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Mod 9-11

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the variable amount of time it takes for a frame to traverse the links between the source and destination?

a)

Serialization delay

b)

Propagation delay

c)

Code delay

2.

What happens when congestion occurs?

a)

Packet loss

b)

Jitter

c)

Code delay

3.

What is the fixed amount of time it takes to transmit a frame from the NIC to the wire?

a)

Serialization delay

b)

Jitter

c)

Code delay

4.

What is caused by variation in delay?

a)

Congestion

b)

Packet loss

c)

Jitter

5.

Which type of traffic tends to consume a large portion of network capacity?

a)

Voice

b)

Video

c)

Data

6.

Which type of traffic requires at least 384 Kbs of bandwidth?

a)

Voice

b)

Video

c)

Data

7.

Which type of traffic is unpredictable, inconsistent, and bursty?

a)

Voice

b)

Video

c)

Data

8.

Which type of traffic can be predictable and smooth?

a)

Voice

b)

Video

c)

Data

9.

Which type of traffic cannot be retransmitted if lost?

a)

Voice

b)

Video

c)

Data

10.

Which type of traffic must receive a higher UDP priority?

a)

Voice

b)

Video

c)

Data

11.

Which queuing algorithm simultaneously schedules interactive traffic to the front of a queue to reduce response time?

a)

FIFO

b)

WFQ

c)

CBWFQ

d)

LLQ

12.

Which queuing algorithm provides support for user-defined traffic classes?

a)

FIFO

b)

WFQ

c)

CBWFQ

d)

LLQ

13.

Which queuing algorithm is effective for large links that have little delay and minimal congestion?

a)

FIFO

b)

WFQ

c)

CBWFQ

d)

LLQ

14.

Which queuing algorithm classifies traffic into different flows based on packet header addressing?

a)

FIFO

b)

WFQ

c)

CBWFQ

d)

LLQ

15.

Which queuing algorithm allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues?

a)

FIFO

b)

WFQ

c)

CBWFQ

d)

LLQ

16.

Which queuing algorithm applies priority, or weights, to identify traffic and classify it?

a)

FIFO

b)

WFQ

c)

CBWFQ

d)

LLQ

17.

Which QoS model provides per-request policy admission control?

a)

Best Effort

b)

Integrated services

c)

Differential services

18.

Which QoS model requires no special QoS mechanisms?

a)

Best effort

b)

Integrated services

c)

Differential services

19.

Which QoS model provides many different levels of quality?

a)

Best effort

b)

Integrated services

c)

Differential services

20.

Which QoS model uses explicit end-to-end resource admission control?

a)

Best effort

b)

Integrated services

c)

Differential services

21.

Which QoS model is the most scalable?

a)

Best effort

b)

Integrated services

c)

Differential service

22.

Which detects when traffic rates reach a configured maximum rate and drops excess traffic?

a)

Traffic policing

b)

Traffic shaping

c)

Classification

23.

Which determines what class of traffic packets or frames belong to.

a)

Marking

b)

Classification

c)

Traffic shaping

24.

Which adds a value to the packet header?

a)

Marking

b)

Classification

c)

802.1Q

25.

Which provides buffer management and allows TCP traffic to throttle back before buffers are exhausted?

a)

Traffic policing

b)

802.1Q

c)

WRED

26.

Which retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time?

a)

WRED

b)

Traffic policing

c)

Traffic shaping

27.

What is the term used to indicate a variation of delay?

a)

Latency

b)

Speed mismatch

c)

Serialization delay

d)

Jitter

28.

A network engineer performs a ping test and receives a value that shows the time it takes for a packet to travel from a source to a destination device and return. Which term describes the value?

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Latency

c)

Priority

d)

Jitter

29.

What role do network devices play in the IntServ QoS model?

a)

Network devices provide a best-effort approach to forwarding traffic

b)

Network devices ensure that resources are available before traffic is allowed to be sent by a host through the network

c)

Network devices are configured to service multiple classes of traffic and handle traffic as it may arrive

d)

Network devices use QoS on a hop-by-hop basis to provide excellent scalability

30.

Which device would be classified as a trusted endpoint?

a)

Switch

b)

Firewall

c)

Router

d)

IP phone

31.

Under which condition does congestion occur on a converged network with voice, video, and data traffic?

a)

If video traffic requests more bandwidth than voice traffic requests

b)

If a user downloads a file that exceeds the file limitation that is set on the server

c)

If the request for bandwidth exceeds the amount of bandwidth available

d)

If voice traffic latency begins to decrease across the network

32.

Which type of traffic does Cisco recommend be placed in the strict priority queue (PQ) when low latency queuing (LLQ) is being used?

a)

Management

b)

Voice

c)

Data

d)

Video

33.

Which model is the only QoS model with no mechanism to classify packets?

a)

IntServ

b)

DiffServ

c)

hard QoS

d)

Best-effort

34.

What happens when the memory queue of a device fills up and new network traffic is received?

a)

The network device sends the received traffic immediately

b)

The network device drops all traffic in the queue

c)

The network device will drop the arriving packets

d)

The network device queues the received traffic while sending previously received traffic

35.

What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)

a)

It is sensitive to packet loss

b)

It is bursty

c)

it can tolerate latency up to 400 ms

d)

It consumes few network resources

e)

It is delay sensitive

36.

Which QoS model is very resource intensive and provides the highest guarantee of QoS?

a)

Soft QoS

b)

IntServ

c)

DiffServ

d)

Best-effort

37.

What happens when an edge router using IntServ QoS determines that the data pathway cannot support the level of QoS requested?

a)

Data is forwarded along the pathway using best-effort approach

b)

Data is forward along the pathway using DiffServ

c)

Data is forwarded along the pathway using IntServ but not provided preferential treatment

d)

Data is not forwarded along the pathway

38.

In QoS models, which type of traffic is commonly provided the most preferential treatment over all other application traffic?

a)

Voice traffic

b)

Email

c)

File transfers

d)

Web traffic

39.

Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

a)

CBWFQ

b)

FIFO

c)

FCFS

d)

WFQ

40.

What mechanism compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then replaying them outbound in a steady stream?

a)

Playout delay buffer

b)

WFQ

c)

Voice codec

d)

Digital signal processor

41.

Which protocol is used to gather information about Cisco devices which share the same data link?

a)

CDP

b)

LLDP

42.

Which protocol works with network devices, such as routers, switches, and wireless LAN access points across multiple manufacturers’ devices?

a)

CDP

b)

LLDP

43.

Which SNMP version authenticates the source of management messages?

a)

Version 2

b)

Version 3

c)

Both

44.

Which SNMP version provides services for security models?

a)

Version 2

b)

Version 3

c)

Both

45.

Which SNMP version does not provide encrypted management messages?

a)

Version 2

b)

Version 3

c)

Both

46.

Which SNMP version is supported by Cisco IOS software?

a)

Version 2

b)

Version 3

c)

Both

47.

Which SNMP version includes expanded error codes with types?

a)

Version 2

b)

Version 3

c)

Both

48.

Which SNMP version uses community-based forms of security?

a)

Version 2

b)

Version 3

c)

Both

49.

Which SNMP version is used for interoperability and includes message integrity reporting?

a)

Version 2

b)

Version 3

c)

Both

50.

*Jun 12 17:46:01.619: %IFMGR-7-NO_IFINDEX_FILE: Unable to open
nvram:/ifIndex-table No such file or directory

Refer to the syslog output. What security level generated the message?

a)

Error

b)

Informational

c)

Warning

d)

Debugging

51.

*Jun 12 17:46:01.619: %IFMGR-7-NO_IFINDEX_FILE: Unable to open
nvram:/ifIndex-table No such file or directory

Refer to the syslog output. What is the mnemonic for this syslog message?

a)

IFMGR

b)

Unable to open nvram

c)

NO_IFINDEX_FILE

d)

IfIndex-table

52.

*Jun 12 17:46:01.619: %IFMGR-7-NO_IFINDEX_FILE: Unable to open
nvram:/ifIndex-table No such file or directory

Refer to the syslog output. What is the syslog reporting facility?

a)

IFMGR

b)

NO_IFINDEX_FILE

c)

IFMGR-7

d)

IfIndex-table

53.

What are two reasons for an administrator to issue the copy running-config tftp command on a switch or router? (Choose two.)

a)

To save the running configuration file to a remote location

b)

To force an automatic reload of the device

c)

To overwrite the current configuration

d)

To have a backup of the running configuration file in the router

e)

To transfer the current configuration file to a server

54.

What information can be gathered about a neighbor device from the show cdp neighbors detail command that cannot be found with the show cdp neighbors command?

a)

The capabilities of the neighbors

b)

The IP address of the neighbor

c)

The platform that is used by the neighbor

d)

The hostname of the neighbor

55.

When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

a)

Source validation

b)

Message integrity

c)

Community strings

d)

Packet encryption

56.

What command must be issued on a Cisco router that will serve as an authoritative NTP server?

a)

Ntp master 1

b)

Ntp server 172.16.0.1

c)

Clock set 11:00:00 DEC 20 2010

d)

Ntp broadcast client

57.

Which protocol or service can be configured to send unsolicited messages to alert the network administrator about a network event such as an extremely high CPU utilization on a router?

a)

Netflow

b)

NTP

c)

Syslog

d)

SNMP

58.

Which statement describes a syslog message severity level?

a)

Severity level 0 is the most critical severity level

b)

A syslog alarm with a severity level of 7 indicates an emergency situation that can render the system unusable

c)

A severity level 7 message is only accessible through the terminal line

d)

A syslog alarm at the severity level 4 and higher is sent to an external syslog server by default

59.

What is an SNMP management agent?

a)

A computer loaded with management software and used by an administrator to monitor a network

b)

A database that a device keeps about network performance

c)

Software that is installed on devices managed by SNMP

d)

A communication protocol that is used by SNMP

60.

What are two characteristics of SNMP community strings? (Choose two.)

a)

SNMP read-only community strings can be used to get information from an SNMP-enabled device

b)

Commonly known community strings should be used when configured secure SNMP

c)

If the manager sends one of the correct read-only community strings, it can get information and set information in an agent

d)

SNMP read-write community strings can be used to set information on an SNMP-enabled device

e)

A vulnerability of SNMPv1, SNMPv2, and SNMPv3 is that they send the community strings in plaintext

61.

A network administrator issues the copy tftp running-config command on a router. What is the administrator trying to achieve?

a)

Copy the configuration file from the NVRAM of the router to the TFTP server

b)

Copy the configuration file from the TFTP server to the RAM of the router

c)

Copy the configuration file from the TFTP server to the NVRAM of the router

d)

Copy the configuration file the RAM of the router to the TFTP server

62.

What is a characteristic of the MIB?

a)

Information in the MIB cannot be changed

b)

The OIDs are organized in a hierarchical structure

c)

A separate MIB tree exists for any given device in the network

d)

Information is organized in a flat manner so that SNMP can access it quickly

63.

What data would be saved and where would the data be placed if a network administrator issued the following command? (Choose two.)

a)

The data will be saved in NVRAM

b)

The data will be saved in RAM

c)

The data to be saved is the configuration that is being modified in RAM

d)

The data to be saved is the configuration that is stored in NVRAM

e)

The data will be saved to a TFTP server

64.

Which command would a network engineer use to restore the IOS image c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin to a router?

a)

copy flash0: tftp:

b)

copy tftp: flash0:

c)

copy flash0: c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin

d)

copy c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin tftp:

65.

Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

a)

To display device ID and other information about directly connected cisco devices

b)

To display routing table and other information about directly connected cisco devices

c)

To display line status and other information about directly connected cisco devices

d)

To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

66.

What are SNMP trap messages?

a)

Messages that are sent periodically by the NMS to the SNMP agents that reside on managed devices to query the device for data

b)

Messages that are used by the NMS to query the device for data

c)

Unsolicited messages that are sent by the SNMP agent and alert the NMS to a condition on the network

d)

Messages that are used by the NMS to change configuration variables in the agent device

67.

Which term is used to describe a network that is always accessible?

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Modular

c)

Resilient

d)

Flexible

68.

Which characteristic of a network allows it to expand and provide on-demand services?

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Modular

c)

Resilient

d)

Flexible

69.

Which term describes the ability of a network to use all available network resources and to provide data load sharing?

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Modular

c)

Resilient

d)

Flexible

70.

Which network layer provides fault isolation and high-speed backbone switch connectivity?

a)

Core

b)

Distribution

c)

Access

71.

Which network layer provides direct, switched network connectivity to the user?

a)

Core

b)

Distribution

c)

Access

72.

Which network layer integrates with the backbone and users to provide intelligent switching, routing, and security?

a)

Core

b)

Distribution

c)

Access

73.

Which three recommendations may be included in a network design strategy that is focused on scalability? (Choose three.)

a)

Design a hierarchical network

b)

Use layer 2 devices to filter and reduce network traffic in the core

c)

Choose routers or multilayer switches to limit broadcasts and filter other undesirable traffic from the network

d)

Use expandable, modular equipment, or clustered devices that can be easily upgraded to increase capabilities

e)

Combine the access the distribution layer for easier access and limit the size of the failure domain

74.

True or false? OSPF is well-suited for larger networks because it can be deployed using a hierarchical design.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

What are three important features that should be considered for implementation in a well-designed, scalable network? (Choose three.)

a)

Static routes

b)

Redundant links

c)

Multiple links

d)

Access layer with only wired devices

e)

Expandable, modular equipment

76.

Which category of switch is used to aggregate traffic at the edge of the network?

a)

Campus LAN switches

b)

Cloud-managed switches

c)

Service provider switches

d)

Data center switches

77.

Field replaceable line cards are a feature found on which type of switch?

a)

Modular

b)

Fixed configuration

c)

Virtual

d)

Stackable

78.

This is the term used to describe switches that can be interconnected and managed as one larger single switch.

a)

Modular

b)

Stackable

c)

Cloud-managed

d)

Multilayer

79.

This is the term used to describe the number of ports available on a single switch.

a)

Speed

b)

Scalability

c)

Density

d)

Modularity

80.

This is the term used to describe how much data a switch can process per second.

a)

Forwarding rate

b)

Power

c)

Reliability

d)

Wire speed

81.

Which type of switch supports routing protocols and can forward IP packets at close to Layer 2 forwarding rates?

a)

Modular

b)

Stackable

c)

Cloud-managed

d)

Multilayer

82.

This type of router provides fast performance with high security for data centers, campus, and branch networks.

a)

Branch routers

b)

Network edge routers

c)

Service provider routers

d)

Industrial routers

83.

This type of router provides end-to-end delivery of subscriber services.

a)

Branch routers

b)

Network edge routers

c)

Service provider routers

d)

Industrial routers

84.

This type of router provides simple network configuration and management for LANs and WANs.

a)

Branch routers

b)

Network edge routers

c)

Service provider routers

d)

Industrial routers

85.

This type of router is designed to provide enterprise-class features in rugged and harsh environments.

a)

Branch routers

b)

Network edge routers

c)

Service provider routers

d)

Industrial routers

86.

This type of router delivers next-generation internet experience across all devices and locations.

a)

Branch routers

b)

Network edge routers

c)

Service provider routers

d)

Industrial routers

87.

Which cost-effective physical network topology design is recommended when building a three-tier campus network that connects three buildings?​

a)

Extended star

b)

Dual ring

c)

Bus

d)

Mesh

88.

How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch capable of switching when operating at full wire speed?  

a)

1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time

b)

48 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port

c)

44 Gb/s, due to overhead requirements

d)

24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on cisco switches

89.

What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?

a)

Failure domain

b)

Broadcast domain

c)

User domain

d)

Collision domain

90.

Which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?

a)

Network edge routers

b)

Service provider routers

c)

Modular routers

d)

Branch routers

91.

Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

a)

The use of the building switch block approach

b)

the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume

c)

The use of a collapsed core design

d)

The installation of redundant power supplies

92.

What is a function of the distribution layer?

a)

Interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

b)

High-speed backbone connectivity

c)

Fault Isolation

d)

Network access to the user

93.

What is the function of PoE pass-through?

a)

Allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of layer 2 switching by bypassing the CPU

b)

Allows a switch to disable redundant layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent layer 2 loops

c)

Allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links

d)

Allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing Ethernet cables from an upstream which

94.

Which function is supplied by the access layer in a three-layer network design?

a)

Network access

b)

Backbone connectivity

c)

High-speed connectivity

d)

Routing

95.

Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

a)

Purchase backup equipment for every network device at the distribution layer

b)

Add alternate physical paths for data t traverse the network

c)

Immediately replace a nonfunctioning module, service, or device on a network

d)

Implement STP PortFast between the switches on the network

96.

What is a collapsed core in a network design?

a)

A combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers

b)

A combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers

c)

A combination of the functionality of the access and core layers

d)

A combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers

97.

What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?

a)

Access

b)

Network access

c)

Data link

d)

Core

e)

Network

98.

Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

a)

Virtual private networks

b)

Virtual LANs

c)

Link aggregation

d)

Spanning tree protocol

99.

Which feature could be used in a network design to increase the bandwidth by combining multiple physical links into a single logical link?  

a)

Trunk ports

b)

EtherChannel

c)

Subinterfaces

d)

VLANs

100.

Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

a)

They are modular switches

b)

They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.

c)

They are best used as distribution layer switches

d)

New cisco catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through

101.

Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

a)

Implementing routing protocols

b)

Implementing wireless connectivity

c)

Implementing EtherChannel

d)

Implementing redundancy