WorksheetsSU-9 Navigation: Charts and Publications PP Exam
Total questions: 99
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1. (Refer to Figure 22, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.
a)
47°02'N - 116°11'W.
b)
47°32'N - 116°11'W.
2.
2. Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
a)
Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.
b)
Line of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
c)
The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.
3.
3. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
a)
47°25'N - 98°06'W.
b)
47°25'N - 99°54'W.
c)
47°55'N - 98°06'W.
4.
4. (Refer to Figure 21, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). Which airport is located at approximately 47°41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?
a)
Fisher.
b)
Crooked Lake.
c)
Johnson.
5.
5. (Refer to Figure 21, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). Which airport is located at approximately 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?
a)
Linrud.
b)
Makeeff.
c)
Johnson.
6.
6. (Refer to Figure 21, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?
a)
Underwood.
b)
Pietsch.
c)
Washburn.
7.
7. (Refer to Figure 78, Sectional Chart Except and Figure 79, Chart Supplement). At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42°24"16' W96°23"06'), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed?
a)
122.95 MHz.
b)
119.45 MHz.
c)
118.7 MHz.
8.
8. (Refer to Figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
a)
36°24'N - 76°01'W.
b)
36°48'N - 76°01'W.
c)
47°24'N - 75°58'W.
9.
9. (Refer to figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 1). The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?
a)
Class C.
b)
Class E.
c)
Class G.
10.
10. (Refer to Figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 4). What hazard to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A?
a)
Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
b)
High volume of pilot train or an unusual type of aerial activity.
c)
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
11.
11. (Refer to Figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 1). What minimum radio equipment is required to land and takeoff at Norfolk International?
a)
Mode C transponder and omni-receiver.
b)
Mode C transponder and two-way radio.
c)
Mode C transponder, omni-receiver, and DME.
12.
12. (Refer to Figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is
a)
19 feet.
b)
36 feet.
c)
360 feet.
13.
13. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
a)
Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.
b)
Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.
c)
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
14.
14. With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
a)
10,000 feet MSL.
b)
14,500 feet MSL.
c)
18,000 feet MSL.
15.
15. Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
a)
1,000 feet AGL.
b)
2,000 feet AGL.
c)
3,000 feet AGL.
16.
16. (Refer to Figure 21, Sectional Chart Excerpt). The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from
a)
sea level to 2,000 feet MSL.
b)
2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.
c)
2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.
17.
17. (Refer to Figure 21, Sectional Chart Except). (Refer to Area 3). What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR644?
a)
IFR training flight above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
b)
VFR training flight above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.
c)
Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.
18.
18. What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in Military Operations Area (MOA)?
a)
Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
b)
Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
c)
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
19.
19. Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
a)
filed a IFR flight plan.
b)
received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
c)
received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
20.
20. What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?
a)
All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation.
b)
Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as long as they operate in accordance with their waiver.
c)
Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.
21.
21. (Refer to Figure 22, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 1). The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are
a)
1 mile and clear of clouds.
b)
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
c)
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
22.
22. (Refer to Figure 22, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
a)
1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
b)
700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.
c)
7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.
23.
23. (Refer to Figure 24, Sectional Chart Excerpt and Legend 1, Sectional Aeronautical Chart). For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to
a)
notes on the border of the chart.
b)
the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement.
c)
NOTAMs for Caddo Mills Airport.
24.
24. Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
a)
NOTAMs.
b)
Chart Supplement.
c)
Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
25.
25. (Refer to Figure 24, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 1). What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?
a)
1,010 feet MSL.
b)
1,273 feet MSL.
c)
1,283 feet MSL.
26.
26. (Refer to Figure 24, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
a)
823 feet MSL.
b)
1,013 feet MSL.
c)
1,403 feet MSL.
27.
27. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)?
a)
4,000.
b)
3,000.
c)
1,700.
28.
28. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 4). The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
a)
Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL.
b)
Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL.
c)
Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.
29.
29. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
a)
Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks.
b)
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love field.
c)
Addison and Dallas Executive.
30.
30. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is
a)
at the surface.
b)
3,000 feet MSL.
c)
3,100 feet MSL.
31.
31. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 7). The airspace overlying McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
a)
700 feet AGL.
b)
2,900 feet MSL.
c)
2,500 feet MSL.
32.
32. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 8). What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?
a)
2,731 feet MSL.
b)
3,549 feet MSL.
c)
3,349 feet MSL.
33.
33. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 4). The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
a)
at the surface.
b)
3,200 feet MSL.
c)
4,000 feet MSL.
34.
34. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 5). The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
a)
VOR.
b)
VORTAC.
c)
VOR/DME.
35.
35. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). The devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a
a)
meteorological observation area.
b)
military observation area.
c)
military operations area.
36.
36. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
a)
Unusual, often visible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
b)
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
c)
High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
37.
37. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport.
a)
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
b)
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
c)
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.
38.
38. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
a)
1 mile and clear of clouds.
b)
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
c)
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
39.
39. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.
a)
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but including 18,000 feet MSL.
b)
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
c)
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.
40.
40. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Range, a pilot should fly no lower than
a)
2,000 feet AGL.
b)
2,500 feet AGL.
c)
3,000 feet AGL.
41.
41. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 5). The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
a)
Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.
b)
Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.
c)
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.
42.
42. (Refer to Figure 59, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). What kind of airport is Deshier (6D70?
a)
A private airport with a grass runway.
b)
A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface.
c)
An abandoned paved airport having landmark value.
43.
43. (Refer to Figure 59, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport?
a)
C.
b)
D.
c)
E.
44.
44. (Refer to Figure 69, Sectional Chart Excerpt). The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at
a)
the surface.
b)
700 feet AGL.
c)
1,200 feet MSL.
45.
45. (Refer to Figure 69, Sectional Chart Excerpt). When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to Mc Campbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL?
a)
Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace.
b)
Leaving and entering the alert areas and entering Corpus Christi Class C airspace.
c)
Leaving and entering the alert areas, entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace, and passing through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace.
46.
46. (Refer to figure 70, Sectional Chart Excerpt). When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 feet MSL? When entering
a)
the Class B airspace.
b)
the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.
c)
both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.
47.
47. (Refer to figure 70, Sectional Chart Excerpt). An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. what maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?
a)
6,000 feet MSL.
b)
4,200 feet MSL.
c)
3,200 feet MSL.
48.
48. (Refer to Figure 71, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 1). Dubey Airport is
a)
a privately owned airport restricted to use.
b)
a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace.
c)
an airport restricted to use by sport pilots only.
49.
49. (Refer to Figure 74, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 6). Sky Way Airport is
a)
an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots.
b)
a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace.
c)
a non-public use airport.
50.
50. (Refer to Figure 74. Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 6). The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
a)
both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
b)
10,000 feet MSL.
c)
2,100 feet AGL.
51.
51. (Refer to Figure 74, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 1). What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?
a)
2,500 feet MSL.
b)
2,901 feet MSL.
c)
3,297 feet MSL.
52.
52. (Refer to Figure 75, Sectional Chart Excerpt). The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class
a)
B.
b)
C.
c)
D.
53.
53. (Refer to Figure 75, Sectional Chart Excerpt). what is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport near Area 3?
a)
Restricted airspace.
b)
Military operations area.
c)
Wilderness area.
54.
54. A blue segmented circle on a sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
a)
Class B.
b)
Class C.
c)
Class D.
55.
55. Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
a)
When flying on airways.
b)
With the controlling agency's authorization.
c)
Regulations do not allow this.
56.
56. (Refer to Figure 78, Sectional Chart Excerpt). What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
a)
3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.
b)
0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
c)
1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
57.
57. (Refer to Figure 23, Sectional Chart Excerpt, and Legend 1, Sectional Aeronautical Chart). (Refer to Area 3). For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to
a)
notes on the border of the chart.
b)
the Chart Supplement.
c)
NOTAMs for Ridgeland Airport.
58.
58. (Refer to Figure 23, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
a)
1,498 feet MSL.
b)
1,531 feet AGL.
c)
1,548 feet MSL.
59.
59. (Refer to Figure 23, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
a)
1,200 feet AGL.
b)
1,300 feet MSL.
c)
1,700 feet MSL.
60.
60. (Refer to Figure 23, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is
a)
454 feet MSL.
b)
429 feet AGL.
c)
417 feet MSL.
61.
61. (Refer to Figure 23, Sectional Chart Excerpt). The flag symbols at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are
a)
outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.
b)
airports with special traffic pattens.
c)
visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
62.
62. (Refer to figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 5). The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
a)
Unmarked blimp hangars at 308 feet MSL.
b)
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL.
c)
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.
63.
63. (Refer to Figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
a)
compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.
b)
compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.
c)
visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
64.
64. (Refer to Figure 21, Sectional Chart Excerpt). Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?
a)
Minot Int'l (Area 1).
b)
Garrison (Area 2).
c)
Mercer County regional Airport (Area 3).
65.
65. (Refer to Figure 24, Sectional Chart Excerpt). Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
a)
Commerce (Area 6) an Rockwall (Area 1).
b)
Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).
c)
Commerce (Area 6) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).
66.
66. As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
a)
25 miles.
b)
20 miles.
c)
10 miles.
67.
67. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
a)
127.25 MHz.
b)
122.95 MHz.
c)
126.35 MHz.
68.
68. (Refer to Figure 25, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
a)
122.95 MHz.
b)
126.0 MHz.
c)
133.4 MHz.
69.
69. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
a)
Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
b)
Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz.
c)
Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.
70.
70. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 4). The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
a)
122.2 MHz.
b)
123.0 MHz.
c)
123.6 MHz.
71.
71. (Refer to Figure 26, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 5). What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
a)
122.2 MHz.
b)
122.8 MHz.
c)
123.6 MHz.
72.
72. (Refer to Figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 3). What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?
a)
Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure.
b)
Contact Elizabeth City tower on 120.5.
c)
Radio need not be used.
73.
73. (Refer to Figure 20, Sectional Chart Excerpt) (Refer to Area 3). What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
a)
Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
b)
Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.
c)
Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.
74.
74. (Refer to Figure 22, Sectional Chart Excerpt, and Figure 31, Chart Supplement). (Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22). At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?
a)
122.05 MHz.
b)
122.1/108.8 MHz.
c)
122.8 MHz.
75.
75. (Refer to Figure 22, Sectional Chart Excerpt, and Figure 31, Chart Supplement). (Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22). At Couer D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
a)
122.05 MHz.
b)
135.075 MHz.
c)
122.8 MHz.
76.
76. (Refer to Figure 22, Sectional Chart Excerpt, and Figure 31, Chart Supplement). (Refer to Area 2 Figure 22). What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel?
a)
135.075 MHz.
b)
122.1/108.8 MHz.
c)
122.8 MHz.
77.
77. (Refer to Figure 21, Sectional Chart Excerpt). (Refer to Area 2). The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is
a)
122.8 MHz.
b)
122.9 MHz.
c)
123.0 MHz.
78.
78. (Refer to Figure 22, Sectional Chart Excerpt). Weather Information is available at the Coeur D'Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2)
a)
over the VOR frequency 108.8.
b)
from AWOS 3 135.075.
c)
from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8.
79.
79. FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by
a)
distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
b)
downloading them from the FAA website.
c)
subscribing to the Federal Register.
80.
80. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number?
a)
60
b)
70
c)
90
81.
81. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
a)
60
b)
70
c)
90
82.
82. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace and issued under which subject number?
a)
60
b)
70
c)
90
83.
83. (Refer to Figure 63, Chart Supplement). According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport?
a)
0900 - 0100 hr. local time.
b)
1300 - 0500 hr. local time.
c)
0800 - 0000 hr. local time.
84.
84. (Refer to Figure 52, Chart Supplement). When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
a)
Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
b)
Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz.
c)
Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.
85.
85. (Refer to Figure 52, Chart Supplement). Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are
a)
to the right on Runway 14 and Runway 32, to the left on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
b)
to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32, to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
c)
to the right on Runway 14 -32.
86.
86. (Refer to Figure 52, Chart Supplement). Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
a)
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation.
b)
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation.
c)
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
87.
87. (Refer to Figure 52, Chart Supplement). What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
a)
Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
b)
Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
c)
Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.
88.
88. (Refer to figure 52, Chart Supplement). Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?
a)
Northwest approximately 4 miles.
b)
Northwest approximately 1 mile.
c)
East approximately 7 miles.
89.
89. (Refer to Figure 80, Sectional Chart Excerpt, and Figure 81, Chart Supplement). Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W 107°38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport?
a)
Yes, whenever the airport is attended by airport personnel.
b)
No, as there is no "star" symbol near the airport on the chart, there is no fuel available at this airport.
c)
C. Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.
90.
90. (Refer to Figure 80, Sectional Chart Excerpt, and Figure 81, Chart Supplement). Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107° 38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25?
a)
Right hand traffic pattern.
b)
Left hand traffic pattern.
c)
It does not matter because it is an uncontrolled airport.
91.
91. (Refer to Legend 14, Chart Supplement). What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks?
a)
GCA.
b)
A UNICOM.
c)
UNICOM.
92.
92. (Refer to Legend 15, Chart Supplement). What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL?
a)
A dashed blue circle around an airport.
b)
A solid magenta circle around an airport.
c)
A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.
93.
93. (Refer to Legend 16, Chart Supplement). If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is
a)
1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM.
b)
1,000 feet to 18,000 feet and 40 NM.
c)
1,000 feet up to 60,000 feet and up to 130 NM.
94.
94. (Refer to Legend 17, Chart Supplement). According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC?
a)
VHF navigational facility with omnidirectional course only.
b)
Collocated VOR navigational facility and UHF standard distance measuring equipment.
c)
Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.
95.
95. You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an 'Airport surface hot spot?"
a)
Call the Automated Flight Service Station.
b)
In the Chart Supplements U.S.
c)
In the NOTAMs during your preflight briefing.
96.
96. To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should
a)
consult the Aeronautical Information Manual.
b)
consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements.
c)
contact the airport UNICOM frequency for runway advisory.
97.
97. When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in
a)
FDC NOTAMs.
b)
NOTAM (D) distribution.
c)
Pointer NOTAMs.
98.
98. What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
a)
To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSSfacilities for scheduled broadcasts.
b)
To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.
c)
To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.
99.
99. Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g. runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
a)
Aeronautical Information manual, aeronautical Charts, and (D) NOTAMs.
b)
Chart Supplement and FDC NOTAMs.
c)
Chart Supplement and (D) NOTAMs.
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