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Pharmacology Fall Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 established which agency?

a)

NDC

b)

DEA

c)

FDA

d)

USP

2.

Each drug is given a ___________ number to identify the manufacturer, the drug, and the package size.

a)

FDA

b)

USP

c)

DEA

d)

NDC

3.

Drug standards regulate which factors in drug preparation?

a)

strength, quality, purity

b)

fillers, color, taste

c)

color, taste, quality

d)

quality, fillers, taste

4.

The Pure Food and Drug Act

a)

requires warning labels on certain medications

b)

sets limitations on prescription use

c)

establishes consumer protection

d)

was passed in 1976

5.

The Food and Drug Administration regulates

a)

prescriber registration

b)

creation of drug schedules

c)

prescription labeling

d)

establishment of drug regulations

6.

Controlled substances include

a)

Digoxin and Tylenol

b)

Benadryl and Cardizem

c)

Ampicillin and Ibuprofen

d)

Valium and Marijuana

7.

What was the USP/NF (U.S. Pharmacopeia/National Formulary) established to do?

a)

Provide a reference for all officially approved medications

b)

Legalize the manufacture of medications

c)

Give the public the information needed to safely make their own drugs

d)

Help providers make clinical judgement

8.

Controlled drugs

a)

are listed by schedule

b)

have no limitations on refills

c)

do not cause dependence

d)

are available over the counter

9.

A good source of drug information is

a)

news magazines

b)

your colleagues

c)

social networks

d)

PDR

10.

Why is Tall Man Lettering used?

a)

It looks appealing to customers.

b)

It highlights differences in sound-alike medications.

c)

It adds confusion.

d)

It helps patients spell the drug names.

11.

The generic name of a drug is

a)

assigned by the drug company

b)

written in capital letters

c)

the common name

d)

the same as the trade name is a common name

12.

The term OTC refers to drugs that

a)

are often controlled

b)

require a prescription

c)

are sold over the counter

d)

are officially certified

13.

Two conditions commonly listed as contraindications for drug administration are

a)

obesity and glaucoma

b)

hypersensitivity and pregnancy

c)

psychosis and seizures

d)

glaucoma and anemia

14.

Before giving a new drug, you must know

a)

its absorption rate

b)

the distribution process it will follow

c)

its excretion rate

d)

its indication for use and side effects

15.

An antibiotic with photosensitivity listed as a side effect could cause

a)

deafness

b)

sunburn

c)

blindness

d)

kidney damage

16.

The initial high dose to quickly elevate drug levels is the

a)

loading dose

b)

maintenance dose

c)

maximum dose

d)

therapeutic dose

17.

Which route is used when only a local effect is desired?

a)

injection

b)

transdermal

c)

oral

d)

otic

18.

An accumulation of a normal drug dosage can best be explained by what pharmacokinetic change?

a)

increase in metabolism

b)

increase in excretion

c)

decrease in metabolism

d)

decrease in absorption

19.

Which of the following describes the study of what a patient experiences after taking a drug, including the intended therapeutics effects, unintended therapeutics effects, or unintended side effects?

a)

Pharmacotherapeutics

b)

Pharmacodynamics

c)

Pharmaceutics

d)

Pharmacokinetics

20.

Patient characteristics affect the processing of drugs in the body. Two of these characteristics are

a)

hair color and gender

b)

skin color and mental status

c)

ethnicity and age

d)

weight and age

21.

Drug toxicity from cumulative effects may result from

a)

intracranial pressure

b)

glaucoma

c)

kidney malfunction

d)

high blood pressure

22.

Idiosyncrasy means

a)

an opposite effect from that expected

b)

an allergic response to a drug

c)

a unique, unusual, and unexpected response to a drug

d)

having an effect from a drug as the result of suggestion

23.

The route of administration most often used is

a)

topical

b)

sublingual

c)

injection

d)

oral

24.

Which of the following routes has the slowest absorption?

a)

intradermal

b)

intramuscular

c)

subcutaneous

d)

intravenous

25.

What is the term for a drug form that comes in many types, shapes, and colors and is a compressed disk of drug?

a)

Lozenge

b)

Syrup

c)

Tablet

d)

Enteric-coated tablet

26.

A form of parenteral administration is

a)

nasogastric tube

b)

injection

c)

oral

d)

rectal

27.

A type of medication that can be crushed and mixed with food to facilitate administration is

a)

time-release capsule

b)

lozenge

c)

scored tablet

d)

enteric-coated tablet

28.

Which angle is used to administer an intramuscular injection?

a)

90 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

15 degrees

d)

10 degrees

29.

Topical administration includes which of the following?

a)

nebulizer

b)

cream

c)

sublingual

d)

inhalation

30.

The most rapid form of administration is

a)

PO

b)

IV

c)

IM

d)

subcut

31.

The least accurate system for measuring medication is

a)

metric

b)

apothecary

c)

household

d)

standard

32.

The most frequently used system for measuring medicine is

a)

apothecary

b)

metric

c)

household

d)

standard

33.

Medication orders must contain

a)

patient’s address

b)

alternate drugs

c)

physician’s address

d)

drug name, dosage, and route

34.

The prescription blank for a controlled substance must contain

a)

name of the drug company

b)

physician’s DEA number

c)

physician’s address

d)

lot number of the drug

35.

Which is the correct conversion for 75 kg?

a)

150 pounds

b)

34 pounds

c)

165 pounds

d)

37.5 pounds

36.

The least accurate type of equipment for measuring medicine is a

a)

medicine cup

b)

calibrated utensil

c)

tablespoon

d)

Syringe

37.

What is the first step in dosage calculation?

a)

Write the problem in equation form.

b)

Determine whether an easier dosage is possible.

c)

Check to see whether all the units are in the same system of measurement.

d)

Identify the age of the patient to make pediatric adjustments if needed.

38.

What should you remember when calculating dosages?

a)

Close enough is good enough if there is no alternative.

b)

Using good judgment is important if you must make substitutions.

c)

There is no acceptable margin of error in medication dosage calculation and administration.

d)

The math involved is complex and requires a high level of aptitude.

39.

A trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole suspension contains 40 mg/5 mL. The order is for 120 mg. If you use the ratio and proportion method, how should the formula be set up?

a)

120 mg : 40 mg = 5 mL : X mL.

b)

40 mg : X mL = 120 mg : 5 mL

c)

5 mL : 120 mg : 40 mg : X mL.

d)

40 mg : 5 mL = 120 mg : X mL

40.

What should you remember about calculating dosages for children?

a)

The physiology of children is virtually the same as that of adults.

b)

You can typically give half of the adult dose safely.

c)

Children are essentially miniature adults.

d)

The pediatric dosages in drug inserts are a good resource.

41.

Evaluation of the appropriateness of dosages for elderly persons should ____.

a)

reflect reimbursement requirements

b)

be based on the clinician's experience

c)

rely on the information on the drug insert

d)

be done on an individual basis

42.

The order is for Darvon 130 mg q6h prn pain. The bottle containing Darvon capsules is labeled 65 mg/capsule. How many capsules per dose?

a)

1 cap

b)

6 caps

c)

2 caps.

d)

3 caps

43.

Which of the following can lead to serious cumulative effects in older adults?

a)

Slower metabolism

b)

Faster circulation

c)

Better nutrition

d)

Better digestion

44.

Responsibilities of the health care professional in drug administration include

a)

assessing and evaluating patients

b)

checking the order for accuracy

c)

reporting adverse patient outcomes

d)

all the above

45.

Which of the following is a requirement for safe and accurate administration of medications?

a)

Knowing the least expensive pharmacy from which the medication may be purchased

b)

Recognizing the medication by color

c)

Having adequate, up-to-date information, including purpose and potential side effects

d)

Recognizing the medication by shape

46.

After administering medication, you should

a)

inform the patient’s family

b)

document drugs administered

c)

complete additional treatments ordered

d)

administer drugs to the next patient

47.

The most helpful patient information to know when administering medication is

a)

patient’s residence

b)

patient’s disabilities

c)

patient’s health history, including allergies

d)

patient’s occupation

48.

If a medication error is made, once the patient is cared for you should

a)

immediately report the error to the physician

b)

file an incident report

c)

note the error on the patient record

d)

apologize to the patient

49.

Before giving any medicine, it is essential to review the Rights of Medication Administration, including

a)

right medication and right amount

b)

right physician and DEA number

c)

right drug company

d)

right drug lot

50.

Documentation of a controlled drug given PRN for pain requires

a)

review of pharmacy delivery record

b)

re-evaluation of effectiveness

c)

note of the trade name

d)

review of the physician’s comments

51.

Administration by the gastrointestinal route includes which of the following?

a)

PEG tube

b)

oral inhaler

c)

transdermal patch

d)

eye drops

52.

An advantage of the oral route over other routes is that it

a)

absorbs the most quickly

b)

is the best route to treat emergencies

c)

is economical, with few equipment costs

d)

can be used for all patients all the time

53.

If a medication is ordered PO and the patient is NPO, you should

a)

give the medication by injection

b)

give the medication rectally

c)

omit the medication and note on the chart

d)

consult the person in charge

54.

Which of these refers to difficulty swallowing?

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Retention enema

c)

NG tube

d)

Aspiration

55.

Oral medications are usually best administered with

a)

fruit juice

b)

milk

c)

water

d)

hot tea

56.

When preparing the proper dosage of cough syrup, you should

a)

shake the bottle

b)

dilute with liquid

c)

hold the bottle with the label side down

d)

hold the medicine cup at eye level

57.

When administering a rectal suppository, you should

a)

assist the patient to self-administer

b)

provide privacy and use disposable gloves

c)

turn the patient onto the right side

d)

warm the suppository under warm water

58.

The parenteral route least likely to be used for systemic effects is

a)

transdermal

b)

topical

c)

sublingual

d)

inhalation

59.

The route with the slowest action is

a)

transcutaneous

b)

inhalation

c)

sublingual

d)

injection

60.

After instilling eye drops, you should

a)

rub the eyelid vigorously

b)

press on the inner canthus

c)

close the eyelid quickly

d)

discard the eyedropper

61.

Which of the following is not true for intramuscular injections?

a)

pinch the skin

b)

administer at a 45-degree angle of needle

c)

use a 16-inch needle for most patients

d)

always administer Z-track for medications that are irritating to tissue

62.

Which of the following IM injection sites is most commonly used for immunizations?

a)

dorso gluteal

b)

vastus lateralis

c)

ventrogluteal

d)

deltoid

63.

Which of the following is the IV route used for?

a)

correct body fluid imbalances

b)

administer blood

c)

administer medications

d)

all of the above

64.

How many types of IV administration are there?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

65.

A self-administered inhalational device that utilizes a propellant to deliver the medication is a(an)

a)

DPI

b)

SVN

c)

MDI

d)

PEG

66.

If a 2-year-old accidentally swallows several children’s aspirin tablets, you should

a)

administer ipecac

b)

give activated charcoal

c)

call Poison Control

d)

give 8 oz of milk

67.

If there is doubt about the type of poison ingested by an individual, toxicology tests will be done on body fluids, including

a)

tears and saliva

b)

blood and urine

c)

stool and emesis

d)

emesis and tears

68.

The groups at greatest risk of accidental poisoning are

a)

young children and older adults

b)

adolescents and healthy adults

c)

healthy adults and adults with disabilities

d)

adolescents and dementia patients

69.

Which substance minimizes systemic absorption of ingested poison?

a)

Antidote

b)

Antivenom

c)

Emetic

d)

Activated charcoal

70.

What is the number for Poison Control in the United States?

a)

1-800-222-1222

b)

1-800-866-9666

c)

1-800-867-5309

d)

1-800-111-1111

71.

In case of suspected poisoning, the best policy is to _____.

a)

induce vomiting

b)

transport the patient to a licensed health care provider

c)

contact the Poison Control Center directly

d)

wait until the patient exhibits signs of poisoning

72.

Prevention is the key to preventing harm and death from poisoning. Key to prevention is

a)

legislation

b)

oversight

c)

regulation

d)

public education

73.

Vitamin C aids in the absorption of

a)

protein

b)

iron

c)

fat

d)

Zinc

74.

Antioxidants

a)

are safe to take in megadoses

b)

consist of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats

c)

are found only in synthetic products

d)

fight against the destructive effects of free radicals

75.

Signs of a vitamin A deficiency may include which of the following?

a)

watery eyes

b)

night blindness

c)

weight gain

d)

accelerated growth

76.

Which of the following herbs can interact with anticoagulants to cause bleeding?

a)

cranberry and milk thistle

b)

garlic and ginkgo

c)

saw palmetto and glucosamine

d)

ginseng and echinacea

77.

Identify the vitamin synthesized in the body through the action of sunlight on the skin and found in fortified food products.

a)

A

b)

B-complex

c)

C

d)

D

78.

Which vitamin is necessary for metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, protein, and amino acids?

a)

A

b)

B₆

c)

C

d)

D

79.

What is one side effect of taking an iron preparation?

a)

blood-tinged stools

b)

brown stools

c)

white stools

d)

black stools

80.

Which side effect may occur after prolonged use of a corticosteroid cream?

a)

hyperglycemia

b)

epidermal thinning with frequent skin tears

c)

immunodeficiency disorders

d)

systemic viral infection

81.

Which type of preparation is used topically to soothe the skin and seal out wetness from diaper rash?

a)

keratolytics

b)

antipruritics

c)

protectants

d)

Enzymatics

82.

Contraindications and precautions for the use of isotretinoins include which of the following?

a)

Type 4 acne

b)

Children under age 6 years

c)

Use of birth control pills

d)

Absolute contraindication in pregnancy

83.

What are keratolytic agents used for?

a)

Loosening epithelial scales

b)

Protecting or soothing minor dermatological conditions

c)

Killing bacteria

d)

Promoting removal of necrotic tissue

84.

Antiseptics are substances that perform which of the following actions?

a)

They inhibit the growth of bacteria

b)

They assist with the chemical debridement of tissue

c)

They enhance the growth of healthy skin flora

d)

They inhibit the replication of a virus

85.

What is an antipruritic?

a)

Substance used to treat dermatological disorders associated with allergic reactions

b)

Substance used to treat viral conditions

c)

Substance used to control conditions caused by fungi

d)

Substance used to relieve itching

86.

A common topical antifungal medication used for athlete’s foot would be

a)

clotrimazole

b)

betamethasone

c)

mupirocin

d)

povidone–iodine

87.

Which of the following is an adrenergic property?

a)

Peripheral vasoconstriction

b)

Increasing blood pressure

c)

Increased secretion

d)

Capillary constriction

88.

Which of the following are indications for adrenergic blockers?

a)

Restoration of cardiac rhythm and dilation of bronchioles

b)

Treatment of hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia, and angina pectoris

c)

Treatment of nonobstructive urinary retention and open-angle glaucoma

d)

Cholinergic crisis and treatment of bronchospasm

89.

Which of the following are actions of cholinergics?

a)

Increased blood pressure, pulse, and respirations, and dilated bronchioles and pupils

b)

Decreased blood pressure and pulse

c)

Increased peristalsis and bladder contractions, decreased respiratory rate, constricted pupils, and decreased intraocular pressure

d)

Drying of secretions, decreased motility of the GI and GU systems, dilated pupils, and increased heart rate

90.

Drugs that mimic the action of the sympathetic nervous system are known as

a)

adrenergics

b)

cardiogenics

c)

adrenergic blockers

d)

cholinergics

91.

You are incredibly excited about an upcoming trip to Asia but are dreading the lengthy flight because you suffer from terrible motion sickness. A friend suggests that you "get the patch" to prevent motion sickness. What category of drug is likely to be in the patch?

a)

Cholinergic

b)

Anticholinergic

c)

Adrenergic blocker

d)

Adrenergic

92.

Adrenergics should be used with caution in patients with

a)

hypotension

b)

angina

c)

asthma

d)

diabetes

93.

Cholinergic blockers would most likely cause which of the following side effects?

a)

hypotension

b)

photosensitivity

c)

dry mouth and constipation

d)

enhanced vision

94.

Which of the following is critical to monitor prior to administering digoxin?

a)

blood pressure

b)

radial pulse rate

c)

apical heart rate

d)

respiratory rate

95.

Digoxin taken in conjunction with what type of medications can increase the chance of arrhythmias?

a)

antacids

b)

macrolides

c)

benzodiazepines

d)

diuretics

96.

Which antiarrhythmic may cause tachycardia?

a)

procainamide

b)

adenosine

c)

verapamil

d)

metoprolol

97.

Which medication could be used to replace an ACE inhibitor when a patient has problems with a dry cough as a side effect?

a)

losartan

b)

metoprolol

c)

digoxin

d)

atorvastatin

98.

The most effective and most commonly used antilipemic medications are called

a)

bile acid sequestrants

b)

statins

c)

nicotinic acids

d)

fibrates

99.

Warfarin is monitored with what laboratory method?

a)

complete blood work with differential

b)

LH levels

c)

TSH levels

d)

INR

100.

Clopidogrel should not be taken with which of the following medications?

a)

OTC Zantac

b)

OTC aspirin

c)

OTC Prilosec

d)

OTC Pepcid