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Exam 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 8hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Physical or mental effort work; work for which someone is paid is:

a)

Equipment

b)

Activity

c)

Labor

d)

Accomplishment

2.

______ control category signifies that it is  1st priority activity and should be performed as needed  activity.

a)

Limited

b)

Variable

c)

Unlimited

d)

Project

3.

The annual work quantity planned per inventory unit

a)

Average daily production       

b)

Crew size

c)

Activity standard  

d)

Quantity Standard

4.

____ is prepared as a basis for assigning work thru verbal or written instructions

a)

Schedule

b)

Inspection report

c)

Work program

d)

Performance Budget

5.

Which of the following Flood Control structure for protecting the river

bank from collapse by directing the flow away from the riverbank and

reduce the flow velocity near the bank?

a)

Revetment

b)

Dike

c)

Spur Dike

d)

Groundsill

6.

Which of the following Flood Control structure designed for fixing the

riverbed and prevent it from further degradation? It is usually built

downstream of the bridge.

a)

Revetment

b)

Dike

c)

Spur Dike

d)

Groundsill

7.

Which of the following Flood Control structure for protecting the river

bank from collapse brought about by erosion, scouring and degradation?

a)

Revetment

b)

Dike

c)

Spur Dike

d)

Groundsill

8.

Which of the following Flood Control structure which sometimes called

levee, constructed along the banks of a stream, river, lake or other body

of water for the purpose of protecting the landside from overflowing

floodwater by confining the stream flow in the regular channel?

a)

Revetment

b)

Dike

c)

Spur Dike

d)

Groundsill

9.

The dredging shall be executed according to the depths or elevations

indicated in the Plans. Which of the following is the allowable tolerance

for over dredging?

a)

100 mm

b)

200 mm

c)

300 mm

d)

400 mm

10.

In dredging works, what is the preferred degree of slopes between the

original bottom and the indicated dredging level for layers of clay (vertical

to horizontal)?

a)

1 to 4

b)

1 to 5

c)

1 to 6

d)

1 to 3

11.

In dredging works, what is the preferred degree of slopes between the

original bottom and the indicated dredging level for layers of mud and silt

(vertical to horizontal)?

a)

1 to 8

b)

1 to 5

c)

1 to 6

d)

1 to 10

12.

In undertaking reclamation works, what is the maximum layer of

embankment materials whether obtained by dredging or borrow pit to be

spread out and compacted in layer?

a)

150 mm

b)

200 mm

c)

250 mm

d)

300 mm

13.

In undertaking reclamation works, what is the minimum degree of

compaction for each layer of embankment acceptable to the

government?

a)

90%

b)

95%

c)

100%

d)

85%

14.

In undertaking driving works for RC Sheet/Steel Sheet Pile for Flood

Control Revetment Project, what is the desired eccentricity tolerance?

a)

100 mm

b)

200 mm

c)

300 mm

d)

400 mm

15.

What is the required size range of rock/stone used in gabion for

revetment structure?

a)

50mm-100 mm

b)

100mm-200 mm

c)

200 mm -300mm

d)

100mm -300mm

16.

A hydraulic structure constructed to control and/or conserved water.

a)

Channel

b)

Dam

c)

Embankment

d)

Revetment

17.

A flood control structure constructed along river banks subjected to

direct attack of the river flow for protection against scouring and wave

wash

a)

Dike

b)

Revetment

c)

Spurdike

d)

Flood gate

18.

River training structures constructed along the banks of rivers and flood

control dikes to deflect or repel the flow for the purpose of training the

course of the river channel and to protect the banks from scouring by

inducing siltation in the area

a)

Embankment

b)

Dams

c)

Spurdikes

d)

Flood control dikes

19.

Is a structure constructed along embankment crossing creeks, rivers,

streams and other waterways discharging into main waterway to prevent

backflow

a)

Flood control dike

b)

Flood gate

c)

Revetment

d)

Dam

20.

A channel connecting the beginning and end of a meandering portion of a

stream

a)

Open channel

b)

Diversion channel

c)

Cut-off channel

d)

Intercepting channel

21.

An embankment generally constructed on or parallel to the banks of a

stream, lake or other bodies of water for the purpose of protecting the

land side from inundation by flood water or to confine the stream flow to

its regular channel

a)

Levee

b)

Earthdike

c)

Guide bank

d)

Gravity wall

22.

____is the unique identifier for the contract which is created during advertisement of a project,

sourced from the Civil Works Registry (CWR).

a)

Project I.D.

b)

Contract I.D.

c)

Contract Agreement

d)

Project Description

23.

The deadline for submission of project monitoring reports to the Project Monitoring Division (PMD) of

the Bureau of Construction by the Regional Offices and PMOs shall now be on the______

a)

5th day of the Reporting Month

b)

10th day of the Reporting Month

c)

25th day of the Reporting Month

d)

30th day of the Reporting Month

24.

All Project Engineers of Implementing Offices are required to submit their respective accomplishment

reports to the Regional/District and PMO Monitors concerned every ____

a)

5th day of the Reporting Month

b)

10th day of the Reporting Month

c)

25th day of the Reporting Month

d)

30th day of the Reporting Month

25.

A written order issued by the DPWH Project Engineer/ Engineer’s Representative and approved by

the concerned authorized DPWH officials to the contractor suspend the contract work wholly or

partly for such period as may be deemed necessary, in accordance with Annex “E” of the IRR of RA

9184.

a)

Contact Time Extension

b)

Work Suspension Order

c)

Work Resumption Order

d)

Variation Order

26.

A written authority issued by the I.O. granting the contractor additional time beyond the approved

completion date in order to carry out additional work or on account of other special circumstances

that warrant such addition contract time.

a)

Contact Time Extension

b)

Work Suspension Order

c)

Work Resumption Order

d)

Variation Order

27.

A written order issued by the DPWH Project Engineer/ Engineer’s representative and approved by

the concerned Head of I.O. to the contractor to resume construction operation covered by a

previous Work Suspension Order, after the cause of or reasons for the work suspension has been

resolved.

a)

Contact Time Extension

b)

Work Suspension Order

c)

Work Resumption Order

d)

Variation Order

28.

Deadline for submission of the merged monitoring reports to ManCom.

a)

on or before the 5th day of the following month

b)

on or before the 6th day of the following month

c)

on or before the 7th day of the following month

d)

on or before the 8th day of the following month

29.

All DEOs implemented projects shall adopt the Precedence Diagram Method (PDM) as a

construction schedule starting _____.

a)

July 1, 2016

b)

January 4, 2016

c)

June 30, 2017

d)

January 2, 2017

30.

It is a network diagram that shows activities as nodes and usually represented by

rectangular/square boxes which are connected by arrows showing relationship between

the work activities.

a)

PERT/CPM

b)

Precedence Diagram Method (PDM)

c)

Critical Path

d)

Gantt Chart

31.

It is the longest sequence of activities in a construction schedule from commencement to

completion wherein the sum of the activities duration is equivalent to the duration of the

project.

a)

Critical Activities

b)

Parallel Activities

c)

Critical Path

d)

Construction Activities

32.

It is the difference between scheduled and actual accomplishment per approved

construction schedule that is usually indicated in percentage.

a)

Percent time elapsed

b)

Slippage

c)

Negative Slippage

d)

Positive slippage

33.

The significance of the item/activity along the critical path of the PERT/CPM

Network Diagram are the following except ___.

a)

The duration’s summation becomes the contract time.

b)

It defines the shortest possible time to complete the project

c)

One hour delay in any of the items will mean the whole project will be

delayed by an hour.

d)

It defines the critical and non-critical activities to complete the project

34.

Approved Construction schedule, Bar Chart and S-curve are documentary

requirements for _________.

a)

POW and ABC approval

b)

Contract processing and approval

c)

Contractor’s bid proposal

d)

Request of Advance Payment

35.

Refers to the projected cost that must be expended in executing the works using

activities durations and their direct and indirect cost.

a)

Contract cost

b)

Cash flow

c)

Cash in-flow

d)

Cash out-flow

36.

It is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with

respect to a predecessor activity under a Precedence Diagram Method (PDM).

a)

Lag time

b)

Lead time

c)

Earliest time finish

d)

Latest time finish

37.

It is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be delayed with

respect to a predecessor activity under a Precedence Diagram Method (PDM).

a)

Lag time

b)

Lead time

c)

Earliest time finish

d)

Latest time finish

38.

The curve represents the cumulative expenditures of a project direct and indirect

cost over time is called the ____

a)

S-curve

b)

Ghantt Chart

c)

Bar Chart

d)

P

39.

Pursuant to the Revised IRR of RA 9184 under Annex E, Section 1.5.e, the time frame for the

processing of Variation Orders from the preparation up to the approval by the procuring

entity concerned shall not exceed ____.

a)

28 working days

b)

28 calendar days

c)

30 working days

d)

30 calendar days

40.

The total Retention Money shall be due for release upon acceptance of the works. The

contractor may, however, request the __________ of the retention money for each progress

billing with irrevocable standby letters of credit from a commercial bank, bank guarantees or

surety bond callable on demand in the amount equivalent to the retention money

substituted for and acceptable to the Government, provided that the project is on schedule

and is satisfactorily undertaken.

a)

Payment

b)

Recoupment

c)

Substitution

d)

Release

41.

Pursuant to the Revised IRR of RA 9184 under Annex E, Section 5, once a month, the

contractor may submit a statement of work accomplished or ______ and corresponding

request for _______ for work accomplished.

a)

progress billing; progress payment

b)

progress payment; progress billing

c)

progress billing; monthly payment

d)

request for payment; progress billing

42.

In claiming for any variation order, the contractor shall, within ___ after such work has been

commenced; or, within _____ after the circumstances or reasons justifying a claim for extra

cost shall have occurred, deliver a notice giving full and detailed particulars of any extra cost

in order that it may be investigated at that time.

a)

7 calendar days; 30 calendar days

b)

15 calendar days; 28 calendar days

c)

7 calendar days; 28 calendar days

d)

28 calendar days; 7calendar days

43.

Pursuant to the Revised IRR of RA 9184 under Annex E, Section 1.4, a cumulative Variation

Order beyond 10% of the original contract price shall be subject of another contract to be

bid out if the works are _______from the original contract.

a)

inseparable

b)

contiguous

c)

separable

d)

adjacent

44.

To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new

road that will pass through loose or heterogenous strata, auger borings should be

made on the proposed alignment at an average interval of:

a)

150 m

b)

200 m

c)

250 m

d)

500 m

45.

For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended

from the centerline of the bridge at least

a)

100 to 200 m upstream only

b)

100 to 200 m downstream only

c)

100 to 200 m upstream and downstream

d)

300 m upstream and downstream

46.

Profile along the centerline of the river channel should be extended from the

centerline of the bridge by at least

a)

100 to 200 m upstream and downstream

b)

100 to 200 m upstream only

c)

100 to 200 m downstream only

d)

100 m upstream and downstream

47.

To find the time of flow, it is required to determine the length of channel. This can

be done by transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in the

proportion of 1:1.5. The length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this

rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of the rectangle, which is the:

a)

square root of the square of width (W) plus half of

b)

square root of the sum of the squares of longer side (L) and W plus half of W

c)

square root of the square of the squares of L plus half of W

d)

3.0 W

48.

The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate without

undue reduction in speed is called:

a)

critical length of grade for design

b)

exceptional gradient

c)

limiting gradient

d)

ruling gradient

49.

In practice, K – factor is used to convert average annual daily traffic to the 30th

highest annual hourly volume (DHV) and is defined as:

a)

DHV/AADT

b)

DDHV/ (DxAADT)

c)

V/PHF

d)

L/A

50.

A contractor encountered an equation on the plans. Quite confused, he clarified the

terms “BK” and “AH” from the Engineer. If you were the Engineer, you would say

that:

a)

BK means new survey stationing

b)

AH means old survey stationing corrected

c)

BK means old survey stationing corrected;

AH, new survey stationing

d)

Both a and b

51.

Bearings for bridges are designed to provide free movement of girders. Which of

the following is not used to allow such movement?

a)

expansion joints

b)

rockers

c)

sliding plates

d)

rollers

52.

For service load design of bridges, the flexural stress in the extreme fiber stress in

compression, fc (in MPa), is:

a)

0.30 f’c

b)

0.40 f’c

c)

0.45 f’c

d)

0.50 f’c

53.

The maximum value of impact applied to the superstructure of a bridge should be:

a)

15.24/(L+38); where L=portion of the span loaded for maximum

b)

50/(L+125)

c)

30%

d)

50%

54.

When considering wind or earthquake forces either acting alone or in combination

with vertical loads, all allowable stresses and soil-bearing value for working stress

design may be increased by:

a)

1/4

b)

1/3

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

55.

In foundation design, the allowable load or bearing capacity is obtained by reducing

the ultimate bearing capacity by a factor of safety of:

a)

1.5

b)

2.0

c)

1 to 2

d)

2 to 3

56.

What do you call the vertical distance from the culvert invert at the entrance to the

water surface elevation permissible in the approach channel?

a)

freeboard

b)

headwater depth

c)

trailwater depth

d)

scour depth

57.

Culvert flow under entrance control is synonymous with flow under:

a)

outlet control

b)

inlet control

c)

submerged outlet

d)

normal depth greater than barrel height

58.

For creeks in urban and rural areas and not subject to overbank flows, a minimum

easement to be provided measured from the edge of the existing bank or the

improved bank should be:

a)

3.0 m

b)

4.0 m

c)

4.5 m

d)

20.0 m

59.

The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the

range of:

a)

0.2 – 0.5 1/m2

b)

0.2 – 0.7 1/m2

c)

0.15 – 0.7 1/m2

d)

0.15 – 0.5 1/m2

60.

Sub-grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:

a)

Over saturation with water

b)

Optimum moisture content and maximum dry density

c)

Dry soil

d)

Cold weather

61.

What is the accepted proportion mixture of lime to be added to the soil aggregate

(dry soil), in a Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)?

a)

2 to 10 mass percent

b)

4 to 15 mass percent

c)

3 to 18 mass percent

d)

3 to 12 mass percent

62.

What is the accepted proportion mixture of cement to be added to the soil aggregate

(dry soil) in a Portland Cement Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 204)?

a)

4 to 20 mass percent

b)

6 to 10 mass percent

c)

5 to 12 mass percent

d)

3 to 12 mass percent

63.

What is the required area of the trial section needed to check the suitability of the

materials and efficiency of the equipment and construction method the contractor

will use?

a)

about 500 sq.m.

b)

about 400 sq.m.

c)

about 100 sq.m.

d)

about 600 sq.m.

64.

What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate

subbase course?

a)

± 20 mm

b)

± 10 mm

c)

± 30 mm

d)

± 15 mm

65.

What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate

base course?

a)

± 20 mm

b)

± 15 mm

c)

± 25 mm

d)

± 10 mm

66.

What should be the condition of the tack coat before the next course is applied?

a)

wet

b)

sticky

c)

plastic

d)

dry

67.

Concrete mix not place within __________ minutes from the time ingredients were

charged into the mixing drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.

a)

90

b)

45

c)

30

d)

15

68.

What is the minimum allowable/required atmospheric temperature in the application

of Item 305 bituminous material?

a)

5 OC

b)

10 OC

c)

12 OC

d)

15 OC

69.

The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before

patching using cold or hot mix asphalt in order to:

a)

ensure bond between the new mix and old surface

b)

prevent pumping

c)

minimize spalling

d)

prevent faulting

70.

Repainting of steel bridges is an activity under:

a)

special maintenance

b)

preventive maintenance

c)

routine maintenance

d)

periodic maintenance

71.

What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to

make them denser and grow straight?

a)

pruning

b)

grafting

c)

felling

d)

budding

72.

It is the repeated operation of fine grading and compacting the full width of the roadway

prior to undertaking any overlying structural layers.

a)

embankment

b)

structure excavation

c)

subgrade preparation

d)

none of the above

73.

A structural layer which accepts greater compressive stress and reduces the deformation of

the pavement under traffic loading.

a)

excavation

b)

embankment

c)

aggregate sub-base course

d)

aggregate base

course

74.

An application of liquid asphalt on an existing pavement for bonding a new pavement

surface to the existing pavement surface.

a)

bituminous tack coat

b)

bituminous prime coat

c)

bituminous seal coat

d)

asphalt

75.

If the lanes are concreted separately, a ______ in the form of a key and keyway is used.

a)

construction joint

b)

expansion joint

c)

contraction joint

d)

longitudinal joint

76.

Intercept, collect and direct runoff which is draining towards the roadway from adjacent

catchments areas.

a)

pipe culverts & storm drains

b)

excavation

c)

embankment

d)

guardrail

77.

Are installed to mark the limit of safe travel and warn of danger beyond.

a)

road signs

b)

pavement markings

c)

pavement markings

d)

curb and gutter

78.

Are installed along the roadway for traffic safety, remind traffic rules and inform drivers

how to use the roadway.

a)

sidewalk

b)

road signs

c)

pavement markings

d)

guardrail

79.

The measurement of trees or stumps for large trees by individual unit basis, the unit will be

designated and measured in accordance with the schedule of size.

a)

Over 150 mm to 300 mm

b)

Over 500 mm to 750 mm

c)

Over 300 mm to 500 mm

d)

Over 900 mm

80.

The required backfill and embankment for structures other than pipe culverts shall be placed

in horizontal layers to the level of the original ground surface.

a)

100 mm

b)

150 mm

c)

200 mm

d)

300 mm

81.

Roadway embankment of earth material shall be placed in horizontal layers not exceeding

_______ , loose measurement, and shall be compacted as specified before the next layer is

placed.

a)

100 mm

b)

150 mm

c)

200 mm

d)

250 mm

82.

The rate of application of Tack Coat by means of a pressure distributor of either the Rapid

Curing Cut-back or the Emulsified Asphalt shall be within the range of ___________.

a)

0.1 to 0.2 liter/square meter

b)

0.2 to 0.6 liter/square meter

c)

0.2 to 0.5 liter/square meter

d)

0.2 to 0.7 liter/square meter

83.

The required temperature for Hot-Mix Asphalt (HMA) mixture that shall be measured

in the truck prior to dumping into the spreader.

a)

107 degrees Centigrade

b)

109 degrees Centigrade

c)

108 degrees Centigrade

d)

110 degrees Centigrade

84.

Rolling/compaction of Hot-Mix Asphalt (HMA) mixture shall begin at the sides and proceeds

longitudinally parallel toward the road centerline, each trip overlapping ___ the roller width,

gradually progressing to the crown of the road.

a)

1/8

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

1/3

85.

The depth of the weakened plane joint should be at all times not less than _____ mm,

while the width should not be more than _____ mm.

a)

30 mm / 4 mm

b)

50 mm / 6 mm

c)

40 mm / 5 mm

d)

20 mm / 3 mm

86.

Sawing of the joint shall commence as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently to

permit sawing without excessive raveling. What is the required time the joints before

uncontrolled shrinkage cracking takes place.

a)

4 to 24 hours

b)

2 to 12 hours

c)

1 to 24 hours

d)

2 to 24 hours

87.

Transverse construction joint shall be constructed when there is an interruption of more

than 30 minutes in the concreting operations. At what point the transverse joint be

constructed within an expansion joint, contraction joint, or plane of weakness.

a)

1.00 meter

b)

1.50 meter

c)

2.50 meters

d)

3.00 meters

88.

Forms for concrete shall remain in place undisturbed for not less than how many hours

after concrete pouring.

a)

12 hours

b)

16 hours

c)

30 hours

d)

24 hours

89.

Joints shall be sealed soon after completion of the curing period and before the pavement

is opened to traffic. What is the required material to be used.

a)

Asphalt

b)

Asphalt Sealant

c)

Mortar

d)

Epoxy

90.

The brooming operation should be executed that the corrugations produced in the surface

shall be uniform in appearance. What is the required depth for such operation.

a)

1.0 mm

b)

1.5 mm

c)

2.0 mm

d)

2.5 mm

91.

For gabions and mattresses, what is the required range of rock sizes which shall be

generally uniformly graded and shall be evenly distributed.

a)

50 mm to 100 mm

b)

150 mm to 200 mm

c)

100 mm to 150 mm

d)

100 mm to 200 mm

92.

What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate

subbase course?

a)

± 20 mm

b)

± 10 mm

c)

± 30 mm

d)

± 15 mm

93.

What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate

base course?

a)

± 20 mm

b)

± 15 mm

c)

± 25 mm

d)

± 10 mm

94.

What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate

base course?

a)

± 20 mm

b)

± 15 mm

c)

± 25 mm

d)

± 10 mm

95.

The equivalent physical measurement used in the determination of the cost of

maintenance of our national roads and bridges and all its facilities is known as:

a)

lane kilometer

b)

equivalent kilometer unit

c)

equivalent maintenance kilometer

d)

standard kilometer unit

96.

The maintenance work, under vegetation control, the remaining height grasses and

shrubs should be left uncut is:

a)

50 mm

b)

100 mm

c)

200 mm

d)

400 mm

97.

Concrete class A mix used and deposited in water for footing construction shall

maintain a slump between:

a)

5 and 10 cm

b)

10 and 20 cm

c)

20 and 30 cm

d)

30 and 40 cm

98.

Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a

minimum period of how many days after it has been placed?

a)

28

b)

30

c)

14

d)

7

99.

As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject

to manual dropping by not more than __________ and where no other special tools

and means are used.

a)

3.0 m

b)

2.5 m

c)

2.0 m

d)

1.5 m

100.

What is the required minimum weight of the gravity hammer used in pile driving?

a)

2000 kg

b)

1500 kg

c)

1800 kg

d)

1700 kg