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Quiz on Subatomic Particles and Atomic Structure

Total questions: 191

Worksheet time: 4hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The principal quantum number (n=1, n=2, etc.) indicates what property of an electron?

a)

position

b)

speed

c)

energy level

d)

electron cloud shape

2.

Isotopes of the same element have different ______.

a)

numbers of neutrons

b)

numbers of protons

c)

numbers of electrons

d)

atomic numbers

3.

How does the equation below explain the relationship between atomic mass and relative abundance of isotopes?

a)

To calculate the atomic mass of an element, first, the masses of the isotopes are averaged. This average is then divided by 100.

b)

To calculate the atomic mass of an element, first, the relative abundance of each isotope is expressed as a percentage and summed. This total is then divided by 100.

c)

To calculate the atomic mass of an element, the mass of each isotope is multiplied by its relative abundance which has first been divided by 100 (2 decimal places). The results for each isotope are added together.

d)

To calculate the atomic mass of an element, first, the masses of the isotopes of that element are expressed as percentages and multiplied by the relative abundance. The results for each isotope are added together.

4.

How are the frequency and wavelength of light related?

a)

They are inversely proportional to each other.

b)

Frequency equals wavelength divided by the speed of light.

c)

Wavelength is determined by dividing frequency by the speed of light.

d)

They are directly proportional to each other.

5.

When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the electron ______________.

a)

absorbs a quantum of energy

b)

moves closer to the nucleus

c)

always doubles its energy

d)

absorbs a continuously variable amount of energy

e)

emits a photon

6.

Which of the following equals one atomic mass unit?

a)

the mass of one electron

b)

the mass of one helium-4 atom

c)

the mass of one carbon-12 atom

d)

one-twelfth the mass of one carbon-12 atom

7.

Which student’s model best illustrates an electron moving from the ground to an excited state?

a)

Student A

b)

Student B

c)

Student C

d)

Student D

8.

Where does nuclear fusion commonly occur?

a)

In the Earth's core

b)

In the sun

c)

In nuclear reactors

d)

In chemical laboratories

9.

Does every electron in an atom have the same amount of energy?

a)

Yes

b)

No

10.

What is the atomic mass of chlorine?

a)

35.45

b)

36.45

c)

37.45

d)

34.45

11.

What happens to the energy of an electron when it moves to a lower energy level?

a)

It absorbs a photon.

b)

It emits a photon.

c)

It remains the same.

d)

It doubles its energy.

12.

Which of the following particles is found in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Neutrino

b)

Electron

c)

Photon

d)

Proton

13.

What is the primary factor that determines the chemical properties of an element?

a)

The atomic mass

b)

The number of neutrons

c)

The number of protons

d)

The number of valence electrons

14.

What is the charge of a proton?

a)

Variable

b)

Positive

c)

Negative

d)

Neutral

15.

Which of the following particles is negatively charged?

a)

Electron

b)

Photon

c)

Neutron

d)

Proton

16.

What is the primary component of the sun's energy production?

a)

Nuclear fusion

b)

Gravitational contraction

c)

Nuclear fission

d)

Chemical reactions

17.
This particle is found in the nucleus and has no charge
a)
Neutron
b)
Proton
c)
Electron
18.

What is a major limitation [flaw] of JJ Thomson's plum pudding model of the atom?

a)

Incorrectly shows where electrons are located

b)

Atoms contain negative particles that can be removed by electricity.

c)

If atoms contain negatively charged particles, then there must be a positive charge to balance it.

d)

The model demonstrated that atoms were not simple solid spheres.

19.

Place the following atomic models in order from first to last

A) Rutherford / Nuclear

B) Thomson / Plum-pudding or watermelon

C) Dalton / solid ball

D) Bohr / planetary

a)

B,C,A,D

b)

C,A,D,B

c)

D,A,,B,C

d)

C,B,A,D

20.

Which choice provides the BEST description of a merit [something good] about the Bohr model of the atom?

a)

Electrons do not actually orbit the nucleus like planets.

b)

Electrons occupy "shells" that are different distances from the nucleus.

c)

The atom is mostly empty space.

d)

The atom has a nucleus with a positive charge.

21.
What does the nucleus of an atom contain?
a)
Electrons and neutrons
b)
Protons and neutrons
c)

Protons and electrons

d)

DNA and RNA

22.

What is a major flaw with the planetary [Bohr] model of the atom?

a)

The Bohr model does not help explain light emission.

b)

Electrons occupy distinct areas different distances from the nucleus.

c)

Electrons do not actually "orbit" the nucleus like planets around the sun.

d)

The model does not account for all three subatomic particles.

23.
True or False: The majority of an atom is made up of empty space
a)
True
b)
False
24.

What element is pictured in this model?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Boron

c)

Beryllium

d)

Arsenic

25.

The atomic number for Oxygen is 8, so

a)

a neutral atom would have 8 electrons and 8 protons

b)

the number of neutrons is 8

c)

the mass of the atom is 8

d)

oxygen always has a full valance shell of electrons

26.

What is NOT true about this atom?

a)

It is an isotope of copper.

b)

There are 29 neutrons in the nucleus.

c)

There are 34 neutrons in the nucleus.

d)

The atom has a mass of 63 amu (atomic mass units).

27.

What process is occurring in the image?

a)

nuclear fission

b)

extension of half-life

c)

radioactive decay

d)

nuclear fusion

28.

What is the mass number of the helium isotope shown?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

4.0026

29.

What is NOT true about this isotope of krypton?

a)

The mass number of Krypton is 84.

b)

Krypton is a noble gas [group 18].

c)

There are 48 neutrons in the nucleus. [84-36]

d)

The mass number of Krypton is 120 [84 + 36].

30.

What is the atomic number of phosphorus?

a)

17

b)

31

c)

30.97

d)

15

31.

Estimate the average atomic mass of chlorine if these isotopes are the only two in nature?

a)

35

b)

35.5

c)

36

d)

36.5

e)

37

32.

How many electrons does a calcium ion with a 2+ charge have?

a)

20

b)

22

c)

18

d)

40.08

33.

John is a scientist studying oxygen atoms. He found an oxygen atom with 10 neutrons in its nucleus. What is the mass number of this oxygen atom?

a)

16

b)

10

c)

8

d)

18

34.

Potassium-39 has how many neutrons?

a)

19

b)

18

c)

20

d)

21

35.
What do these isotopes of carbon all have in common?
a)
neutrons & mass number
b)
atomic number and neutrons
c)
atomic number and electrons
d)
protons, atomic number, and mass number
36.
How many protons does this isotope of titanium have?
a)
48
b)
22
c)
26
d)
70
37.

If X is the symbol for an element, which of the following two symbols represent isotopes of the same element?

I. 7735X

II. 7733X

III. 8137X

IV. 8135 X

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

I and IV

d)

I and III

38.

If a carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an mass number of 12. Which of the following are considered isotopes of this atom?

a)
Carbon-12
b)
Carbon-13
c)
Carbon-14
d)
Both Carbon-13 and Carbon-14
39.

When an atom becomes an ion, that atom either gains or loses _____________..

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Mass

40.

Chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes, Cl-35 and Cl-37, The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45. Which of these two isotopes of chlorine is more abundant?

a)

Cl-35

b)

Cl-37

c)

Cannot be determined from the information provided.

41.

An element has three isotopes. Given the abundances and relative masses, calculate the average atomic mass and determine (from the periodic table) which element it is.


Abundances | Relative masses

0.005% | 234.04 amu

0.720% | 235.04 amu

99.275% | 238.05 amu

a)

Uranium (#92, Atomic Mass: 238.03 amu)

b)

Fluorine (#9, Atomic Mass: 19.00 amu)

c)

Mercury (#89, Atomic Mass: 200.59 amu)

d)

Polonium (#84 209 amu)

42.

Element Z has 2 natural isotopes. One isotope has a mass of 15.0 amu and a relative abundance of 30%. The other isotope has a mass of 16.0 amu and a relative abundance of 70%. Estimate the average atomic mass for this one element.

a)

15.0 amu

b)

16.0 amu

c)

15.7 amu

d)

16.9 amu

43.

Sodium (Na) ions have a _____ charge.

a)

2+

b)

neutral

c)

1+

d)

1-

44.
How many valence electrons are represented here?
a)
7
b)
5
c)
2
d)
8
45.
Which particles change the charge in atoms when ions are formed?
a)
Protons
b)
Electrons
c)
Neutrons
d)
Kittens
46.
The horizontal row on the periodic table is called a
a)
group
b)
family
c)
period
d)
atomic number
47.

What is an atom or bonded group of atoms that has a positive or negative charge?

a)

ion

b)

atom

c)

metal

d)

nonmetal

48.

What is the trend for ionization energy?

a)

Across a period (left to right) it increases and down a group it decreases.

b)

Across a period (left to right) it decreases and down a group it increases.

c)

Across a period (left to right) it decreases and down a group it decreases.

d)

Across a period (left to right) it increases and down a group it increases.

49.

These elements are in a:

a)

group

b)

period

50.

True or False: The ground state is the highest energy state of an atom.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

What is the light that you can see called?

a)

observatory light

b)

ultraviolet light

c)

visible light

d)

infrared light

52.
Visible spectrum is shown below. Which light has the highest energy?
a)
Red light
b)
Yellow light
c)
Green light
d)
Blue light
53.
The _______________ determines the color of visible light. 
a)
wavelength
b)
speed
c)
amplitude
d)
light
54.
Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron
a)
drops from a higher to a lower energy level.
b)
   jumps from a lower to a higher energy level.   
c)
   moves within its atomic orbital.
d)
falls into the nucleus.
55.
For an electron to change from ground state to an excited stated it must...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
56.
When talking about energy levels in an atom, what is an "excited state"?
a)
The highest energy state of an atom.
b)
Any level higher than the ground state.
c)
The lowest energy state of an atom.
d)
When an atom loses an electron
57.
Why are line emission spectra of elements called "atomic fingerprints"?
a)
They are all the same
b)
They are all unique
c)
They are all similar
d)
They all contain colored light
58.

Light is produced by an atom when an electron moves ...

a)

into the nucleus

b)

to a higher energy level

c)

to another position in the same sublevel

d)

to a lower energy level

59.

If an electron moves from n=4 to n=2 it ____

a)

absorbs energy

b)

releases energy

60.
The parallel lines represents...
a)
energy levels of the atom
b)
energy levels of the electrons
c)
energy levels of the photons
d)
energy levels of the nucleus
61.
What is the unknown spectra?
a)
beryllium
b)
copper
c)
manganese
d)
strontium
62.

The color of emitted light with lowest energy is

a)

violet

b)

green

c)

red

d)

indigo

63.

Elements in Group 1 and 2 of the periodic table will most likely form:

a)

Positive ions

b)

Negative ions

c)

Neutral Ions

d)

None of these

64.
How many valence electrons in this structure?
a)
6
b)
5
c)
4
d)
7
65.
This is a correct dot diagram for nitrogen (N)
a)
true
b)
false
66.
According to the octet rule most elements need _______ valence electrons.
a)
2
b)
8
c)
6
d)
18
67.

What is the charge of a sulfur ion (sulfide)?

a)

+6

b)

+2

c)

-2

d)

+8

e)

+18

68.

Which two elements have the most similar chemical properties?

a)

Be and Mg

b)

Ca and Br

c)

Cl and Ar

d)

Na and P

69.
What is this element? 
1s22s22p63s23p6
4s23d104p6
a)
Argon
b)
Krypton
c)
Selenium
d)
Bromide
70.

What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?

a)

2 non-metals

b)

1 metal and 1 non-metal

c)

2 metals

d)

2 Adams

71.

SO2

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

metallic

d)

missing sock

72.

Ca(OH)2

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

metallic

d)

Autotune has ruined "popular" music.

73.

Cations, because they are positive, tend to be ________.

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

irrelevant

d)

nothing but a good time

74.

In ionic bonding, valence electrons are _______.

a)

shared between atoms

b)

transferred from one atom to another

c)

destroyed by the force

d)

absorbed by the nucleus

75.

What type of bonding does this picture show?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Valentine

76.

________________ generally have high melting and boiling points.

a)

Ionic compounds

b)

Covalent compounds

c)

Metalloidic compounds

d)

Molecules from planets close to the sun

77.
Where are the nonmetals located on the periodic table? 
a)
Blue
b)
Red
c)
Green
d)

I forgot to color where they actually are.

78.

If Sodium and Bromine react, they will form a(n) _______ bond.

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

metallic

d)

inseparable

79.

Why do covalent bonds form?

a)

filling the outermost energy level to be stable (i.e., have an octet except H or B)

b)

to make all atoms exactly the same

c)

to make other atoms in other molecules unstable

d)

to make all atoms different from each other

80.

Why don't noble gases form bonds?

a)

They already have a full valence shell.

b)

What? Noble gases form bonds with all kinds of other atoms.

c)

They only bond when with each other, and that doesn't count.

d)

Everything else except this choice is wrong.

81.
If an atom gains two electrons what charge will it have?
a)
-2
b)
-1
c)
+1
d)
+2
82.

Which element is most likely to form only 2 covalent bonds?

a)

Carbon

b)

Fluorine

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Sulfur

83.

H2O

a)

Polar

b)

Nonpolar

c)

Arctic Monkeys

d)

Baroness

84.

PCl3

a)

Polar

b)

Nonpolar

c)

Superpolar

d)

Subpolar

85.

In a polar covalent bond, electrons are shared ___________.

a)
equally
b)
unequally
c)
between non-metals with similar electronegativities
d)
between a metal and a non-metal
86.
In this Lewis structure, the symbol above F means...
a)

electrons are being completely transferred to Fluorine

b)
electrons are less attracted to F than H
c)
electrons are more attracted to F than H
d)

Fluorine has formed an anion

87.

How many valence electrons are participating in bonding in the molecule above?

a)

8

b)

4

c)

12

d)

6

88.

NH3 has how many nonbonding (or lone) pairs of electrons?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

89.

CCl4

a)

made of polar covalent bonds but overall nonpolar

b)

made of polar covalent bonds and overall polar

c)

made of nonpolar covalent bonds and nonpolar

d)

made of nonpolar covalent bonds but is somehow polar

90.

Sulfur dioxide (cough, cough), SO2

a)

polar molecule because of its shape

b)

polar molecule because every atom has a full octet

c)

nonpolar molecule because there are no dipoles

d)

nonpolar molecule because there are dipoles that cancel each other out

91.

Although sulfur has more than an octet here, this actually happens.

Is this molecule polar or non-polar?

a)

Non-polar

b)

Polar

92.

Boron does not form an octet because it only has 3 valence electrons to share.

Is this molecule polar or non-polar? [Hint: shape]

a)

Non-polar

b)

Polar

93.

Bromine has more than an octet. This actually happens because ... well, it's bromine.

Considering its shape, is this molecule polar or non-polar?

a)

Polar

b)

Non-polar

94.

A diatomic molecule like O2 is always_______ because electrons are shared ________.

a)
nonpolar; equally
b)
polar; equally
c)
nonpolar; unequally
d)
nonpolar; unequally
95.
Will this molecule be polar or nonpolar? H2S
a)
polar
b)
nonpolar
96.
Electronegativity is a measurement of the ability of a nucleus to...
a)
attract bonding electrons
b)
attract other nuclei
c)

attract electrons in the lower energy levels

d)

how many negative charges an electron has

97.
Which molecule contains bonds with a GREATER polarity?
a)
HCl
b)

CCl4

98.

The most electronegative atom on the periodic table is:

a)
Fluorine
b)
Helium
c)
Neon
d)
Francium
99.

Use the molecular model's shape to predict the most likely type of molecule shown.

a)

polar covalent

b)

nonpolar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

100.

The molecule (CCl4) shown is ___________-.

a)

nonpolar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

101.

What is the correct Lewis Dot Structure for ammonia NH3

a)

b)

c)

d)

102.

Which is the correct Lewis diagram for carbon dioxide, CO2?

a)

b)

c)

d)

103.

Put these in increasing order of electronegativity:

C, H, and O (smallest on left; largest on right)

a)

H < C < O

b)

H < O < C

c)

O < C < H

d)

C < H < O

104.

Which of the following is the least electronegative element?

a)
oxygen
b)
potassium
c)
fluorine
d)
nitrogen
105.

How many bonds does carbon typically make?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

106.

How many bonds does hydrogen typically make?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

107.
When writing Lewis Structures, only __________ electrons are used.
a)
Inner shell
b)
Core 
c)
Valence
d)
Stable
108.

The formation of which type of bond usually releases the most energy?

a)

polar covalent

b)

nonpolar covalent

c)

metallic

d)

ionic

109.
What is the correct formula for this molecule?
a)
NH
b)
N3H
c)
NH3
d)
NH4
110.
Which substance is nonpolar?
a)
water
b)
N2
c)
NH3
d)
HCl
111.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for the compound PBr3?
a)
structure A
b)
structure B
c)
structure C
d)
structure D
112.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot structure for the molecule fluorine (F2)?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
113.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for CH2O?
a)
Option A
b)
Option B
c)
Option C
d)
Option D
114.
Which molecule below would have this shape?
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
PCl5
d)
CO2
115.

10. The proper structure of the HNO2 molecule is seen here. It has four bonds, two single and one double, and nitrogen is the central atom that the oxygens are bonded to. Looking at this final structure, is this molecule polar or nonpolar? Describe how you know.

a)

nonpolar

b)

polar

116.

The following properties are all characteristics of ionic compounds EXCEPT

a)

solid at room temperature

b)

soft

c)

crystal lattice structure

d)

conduct electricity when dissolved in water

117.

Ionic bonds could be best described as:

a)

A bond formed when 2 atoms share electrons

b)

A firm handshake

c)

An electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions

d)

An electrostatic attraction between anions

118.

What set of elements is most likely to form a covalent compound?

a)

Na and O

b)

Na and K

c)

O and C

119.
What elements generally make an ionic bond?
a)
metal and nonmetal
b)
2 or more nonmetals
c)
metal
d)
none of the above
120.

Which of the following is a molecular compound?

a)

CaO

b)

NaCl

c)

MgCl2

d)

CH4

121.

The polarity of a bond is determined by...

a)

The sum of the electronegativities of the two atoms

b)

The difference in the electronegativities of the two atoms

c)

The charges of the atoms

d)

None of the Above

122.

Which bond is the most polar of the group?

a)

H--H

b)

H--C

c)

H--N

d)

H--O

123.

Which bond is LEAST polar?

a)

O=O

b)

O-H

c)

O-N

d)

O=C

124.
Which is the correct structure for ammonia?
(Top picture is A, bottom picture is D.)
a)
Option A
b)
Option B
c)
Option C
d)
Option D
125.
Which of the following is an acceptable Lewis structure for CH3Cl?
a)
Option A
b)
Option B
c)
Option C
d)
Option D
126.

True or false? Ionic compounds have high melting points.

a)

true

b)

false

127.

Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity when they are molten or dissolved?

a)

Their ions are free to move.

b)

Their ions are held in fixed positions.

c)

Their electrons are free to move

d)

Their electrons are held in a fixed state

128.

What is the correct formula for potassium sulfide?

a)

K2S

b)

P2S

c)

KS2

d)

KS

129.

What is the correct formula for potassium phosphide?

a)

K3P

b)

KP

c)

KP3

130.

Which is the correct formula for Tin (I) sulfide?

a)

SnS

b)

SnS2

c)

Sn2S

d)

Sn2S2

131.

Which is the correct formula for Aluminum chloride?

a)

Al3Cl

b)

AlCl3

c)

AlCl

d)

ACll33

132.

Which is the correct name for CrN?

a)

Chromium (I) nitride

b)

Chromium (III) nitride

c)

Chromium nitride

d)

Chromium (VI) nitride

133.

Which is the correct name for Li2S?

a)

Lithium (II) sulfide

b)

Lithium sulfide

c)

Sulfide lithium

d)

Lithium (I) sulfide

134.

Identify the formula for this combination Sr2+ and I1-

a)

Sr2I

b)

SrI2

c)

SrI

d)

Sr2+I1-
Why would anyone ever do this?

135.

Identify the formula for this combination Al3+ and O2-

a)

Al3O2

b)

AlO

c)

Al2O3

d)

Form You La!

136.

Identify the formula for this combination Mg2+ and (NO2)1-

a)

Mg2(NO2)

b)

Mg(NO2)

c)

Mg(NO2)2

d)

MgNO4

137.

Identify the formula for an ionic compound that forms between calcium and oxygen.

a)

Ca2O2

b)

CaO

c)

Ca2O

d)

CaO2

138.

Identify the formula for an ionic compound that forms between Na and N.

a)

Na3N

b)

NaN

c)

NaN3

d)

NaNNaNNaN

139.

Which is the correct formula for Magnesium (Mg+2) hydroxide (OH)1-?

a)

MgOH

b)

MgOH2

c)

Mg(OH)2

140.

Is this molecule polar or non-polar?

a)

Polar

b)

Non-polar

141.
A bond with a partially negative end and a partially positive end is:
a)
ionic
b)
polar
c)
non-polar
d)
isometric
142.

Propane is a gas at room temperature. Bromine is a liquid. Which statement correctly explains these observations?

a)
Bromine has weaker intermolecular forces than propane does
b)

Bromine has greater polarity than propane does

c)

Bromine has weaker polarity than propane does

d)
Bromine has stronger intermolecular forces than propane does
143.

Choose every molecule that is polar.

a)

b)

c)

d)

144.

Which of the following factors plays an important role in the identification of specific intermolecular forces between molecules?

a)

ionization energy

b)

density

c)

solubility

d)

polarity

145.

Based on the evaporation lab, which molecule should evaporate the fastest?

a)

CH3OH

b)

CH3COCH3

c)

CH3CH2OH

d)

C5H12

146.

What is the charge of Cu in Cu2+?

a)

-1

b)

-2

c)

+2

d)

0

147.

What is the charge of Pb in PbO ?

a)

+2

b)

+4

c)

0

d)

-2

148.

What is the charge of Fe in FeO?

a)
+1
b)
-1
c)
+2
d)
-2
149.

The sum of all ionic charges in a neutral compound is _____.

a)
0
b)
1
c)
-1
d)
depends on the compound
150.

What is the charge of Ca in Ca3N2?

a)
+3
b)
+2
c)
-3
d)
-2
151.

What does the Roman numeral tell you in the compound manganese (VII) chloride?

a)

the number of manganese ions in the formula

b)

the number of valence electrons in a chloride ion

c)

the number of valence electrons in a neutral manganese atom

d)

the charge of the manganese ion

152.

Which of the following elements would be larger: potassium or cesium?

a)

potassium

b)

cesium

c)

both atoms are the same size

d)

cannot be determined

e)

the sizes can vary

153.
What is the chemical name for the compound with the formula Na₂S?
a)
sodium sulfide
b)
sodium fluoride
c)
magnesium sulfide
d)
lithium oxide
154.
In what form can an ionic compound conduct electricity?
a)
when dissolved in water
b)
as a solid
c)
as a crystal
d)
when warmed slightly
155.
What is the name of PS3?
a)
phosphorus trisulfide
b)
phosphorus chloride
c)
phosphide trisulfide
d)
phosphate
156.
Atoms gain or lose electrons to become stable by satisfying this rule.
a)
Lewis Structure rule
b)
Periodic Law
c)
octet rule
d)
Ionic Law
157.
Name this compound:   MgS
a)
Sulfur Magnesium
b)
Magnesium Sulfate
c)
Magnesium Sulfur
d)
Magnesium Sulfide
158.
A binary covalent bond exists between
a)
2 metals
b)
1 metal and 1 nonmetal
c)
2 nonmetals
d)
Any 2 elements
159.
What is the correct name for C4H6?
a)
Carbon Hexahydride
b)
Pentacarbon Pentahydride
c)
Hexacarbon Tetrahydride
d)
Tetracarbon Hexahydride
160.
What is the correct name for NO?
a)
Mononitrogen Monoxide
b)
Nitrogen Monoxide
c)
Mononitrogen Dioxide
d)
Nitrogen Oxide
161.
What is the formula for Tricarbon Octahydride?
a)
Ca3O
b)
C2H8
c)
C3H8
d)
Ca3H8
162.
What is Sulfur Trichloride?
a)
SCl3
b)
SiCl3
c)
SCl4
d)
Si3Cl
163.
P2O5
a)
Phosphorus Oxide
b)
Pentaphosphorus Dioxide
c)
Diphosphorous pentoxide
d)
Phosphoric Oxygen
164.
As4O10
a)
arsenic oxide
b)
quadarsenic decoxide
c)
tetraarsenic decoxide
d)
arsenic decoxide
165.
Covalent compounds
a)
Share electrons
b)
transfer electrons
c)
contain a sea of electrons
d)
conduct electricity
166.
Bromine monofluoride
a)
Br1F1
b)
BrF
c)
Br2F
d)
BrF2
167.

Which of the following is an ionic compound?

a)

HCl

b)

H2O

c)

MgO

d)

CO2

168.

HCl

a)

Hydrochloric acid

b)

Chloric acid

c)

Hypochlorous acid

d)

Chlorous acid

169.

Which noble gas has the highest boiling point?

[Hint - What factor do you consider when the IMF type is the same?]

a)
Xe
b)
Kr
c)
Ar
d)
He
170.

Type of intermolecular force present in hydrofluoric acid, HF?

a)

DDF only

b)

LDFs + DDFs

c)

LDFs, DDFs, + HBFs

d)

Acid forces only

171.
Type of intermolecular force present in I2, Br2, and Cl2.
a)

LDFs only

b)

LDFs + DDFs

c)

DDFs only

d)

HBFs

172.

What is the name of the acid with the formula H2SO4?

a)

Sulfurous Acid

b)

Sulfuric Acid

c)

Hydrogen sulfuric Acid

d)

Sulfate Acid

173.

What is the formula for nitric acid?

a)

HNO3

b)

HNO2

c)

HNO4

d)

NO

174.

What is the name of HBr?

a)

Hydrobromous acid

b)

Hydrobromic acid

c)

Bromic Acid

d)

Bromous Acid

175.

What is the name of H2SO3?

a)

Sulfuric Acid

b)

Sulfurous Acid

c)

Hydrosulfuric Acid

d)

Hydrosulfurous Acid

176.

What is the formula for nitrous acid?

a)

HNO3

b)

HNO4

c)

HNO2

d)

HNO

177.

What is the formula for chloric acid?

a)

HCl

b)

HClO4

c)

HClO3

d)

HClO2

178.

Which of the following models best demonstrates a balanced chemical equation?

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

179.

Why must chemical equations be balanced?

a)

So that the equation doesn't explode

b)

The reaction won't happen until it is balanced

c)

Based on the Law of Conservation of Matter, matter cannot be created or destroyed.

d)

Based on the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy cannot be created or destroyed.

180.

Balance this equation...

H2 + Cl2 --> HCl

a)

It is balanced

b)

3H2 + Cl2 --> 6H2Cl

c)

H2 + Cl2 --> 2HCl

d)

H2 + Cl2 --> H2Cl2

181.

How many Nitrogen (N) atoms are in 4NH3?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

d)

12

182.

solid sodium reacts with chlorine gas to produce solid sodium chloride. The correct UNBALANCED equation is:

a)

NaCl(s)→ Cl (g) + Na (s)

b)

Na (s)+ CO2 (g) → NaCO2 (s)

c)

Na (s) + Cl2 (g)→ NaCl (s)

d)

Na (s) + Cl (g) → NaCl (s)

183.

Magnesium metal reacts with oxygen in the air to form solid magnesium oxide. The correct unbalanced equation is

a)

Mg2 (s) + O2 (g) --> MgO (s)

b)

Mg (s) + O2 (g) --> MgO (s)

c)

Mg2 (s) + O2 (g) --> Mg2O2 (s)

d)

Mg2 (s) + O2 (s) --> MgO(s)

184.

When hydrogen gas reacts with solid sulfur, a smelly gas, dihydrogen monosulfide, is produced. The correct UNBALANCED equation for this reaction is:

a)

H2(g) + S (g) → HS (g)

b)

H2 (g)+ S (s)→ H2S (g)

c)

H (g)+ S (s) → HS (g)

d)

H2 (g) + S (g) → H2S (g)

185.

Potassium chlorate solid when heated produces potassium chloride solid and oxygen gas. The correct BALANCED chemical equation is:

a)

2 KClO3 (s) --> 2 KCl (s) + 3 O2 (g)

b)

2 PClO3(s) --> 2 PCl (s) + 3 O2 (g)

c)

2 KClO3 (s) --> 2 KCl (s) + 6 O (g)

d)

2 KCl (s) --> 2 KCl (s) + 3 O2 (g)

186.

Barium metal and liquid water react to form solid barium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. The correct BALANCED equation for this reaction is:

a)

Ba (s) + 2 H2O (l) --> Ba(OH)2 (s) + H2 (g)

b)

Ba2 (s) + H2O (l) --> 2 Ba(OH)2 (s) + 2 H (g)

c)

Ba (s)+ 2 H2O (l) --> BaOH2 (s) + 2 H (g)

d)

Ba2 (s) --> 2 Ba(OH)2 (s) + H2 (g)

187.

solid aluminum bromide and chlorine gas react together to produce aluminum chloride solution and bromine gas.

a)

2 AlBr3 (s) + 3 Cl2 (g) --> 2 AlCl3 (aq) + 3 Br2 (g)

b)

AlBr3(s) + 3 Cl (g) --> AlCl3 (aq) + 3 Br (g)

c)

2 Al3Br (s) + 2 Cl (g) --> 2 Al3Cl (aq) + Br2 (g)

d)

AlBr3 (s)+ Cl2 (g) --> AlCl3 (aq) + Br (g)

188.

Copper metal reacts with aqueous silver sulfate and produces aqueous copper (II) sulfate and silver metal. The correct BALANCED equation for this reaction is:

a)

Cu (s) + Ag2SO4 (aq) --> CuSO4 (aq) + 2 Ag (s)

b)

Cu2 (s) + Ag2SO4 (aq) --> CuSO4 (s)+ 2 Ag (s)

c)

Cu (s) + Ag2S (aq) --> CuS (aq) + 2 Ag (s)

d)

Cu2 (s) + 2 AgSO4 (aq) --> 2 CuSO4 (aq) + Ag2 (s)

189.

Iron metal reacts with sulfur powder to produce iron(II) sulfide powder. The correct BALANCED equation is :

a)

2Fe(s) + S(s) → Fe2S(s)

b)

Fe(s) + S(s) → FeS(s)

c)

Fe(s) + S(g) → FeS(s)

d)

4Fe(s) + S2(s) → 2Fe2S (s)

190.

What type of reaction does the following equation represent?


HgO --> Hg + O2

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

191.

What type of reaction does the following equation represent?


Na3PO4 + CaCl2 --> Ca3(PO4)2 + NaCl

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

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