quantity of the good supplied.

c)

quantity of the good demanded is less than the quantity of the good supplied.

d)

demand for the good is greater than the supply of the good

e)

price of the good seems reasonable to most buyers

6.
What is the Equilibrium Price?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
7.
What does this graph show?
a)
Shortage
b)
Surplus
c)
Supply Table
d)
Equilibrium
8.
There is an increase in supply.  This will cause the equilibrium price to ______ & the equilibrium quantity to ______.
a)
decrease; increase
b)
decrease; decrease
c)
increase; increase
d)
increase; decrease
9.

The equilibrium price of a good occurs if the

a)

quantity of the good demanded equals the quantity of the good supplied

b)

quantity of the good demanded is greater than the quantity of the good supplied.

c)

quantity of the good demanded is less than the quantity of the good supplied.

d)

demand for the good is greater than the supply of the good

e)

price of the good seems reasonable to most buyers

10.

What is the purpose of expansionary fiscal policy?

a)

To decrease the money supply and slow down economic growth during a recession

b)

To reduce government spending and decrease aggregate demand during a recession

c)

To increase taxes and reduce consumer spending during an economic downturn

d)

To stimulate economic growth and increase aggregate demand during a recession or economic downturn.

11.

Describe the tools that the government can use to implement fiscal policy.

a)

Raising interest rates

b)

Reducing government debt

c)

Printing more money

d)

Taxation, government spending, and transfer payments

12.

Explain the difference between expansionary and contractionary monetary policy.

a)

Expansionary monetary policy has no effect on the money supply

b)

Contractionary monetary policy increases the money supply

c)

Expansionary monetary policy decreases the money supply

d)

Expansionary monetary policy increases the money supply, while contractionary monetary policy decreases the money supply.

13.

Discuss the relationship between the Phillips curve and the trade-off between inflation and unemployment.

a)

The Phillips curve has no relationship with inflation or unemployment.

b)

The Phillips curve shows the trade-off between GDP and inflation.

c)

The Phillips curve shows the trade-off between inflation and unemployment.

d)

The Phillips curve only applies to the relationship between interest rates and inflation.

14.

Which of the following will shift the aggregate demand curve to the right?

a)

A report that corporate earnings were lower than expected

b)

An increase in interest rates caused by a tightening of monetary policy

c)

Increased imports caused by appreciation of the dollar

d)

Increased spending by businesses on computers

e)

An increase in the government’s budget surplus

15.

To close an inflationary gap in the short run, the government should

a)

decrease spending and increase taxes

b)

buy bonds and lower the discount rate

c)

sell bonds and raise the discount rate

d)

increase spending and decrease taxes

e)

increase spending and increase taxes

16.
Which of the following will increase the supply of loanable funds?
a)
an increase in perceived business opportunities 
b)
decreased government borrowing 
c)

an increased household saving rate 

d)
an increase in the expected inflation rate
17.
With an increase in human capital (education, training, and experiences) we would expect to see both the output per worker and GDP to:
a)
Both increase
b)
Both Decrease
c)
output per working to increase but real GDP to decrease
d)
Output per worker to decrease but real GDP to inccrease
18.

Spending on education/training (develop human capital); Infrastructure spending (develop physical capital); Production/Investment incentive programs (supply-side policies)

a)

Government policies to promote long-run economic growth

b)

Government practice of spending more than it takes in from taxes

c)

the relationship between unemployment and inflation

d)

government policies that seek to promote economic growth by affecting short-run and long-run aggregate supply

19.

What type of Unemployment is represented here?


Scenario: The economy is on the decline causing businesses to lay off employees

a)

Cyclical

b)

Seasonal

c)

Structural

d)

Frictional

20.

You have the least amount of control over this since it is based on the ups and downs of the business cycle.

a)

frictional unemployment

b)

seasonal unemployment

c)

cyclical unemployment

d)

structural unemployment

21.

An increase in the price level will most likely cause which of the following?

a)

An increase in the real interest rate

b)

An increase in the demand for money

c)

A decrease in the nominal interest rate

d)

An increase in the supply of money

22.

How is nominal GDP calculated?

a)

Use the current year's prices to calculate the value of the current year's output

b)

Calculate the % change from one year to another

c)

Calculate the amount of taxes citizens pay

d)

Calculate the total amount of goods bought within the year

23.

The relationship between the value of a country's exports and the value of its imports.

a)

Trade Deficit

b)

Trade Surplus

c)

Balance of Trade

d)

Balance of Payments

24.

The variables on the vertical and horizontal axes of the aggregate demand and supply graph are

a)

the price level, real output.

b)

real output, employment.

c)

employment, the inflation rate.

d)

the value of money, the price level.

25.

Which of the following will shift the aggregate demand curve to the right?

a)

A report that corporate earnings were lower than expected

b)

An increase in interest rates caused by a tightening of monetary policy

c)

Increased imports caused by appreciation of the dollar

d)

Increased spending by businesses on computers

e)

An increase in the government’s budget surplus

26.

Taxing and Spending are tools of

a)

Fiscal Policy

b)

Monetary Policy

27.

Taxing & spending to help the economy grow is referred to as

a)

expansionary policy

b)

monetary policy

c)

contractionary policy

d)

budget deficit

28.

Taxing & spending to slow the economy is referred to as 

a)

budget surplus 

b)

monetary policy

c)

contractionary policy

d)

budget deficit

29.
If banks within a country's banking system generally have more money to lend out, we say that the supply of loanable funds increases (in other words, the supply curve shifts right). When this happens we would expect this to: 
a)
increase the real interest rate in society
b)
decrease demand for loanable funds
c)
decrease the real interest rate in society
d)
increase demand for loanable funds
30.
Assume  households increase their savings (and always assume households put most of their savings in banks). As a result, banks within the country's banking system have more funds from which they can make loans. Thus, how would this increase in household savings affect the loanable funds market? 
a)
supply of loanable funds increases
b)
supply of loanable funds decreases
c)
supply of loanable funds does not change
31.

A shift in long-run economic growth is affected by all of the following EXCEPT -

a)

physical capital

b)

technology

c)

human capital per worker

d)

breaks you take

32.

Which of the following forms of unemployment makes up a nation's "unemployment rate"?

a)

Frictional Unemployment

b)

Seasonal Unemployment

c)

Structural Unemployment

d)

Cyclical Unemployment

33.

The (fill in the blank) is the percentage of bank deposits that the bank must keep in its vault

a)

actual ratio

b)

reserve requirement

c)

spending mutliplier

d)

fifteen percent rule

34.

The amount of money the bank has available to lend

a)

excess reserves

b)

required reserves

c)

actual reserves

d)

navy reserves

35.

deposits are 100,000, RR=10%, no loans have been made, how much money does the bank have available to lend?

a)

80,000

b)

60,000

c)

10,000

d)

90,000

36.

RR=10%, deposits are 50,000. What are the required reserves?

a)

8,000

b)

500

c)

5,000

d)

50,000

37.

Banks create money when -

a)

They make loans

b)

They keep all excess reserves

c)

The money multiplier is less than 1

d)

The loans they make are repaid

38.

The major difference between real and nominal gross domestic product (GDP) is that real GDP

a)

excludes government transfer payments

b)

excludes imports

c)

is adjusted for price-level changes using a price index

d)

measures only the value of final goods and services that are consumed

e)

measures the prices of a market basket of goods purchased by a typical urban consumer

39.

Expansionary fiscal policy includes

a)

Decreasing government spending

b)

Tax increases

c)

Tax decreases

d)

Increasing government spending

40.

Contractionary fiscal policy includes

a)

Decreasing government spending

b)

Tax increases

c)

Tax decreases

d)

Increasing government spending

41.

There is a rise in interest rates for people and businesses to borrow money...

a)

AD shifts right

b)

AD shifts left

c)

AS shifts right

d)

AS shifts left

42.

The government reduces taxes for small businesses...

a)

AD shifts right

b)

AD shifts left

c)

AS shifts right

d)

AS shifts left

43.

Which of the following will shift the aggregate demand curve to the right?

a)

A report that corporate earnings were lower than expected

b)

An increase in interest rates caused by a tightening of monetary policy

c)

Increased imports caused by appreciation of the dollar

d)

Increased spending by businesses on computers

e)

An increase in the government’s budget surplus

44.

Type of unemployment that occurs when people take time to find a job.

a)

Seasonal Unemployment

b)

Structural Unemployment

c)

Frictional Unemployment

d)

Cyclical Unemployment

45.

Someone buys a car in exchange for a large amount of money. They have completed an exchange in which part of the circuclar flow model?

a)

Product Market

b)

Factor Market

c)

Firms

d)

Individuals

46.

In the context of the circular flow model, firms (businesses) sell goods and services in the:

a)

Factor market

b)

Product market

c)

Government sector

d)

International market

47.

when annual government spending and transfer payments are greater than tax revenue.

a)

Budget Deficit

b)

Budget Surplus

c)

National Debt

d)

Global Debt

48.

is the accumulation of all the budget deficits over time. 

a)

Budget Deficit

b)

Budget Surplus

c)

National Debt

d)

Global Debt

49.

The nation of Johnsrudia has a marginal propensity to consume (MPC) of 0.9


If there is an autonomous increase in new home construction of $10 billion, what will happen to real gross domestic product (GDP)?

a)

Real GDP will increase by exactly $9 billion

b)

Real GDP will increase by exactly $10 billion

c)

Real GDP will increase by less that $9 billion

d)

Real GDP will not change

e)

Real GDP will increase by more than $10 billion

50.

The multiplier effect shows

a)

How spending is magnified in the economy

b)

How much consumers can spend from their paychecks

c)

How much the government can spend from their budget

d)

How often the economy can survive recessions

51.

Which of the following equations is correct?

a)

MPCMPS=1\frac{MPC}{MPS}=1

b)

Multiplier = 1MPC\frac{1}{MPC}

c)

MPS = MPC

d)

MPC + MPS = 1

52.

If the spending multiplier is 5, the value of the tax multiplier must be

a)

5

b)

4

c)

-4

d)

-5

53.

In the the Nation of Eagleton, a increase in government spending of $20 billion results in an increase in gross domestic product (GDP) of $80 billion. Thus, in Eagleton the MPC is _____ and the value of the multiplier is _______.

a)

0.80; 5

b)

0.75; 4

c)

0.80; 4

d)

0.9; 10

54.
The equation for the multiplier is:
a)
1/MPC
b)
1/1+MPC
c)
1/MPS
d)
1/1-MPS
55.

Does increasing the money supply cause inflation or deflation?

a)

Inflation

b)

Deflation

56.

An increase in government spending will affect the demand for money and nominal interest rates in which of the following ways?

a)

MD : Increase

NIR : Increase

b)

MD : Increase

NIR : Decrease

c)

MD : Increase

NIR : Indeterminate

d)

MD : Decrease

NIR : Increase

57.

If exports from the United States decreased, what would most likely happen to real gross domestic product and price level?
Real GDP / Price Level

a)
decrease/decrease
b)
increase/increase
c)
decrease/increase
d)
increase/no chanve
58.

If the Mexican Peso depreciates in relation to the Chinese Yuan, how is Mexico affected?

a)

Mexico has less purchasing power in Chinese currency

b)

Mexico benefits from increased purchasing power

c)

Mexico would have more Chinese investors

d)

They would be invaded by China

59.

If the US $ were to appreciate in relation to the Euro, what effect would this have?

a)

European consumers would have more purchasing power in US

b)

US consumers can buy more European goods and services for fewer $$

c)

US consumers can buy more English goods and services for fewer $$

d)

European tourists to the US will spend more $$

60.

In 2009 the exchange rate of the Singapore dollar changed from 1.49 = 1 US dollar to 1.43 Singapore dollars = 1 US dollar.

How would this affect the import prices and export prices for Singapore?

a)

decrease/decrease

b)

decrease/increase

c)

increase/decrease

d)

increase/increase

61.

An appreciation of a country's currency means that for foreigners this country's goods are

a)

Cheaper

b)

More expensive

62.

What would cause AD to decrease and shift left?

a)
an increase in taxes
b)
a decrease taxes
c)
an increase in government spending
d)
keeping government spending constant
63.

Which of the following equations represents Aggregate Demand

a)

GDP = X + I + C + (Y - Z)

b)

GDP = C + I + G + (X - M)

c)

GDP = C + I + X + (G - T)

d)

GDP = (1/MPS)*G + I + C

64.

Crowding out occurs when investment declines because

a)

a budget deficit causes interest rates to rise.

b)

a budget deficit causes interest rates to fall.

c)

a budget surplus causes interest rates to rise.

d)

a budget surplus causes interest rates to fall.

65.

(M x V = P x Y)

a)

quantity theory of money

b)

the idea that changes in the money supply

c)

relationship between the unemployment rate and the inflation rate

d)

velocity of money

66.

Net Exports

a)

Considers ALL international transactions

b)

Exports – Imports

c)

Inflow > Outflow

d)

Includes only goods and service

e)

Inflow < Outflow

67.
Currency depreciation results in
a)
Increased exports, increased imports
b)
Decreased exports, decreased imports
c)
Increased exports, decreased imports
d)
Decreased exports, increased imports
68.
When a country's currency appreciates, its exports ____
a)
double
b)
become cheaper
c)
become more expensive
d)
Drop by at least 1/2
69.

A decrease in price level in the U.S. relative it its trading partners will cause the U.S. dollar to __________ on the foreign exchange market, and Americans will __________ the purchase of foreign made goods.  

a)
appreciate, increase
b)
appreciate, decrease
c)
depreciate, decrease
d)
depreciate, increase
70.

Based on the Required Reserves that Reserve Ratio must be

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

19%

e)

none of the above

71.

The reserve ratio here is....

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

5%

d)

27%

e)

25%

72.

People who are helped by inflation. Pick 2.

a)

Borrowers

b)

Lenders

c)

A business where the price of the product increases faster than the price of resources

d)

Savers

73.
Which of the following groups suffer from high inflation
a)
Borrowers
b)
Lenders
c)
Property Investors
74.

What is the relationship between money supply and nominal GDP?

a)

Nominal GDP is inversely related to the money supply

b)

Nominal GDP is unaffected by the money supply

c)

Nominal GDP tends to rise with the money supply

d)

Nominal GDP tends to fall with the money supply

75.
How much money must the bank keep on hand if the Required Reserve is 20% and there is a deposit of $1000.
a)
20
b)
50
c)
200
d)
1020
76.

Which of the following would likely cause the supply curve of gasoline to shift right?

a)

Political instability in OPEC nations

b)

Increased taxes on oil corporations

c)

New oil deposits found in the Gulf of Mexico

d)

The Federal Reserve raises interest rates

77.

Which of the following is considered the most liquid asset?

a)

Real estate

b)

Stocks

c)

Bonds

d)

Currency (cash)

78.

when annual government spending and transfer payments are greater than tax revenue.

a)

Budget Deficit

b)

Budget Surplus

c)

National Debt

d)

Global Debt

79.

Which of the following will cause the short-run Phillips curve to shift to the right (up)? (CHOOSE 2)

a)

a positive supply shock

b)

a positive demand shock

c)

an increase in inflation expectations

d)

an increase in oil prices

e)

a decrease in government spending

80.

Laws that reduce unemployment and increase GDP (Close a Recessionary Gap). 

Increase Government Spending.

Decrease Taxes (Increasing disposable income).

Combinations of the Two.

a)

Expansionary Fiscal Policy

b)

Contractionary Fiscal Policy

c)

Deficit Spending

d)

Inflation Policy

81.

Laws that reduce inflation, decrease GDP (Close an Inflationary Gap).

Decrease Government Spending.

Increase Taxes (Decreasing disposable income).

Combinations of the Two.

a)

Expansionary Fiscal Policy

b)

Contractionary Fiscal Policy

c)

Deficit Spending

d)

Inflation Policy

82.

During a recession, the Fed should use...

a)

an expansionary policy

b)

a contractionary policy

83.

During an expansion, the Fed should use...

a)

an expansionary policy

b)

a contractionary policy

84.

the action by the FED to adjust the size of the money supply, and to adjust interest rates in order to keep prices down and employment high.

a)

fiscal policy

b)

monetary policy

85.

What is the main difference between the short-run and the long-run in economics?

a)

In the short-run, potential production is considered, while in the long-run, current production is the focus.

b)

In the short-run, some variables are fixed, while in the long-run, everything is variable.

c)

In the short-run, the economy is self-correcting, while in the long-run, demand and supply forces adjust to full employment.

d)

In the short-run, the economy is stable, while in the long-run, it is volatile.

86.

What is the formula for calculating the multiplier?

a)

1 / (MPC - 1)

b)

1 / (1 + MPC)

c)

1 / (MPC + 1)

d)

1 / (1 - MPC)

87.

What is the balanced budget multiplier when equal changes in government spending and taxation lead to an equal change in income?

a)

0.5

b)

2

c)

1.5

d)

1

88.

What is the term for the gap between where GDP currently is and where GDP would be at full employment assuming that the economy is currently underperforming?

a)

Recessionary gap

b)

Equilibrium gap

c)

Inflationary gap

d)

Stimulus gap

89.

Assume there is an initial change in spending of $60,000. What is the potential total change in spending/income? MPC = 0.80

a)

$75,000

b)

$400,000

c)

$300,000

d)

$60,000

90.

Generally speaking, inflation is beneficial to ________ and harmful to _________.

a)

sole proprietors; partnerships

b)

lenders; borrowers

c)

government; individuals

d)

borrowers; lenders

91.

If the federal government decreases its expenditures on goods and services by $10 billion and decreases taxes on personal incomes by $10 billion, which of the following will occur in the short-run?

a)

The federal budget deficit will increase by $10 billion.

b)

The federal budget deficit will decrease by $10 billion.

c)

Aggregate income will remain the same.

d)

Aggregate income will increase by up to $10 billion.

e)

Aggregate income will decrease by up to $10 billion.

92.
An increase in personal income taxes will most likely result in which of the following changes in real GDP and the price level in the shortrun?
a)
Decrease Real GDP; Decrease Price Level
b)
Increase Real GDP; Decrease Price Level
c)
Decrease Real GDP; Increase Price Level
d)
Increase Real GDP; Increase Price Level
93.

the degree of wealth and material comfort available to a person or community

a)

Exchange Rate

b)

Gross Domestic Product

c)

Standard of Living

d)

Literacy Rate

94.
_____________ occurs when a government deficit drives up the interest rate and leads to reduced investment spending.
a)
Crowding Out
b)
Rate of Return
c)
Loanable Funds Market
d)
Fisher Effect
e)

Phillips Curve

95.
An increase in disposable income would lead to
a)

an increase in the demand for loanable funds

b)

a decrease in the demand for loanable funds

c)

an increase in the supply of loanable funds

d)

a decrease in supply of loanable funds

e)

no change in the supply of loanable funds

96.

According to the quantity theory of money, if the money supply is $20 billion, real output is $50 billion, and the price level if 0.6, what is the velocity of money?

a)

1.25

b)

3

c)

1.5

d)

3.5

97.

The shift in the graph would cause

a)

a US trade deficit.

b)

an increase in American tariffs.

c)

speculators demanding more pesos.

d)

an appreciation of the dollar.

e)

inflation in the US.

98.
The Fed keeps a certain amount of money out of circulation. This is referred to as....
a)
Reserve requirement
b)
Emergency Fund
c)
Stockpile
d)
Hoard
99.

A bank's reserves over and above its required reserves.

a)

bank run

b)

excess reserves

c)

monetary base

d)

bank reserves

100.

The difference between imports and exports for a country is called the:

a)

the balance of trade

b)

the balance of payments

c)

trade surplus

d)

payment surplus

101.

When the value of exports is greater than the value of imports, then it is known as _____________.

a)

Trade Surplus

b)

Trade Deficit

c)

Trade Equilibrium

d)

BOP Deficit