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AP Psych Exam Review #1

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following studies is best for investigating the relative impact of nature versus nurture on behavior?

a)

A) Case studies

b)

B) Longitudinal studies

c)

C) Twin studies

d)

D) Experimental studies

2.

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for controlling voluntary movements?

a)

Autonomic nervous system

b)

Somatic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic nervous system

3.

Match the following functions with the corresponding nervous system actions.

a)

Prepare the body for fight or flight

1.

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Regulate voluntary muscle movements

2.

Somatic nervous system

c)

Control involuntary actions and return the body to a resting state

3.

Parasympathetic nervous system

d)

Facilitate reflexive actions

4.

Reflex arc

4.

What is the gap between neurons called, where neurotransmitters are released?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Synapse

d)

Node of Ranvier

5.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with muscle movement and memory?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

6.

The amygdala is primarily responsible for which of the following?

a)

Language comprehension

b)

Emotional responses, especially fear and aggression

c)

Balance and coordination

d)

Memory consolidation

7.

The (a)   is involved in regulating body temperature and hunger.

Choose from the below words
Hippocampus
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
Cerebellum
8.

The stage of sleep characterized by rapid eye movements and vivid dreams is (a)  

Choose from the below words
NREM Stage 1
NREM Stage 3
REM sleep
Hypnagogic sleep
9.

Which disorder is characterized by sudden bouts of overwhelming sleepiness, sometimes causing the person to collapse directly into REM sleep?

a)

Sleep apnea

b)

Insomnia

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

REM sleep behavior disorder

10.

What is the process by which our sensory systems convert stimulus energy into neural impulses?

a)

Sensory adaptation

b)

Transduction

c)

Perception

d)

Conduction

11.

Which part of the eye is responsible for controlling the amount of light that enters the eye?

a)

Retina

b)

Cornea

c)

Iris

d)

Lens

12.

What theory of color vision explains afterimages and color blindness?

a)

Trichromatic theory

b)

Opponent-process theory

c)

Place theory

d)

Frequency theory

13.

Rods in the retina are primarily responsible for:

a)

A) Color vision

b)

B) Night and peripheral vision

c)

C) Detecting fine detail

d)

D) Processing motion

14.

Which theory explains how we hear different pitches by the location where sound waves stimulate the cochlea?

a)

Place theory

b)

Frequency theory

c)

Volley theory

d)

Opponent-process theory

15.

What structure in the ear is responsible for transducing sound waves into neural impulses?

a)

Auditory canal

b)

Tympanic membrane

c)

Cochlea

d)

Eustachian tube

16.

Which of the following best describes *top-down* processing?

a)

Processing that begins with sensory input and works up to the brain's integration of information.

b)

Processing guided by higher-level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions based on our experiences and expectations.

c)

The organization of the visual field into objects that stand out from their surroundings.

d)

A form of visual recognition using only external cues.

17.

The Gestalt principle that explains why we see an incomplete figure as whole is called:

a)

Proximity

b)

Similarity

c)

Closure

d)

Figure-ground

18.

Which of the following is an example of a heuristic in decision-making?

a)

Using a step-by-step method to solve a problem.

b)

Relying on the most recent or easily recalled information when making a decision.

c)

Conducting thorough research before arriving at a solution.

d)

Formulating decisions based on all possible outcomes.

19.

What is *semantic memory*?

a)

Memory of facts and general knowledge.

b)

Memory of personal experiences.

c)

Memory of motor skills.

d)

Memory of sensory information.

20.

Which technique is most effective for improving long-term memory retention?

a)

A) Massed practice

b)

B) Distributed practice

c)

C) Shallow processing

d)

D) Maintenance rehearsal

21.

According to Ebbinghaus' forgetting curve, what happens to memory retention over time without reinforcement?

a)

Memory retention remains stable.

b)

Memory retention increases.

c)

Memory retention decreases rapidly at first, then levels off.

d)

Memory retention fluctuates randomly.

22.

The *phonological loop* is responsible for:

a)

Storing visual and spatial information.

b)

Processing auditory and verbal information.

c)

Coordinating all activities in working memory.

d)

Encoding long-term memories.

23.

Which depth perception cue involves the brain interpreting closer objects as having more detailed textures than those farther away?

a)

Linear perspective

b)

Texture gradient

c)

Relative size

d)

Retinal disparity

24.

The belief that future probabilities are altered by past events, when they are actually independent, is called:

a)

The sunk-cost fallacy

b)

The framing effect

c)

The gambler’s fallacy

d)

Mental set

25.

What is *long-term potentiation* (LTP)?

a)

The process of encoding information for short-term use.

b)

The strengthening of synaptic connections as a result of repeated stimulation.

c)

The gradual fading of unused information over time.

d)

A technique to rehearse information in working memory.

26.

What is *long-term potentiation* (LTP)?

a)

The process of encoding information for short-term use.

b)

The strengthening of synaptic connections as a result of repeated stimulation.

c)

The gradual fading of unused information over time.

d)

A technique to rehearse information in working memory.

27.

The *tip-of-the-tongue* phenomenon is an example of:

a)

A) Encoding failure

b)

B) Retrieval failure

c)

C) Proactive interference

d)

D) Storage decay

28.

Which term refers to the illusion that stationary objects are moving when viewed in rapid succession?

a)

A) Binocular disparity

b)

B) Apparent motion

c)

C) Depth perception

d)

D) Perceptual constancy

29.

Which theory suggests that intelligence is made up of multiple abilities, including linguistic, logical-mathematical, and spatial intelligences?

a)

Spearman’s theory of general intelligence

b)

Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences

c)

Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence

d)

Thurstone’s primary mental abilities

30.

The *serial position effect* demonstrates that:

a)

A) We are more likely to remember the first and last items in a list.

b)

B) We can recall items best when they are unique in a list.

c)

C) Repeated exposure to a list improves recall of the middle items.

d)

D) The order of item presentation has no effect on recall.

31.

Which theme explores the extent to which personality traits remain consistent throughout life?

a)

Nature vs. Nurture

b)

Stability vs. Change

c)

Individual vs. Cultural

d)

Immediate vs. Delayed Development

32.

What does a cross-sectional study involve?

a)

A) Observing different age groups at a single point in time

b)

B) Following a single group over time

c)

C) Manipulating variables to observe changes

d)

D) Testing the same participants across various studies

33.

Which study design is most vulnerable to participant dropout over time?

a)

A) Cross-sectional

b)

B) Experimental

c)

C) Longitudinal

d)

D) Correlational

34.

Which theme examines how genetic inheritance and experience impact development?

a)

A) Nature vs. Nurture

b)

B) Stability vs. Change

c)

C) Individual vs. Social

d)

D) Immediate vs. Delayed

35.

Teratogens are best described as:

a)

A) Beneficial chemicals for prenatal development

b)

B) Harmful substances that affect prenatal development

c)

C) Developmental milestones in infancy

d)

D) Reflexes present at birth

36.

The rooting reflex in infants serves primarily to:

a)

A) Aid in survival by finding nourishment

b)

B) Help develop motor skills

c)

C) Encourage social bonding

d)

D) Improve depth perception

37.

The visual cliff experiment by Gibson and Walk demonstrated:

a)

Depth perception develops as infants grow

b)

Newborns are capable of perceiving depth

c)

Infants have an innate fear of heights

d)

Vision matures after infancy

38.

The visual cliff experiment by Gibson and Walk demonstrated:

a)

Depth perception develops as infants grow

b)

Newborns are capable of perceiving depth

c)

Infants have an innate fear of heights

d)

Vision matures after infancy

39.

Which of the following is considered a gross motor skill?

a)

Holding a pencil

b)

Walking

c)

Turning the page of a book

d)

Grasping objects with fingers

40.

Puberty is marked by:

a)

An increase in reasoning skills

b)

Physical growth and sexual maturation

c)

Formation of lifelong attachments

d)

Stabilization of self-concept

41.

Gender identity is defined as:

a)

A) A person’s social role based on biological sex

b)

B) A deeply held sense of being male, female, or another gender

c)

C) Behaviors associated with a specific sex

d)

D) Cultural expectations around gender

42.

Gender roles are shaped by:

a)

Biological predispositions only

b)

Social learning and cultural expectations

43.

Sexual orientation refers to:

a)

Cultural expectations about relationships

b)

An individual’s pattern of attraction toward others

c)

A phase in adolescence

d)

Gender identity development

44.

In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, children develop:

a)

Conservation skills

b)

Language fluency

c)

Object permanence

d)

Theory of mind

45.

Assimilation in Piaget’s theory refers to:

a)

Creating new schemas for new information

b)

Fitting new information into existing schemas

c)

Reaching new cognitive stages

d)

Independent problem solving

46.

What is self-serving bias? (Check all that apply)

a)

The tendency to attribute our own successes to internal factors

b)

The tendency to attribute our failures to external factors

c)

The tendency to attribute behavior to a mix of internal and external factors

d)

The tendency to ignore others' behaviors completely

47.

In attribution theory, which of the following best describes a dispositional attribution?

a)

A) Attributing someone's behavior to external factors

b)

B) Attributing someone's behavior to their internal traits

c)

C) Attributing someone's behavior to their environment

d)

D) Attributing someone's behavior to their family background

48.

Which bias involves overestimating personal traits and underestimating situational factors?

a)

Self-serving bias

b)

Actor-observer bias

c)

Fundamental attribution error

d)

Cognitive dissonance

49.

A person who attributes their success to hard work and intelligence demonstrates which explanatory style?

a)

Pessimistic

b)

Optimistic

c)

Defensive

d)

Critical

50.

What produces the bystander effect?

a)

The tendency to help someone in need when others are present

b)

The tendency to assume others will take responsibility in emergencies

c)

The tendency to help more when in a large crowd

d)

The phenomenon where groups make better decisions than individuals

51.

Which bias involves overestimating personal traits and underestimating situational factors?

a)

Self-serving bias

b)

Actor-observer bias

c)

Fundamental attribution error

d)

Cognitive dissonance

52.

According to Carl Rogers, what is the ideal self?

a)

The person one aspires to be

b)

The version of oneself accepted by society

c)

The person one perceives themselves to be

d)

The ideal version of one's personality

53.

Which personality theory emphasizes the importance of self-actualization?

a)

Trait theory

b)

Social-cognitive theory

c)

Humanistic theory

54.

According to Albert Bandura, what is the concept of reciprocal determinism?

a)

A) Behavior is influenced by unconscious drives

b)

B) Cognition, behavior, and environment influence each other

c)

C) Personality is shaped solely by the environment

d)

D) Behavior is determined by the id, ego, and superego

55.

Which of the following is the best example of a stereotype?

a)

A) Believing that all students from a specific school are hardworking

b)

B) Believing that people are all unique and different from one another

c)

C) Treating others based on their personality traits

d)

D) Recognizing that everyone has individual experiences

56.

Which of the following behaviors is most likely influenced by 'normative social influence'?

a)

A) Agreeing with your friends just to fit in, even if you privately disagree

b)

B) Thinking critically about an issue and forming your own opinion

c)

C) Making decisions based on factual evidence alone

d)

D) Acting independently and making decisions without concern for group opinions

57.

In Solomon Asch's experiment on conformity, how did the presence of a dissenter affect participants?

a)

A) It increased conformity

b)

B) It had no effect on conformity

c)

C) It decreased conformity

d)

D) It caused participants to rebel against the group

58.

Which of the following is an example of a situational attribution?

a)

A) Believing a person was late because of bad traffic

b)

B) Believing a person was late because they are disorganized

c)

C) Assuming someone is rude because they are stressed at work

d)

D) Thinking a person is quiet because they were just shy in the social situation

59.

What is the term for when a group’s desire for harmony leads to poor decision-making?

a)

Groupthink

b)

Group polarization

c)

Social loafing

d)

Conformity

60.

According to cognitive dissonance theory, when an individual experiences cognitive dissonance, they are most likely to:

a)

Deny that there is any conflict between their attitudes and behaviors

b)

Change their behavior to match their attitude or change their attitude to match their behavior

c)

Change their environment to reduce the discomfort

d)

Increase their discomfort to resolve the conflict more effectively

61.

Which of the following is a key focus of health psychology?

a)

How personality traits influence interpersonal relationships

b)

The relationship between psychological factors and physical health

c)

How cultural practices influence mental illness

d)

The effectiveness of different therapeutic techniques

62.

According to the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), which phase is characterized by the body's initial response to stress?

a)

Alarm

b)

Resistance

c)

Exhaustion

d)

Recovery

63.

Which of the following is an example of distress?

a)

Running a marathon and feeling accomplished

b)

Preparing for a final exam and feeling motivated

c)

Constantly worrying about a job interview and feeling anxious

d)

Receiving a compliment and feeling good about yourself

64.

Which coping strategy involves changing one's response to a stressor rather than changing the stressor itself?

a)

Problem-focused coping

b)

Emotion-focused coping

c)

Avoidance coping

d)

Social support

65.

Which of the following is most commonly associated with eustress?

a)

Running away from danger

b)

Experiencing a life-threatening illness

c)

A sudden, unexpected job loss

d)

Performing well in a challenging competition

66.

In the context of positive psychology, which of the following is considered a 'signature strength'?

a)

Wisdom

b)

Distrust

c)

Cognitive dissonance

d)

Neuroticism

67.

According to the diathesis-stress model, what causes psychological disorders?

a)

Genetic vulnerability and life stressors

b)

Cultural norms and practices

c)

Excessive behavioral responses to stimuli

d)

A lack of proper social support

68.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of schizophrenia?

a)

Delusions

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Excessive hand washing

d)

Disorganized speech

69.

Which psychological disorder is characterized by a chronic but mild depressive state?

a)

Bipolar I disorder

b)

Persistent depressive disorder

c)

Major depressive disorder

d)

Generalized anxiety disorder

70.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of panic disorder?

a)

Sudden feelings of terror

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Feelings of hopelessness

d)

Chest pain and choking sensations

71.

In cognitive therapy, the cognitive triad refers to negative thoughts about which of the following?

a)

A) Oneself, the world, and the future

b)

B) The past, present, and future

c)

C) Social groups, behavior, and relationships

d)

D) The mind, body, and emotions

72.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a dissociative disorder?

a)

Dissociative identity disorder

b)

Hoarding disorder

c)

Dissociative amnesia

d)

Dissociative fugue

73.

Which of the following is an example of a culture-bound syndrome?

a)

Taijin kyofusho

b)

Major depressive disorder

c)

Bipolar disorder

d)

Post-traumatic stress disorder

74.

Which of the following statements is true about post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

a)

PTSD only affects military personnel

b)

PTSD is linked to experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event

c)

PTSD symptoms last for only a few days

d)

PTSD symptoms always involve flashbacks and nightmares

75.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of hypnosis?

a)

Treating anxiety

b)

Recalling past life memories

c)

Managing pain

d)

Reducing stress