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3250 Exam 3 Review

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client is unconscious following a tonic-clonic seizure. What should the nurse do FIRST?

a)

Check the pulse.

b)

Administer Lorazepam.

c)

Place a tongue blade in the mouth.

d)

Place the client in a side-lying position.

2.

The nurse is teaching a class on the prevention of cerebrovascular accidents. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse identify as the most important factor contributing to a stroke?

a)

Smoking

b)

Sedentary lifestyle

c)

Obesity

d)

Hypertension

3.

How should a nurse caring for an elderly client with receptive and expressive aphasia communicate with the client? Select all that apply.

a)

Use a picture board or flash cards.

b)

Provide support and encouragement.

c)

Use hands to communicate.

d)

Encourage the client to initiate meaningful communication.

e)

Speak slowly.

4.

A patient has right side brain damage from a stroke. Select all the signs and symptoms that occur with this type of stroke:

a)

Aphasia

b)

Unilateral neglect

c)

Right side hemiplegia

d)

Confusion on date, time, and place

5.

You're educating a group of nursing students about left side brain damage. Select all the signs and symptoms noted with this type of stroke:

a)

Aphasia

b)

Issues with seeing on the right side

c)

Impaired math skills

d)

Denial about limitations

6.

During discharge teaching for a patient who experienced a mild stroke, you are providing details on how to eliminate risk factors for experiencing another stroke. Which risk factors below for stroke are modifiable? SATA

a)

Smoking

b)

Family history

c)

Advanced age

d)

Obesity

e)

Sedentary lifestyle

7.

You're assessing your patient's pupil size and vision after a stroke. The patient says they can only see half of the objects in the room. You document this finding as:

a)

Hemianopia

b)

Opticopsia

c)

Alexia

d)

Dysoptic

8.

A patient with Parkinson's Disease has slow movements that affects their swallowing, facial expressions, and ability to coordinate movements. As the nurse you will document the patient has:

a)

Akinesia

b)

"Freeze up" tremors

c)

Bradykinesia

d)

Pill-rollin

9.

You're providing free education to a local community group about the signs and symptoms of Parkinson's Disease. Select all the signs and symptoms a patient could experience with this disease:

a)

Shuffling of gait

b)

Constipation

c)

Increased Salivation

d)

Loss of smell

10.

A patient with Parkinson Disease is experiencing weight loss due to difficulty chewing and swallowing. Which meal option below is the best for this patient?

a)

Scrambled eggs with a side of cottage cheese

b)

Grilled cheese with apple slices

c)

Baked chicken with bacon slices

d)

Tacos with refried beans

11.

What is the most common cause of cataracts?

a)

Congenital

b)

Aging

c)

Trauma

d)

Uncontrolled blood glucose levels

12.

Which patient finding below is associated with the development of cataracts?

a)

Loss of central vision

b)

Loss of peripheral vision

c)

Cloudy, hazy vision

d)

Black spots in vision

13.

Your patient has several risk factors that increase his risk for developing cataracts. What preventive measures can you educate the patient about? Select all that apply:

a)

Quit smoking

b)

Wearing large brim hats while in the sun

c)

Reducing alcohol consumption

d)

Eating a diet rich in vegetables and fruits

e)

Scheduling regular eye exams

14.

A patient has arrived for a post-op visit to the clinic after cataract surgery in the left eye. Which statement by the patient causes concern and requires further investigation?

a)

My left eye has experienced some itchiness.

b)

The vision in my left eye was blurry for a few days.

c)

I have been experiencing flashes of light in my left eye.

d)

I had pain in my left eye after surgery and took Acetaminophen.

15.

What signs and symptoms are present with angle-closure glaucoma? Select all that apply:

a)

Sudden vision changes (halos around lights or blurred vision)

b)

Severe eye pain

c)

Corneal edema

d)

patients are mainly asymptomatic

e)

Gradual loss of peripheral vision

16.

The client is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which symptom should the nurse expect the client to report?

a)

Loss of peripheral vision

b)

Floating spots in the vision

c)

A yellow haze around everything

d)

A curtain coming across vision

17.

The client is post op retinal detachment surgery, and gas tamponade was used to flatten the retina. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

a)

Teach the signs of increased intraocular pressure.

b)

Position the client supine.

c)

Assess the eye for signs or symptoms of complications

d)

Explain the importance of follow-ups visits

18.

Which statement indicates to the nurse the client is experiencing some hearing loss?

a)

"I clean my ears every day after I take a shower".

b)

"I keep turning up the sound on my television".

c)

"My ears hurt, especially when I yawn"

d)

"I get dizzy when I get up from the chair".

19.

The client is complaining of ringing in the ears. Which data are most appropriate for the nurse to document in the client's chart?

a)

Complaints of vertigo

b)

Complaints of otorrhea

c)

Complaints of tinnitus

d)

Complaints of presbycusis

20.

The client is scheduled for ear surgery. Which statement indicates the client needs more prep operative teaching concerning the surgery?

a)

"If I have to sneeze or blow my nose, I will do it with my mouth open".

b)

"I may get dizzy after the surgery, so I must be careful when walking".

c)

"I will probably have some hearing loss after surgery, but hearing will return".

d)

"I can shampoo my hair the day after surgery as long as I am careful".

21.

The nurse working on a medical-surgical floor feels a pulling in the back when lifting a client up in the bed. Which should be the first action taken by the nurse?

a)

Continue working until the shift is over and then try to sleep on a heating pad.

b)

Go immediately to the emergency department for treatment and muscle relaxants.

c)

Inform the charge nurse and nurse manager on duty and document the occurrence.

d)

See a private health-care provider on the nurse's off time but charge the hospital.

22.

The nurse is discussing osteoporosis with a group of women. Which factor will the nurse identify as a nonmodifiable risk factor?

a)

Calcium deficiency.

b)

Tobacco use.

c)

Female gender.

d)

High alcohol intake

23.

The client diagnosed with osteoporosis asks the nurse, "Why does smoking cigarettes cause my bones to be brittle?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

a)

"Smoking causes nutritional deficiencies that contribute to osteoporosis."

b)

"Tobacco causes an increase in blood supply to the bones, causing osteoporosis."

c)

"Smoking low-tar cigarettes will not cause your bones to become brittle."

d)

"Nicotine impairs the absorption of calcium, causing decreased bone strength."

24.

The recovery room nurse is caring for a client that has just had a left BKA. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

a)

Assess the client's surgical dressing every two (2) hours.

b)

Do not allow the client to see the residual limb.

c)

Keep a large tourniquet at the client's bedside.

d)

Perform passive range-of-motion exercises to the right leg

25.

The nurse instructs the client with a right BKA to lie on the stomach for at least 30 minutes a day. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I need to lie on my stomach?" Which statement would be the most appropriate statement by the nurse?

a)

"This position will help your lungs expand better."

b)

"Lying on your stomach will help prevent contractures."

c)

"Many times this will help decrease pain in the limb."

d)

"The position will take pressure off your backside."

26.

While caring for a client diagnosed with a fracture of the right distal humerus, what data would the nurse assess that would indicate a complication? Select all that apply.

a)

Numbness and mottled cyanosis.

b)

Paresthesia and paralysis.

c)

Proximal pulses and point tenderness.

d)

Coldness of the extremity and crepitus.

e)

Palpable radial pulse and functional movement.

27.

A client who has sustained a crush injury to the right lower leg reports numbness and tingling of the affected extremity. The skin of the right leg appears pale. Which is the nurse's first intervention?

a)

Assess pedal pulses.

b)

Apply oxygen by nasal cannula.

c)

Increase the IV flow rate.

d)

Document the finding.

28.

The nurse is caring for a client who develops compartment syndrome from a severely fractured arm. The client asks the nurse how this can happen. The nurse's response is based on the understanding that:

a)

A bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area

b)

An injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment

c)

Bleeding and swelling cause increased pressure in an area that cannot expand

d)

The fascia expands with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles

29.

A client has an arm cast and reports that it feels really tight and the fingers are puffy. What is the nurse's best response?

a)

Elevate your arm on two pillows and apply ice to the cast.

b)

Continue to take ibuprofen (Motrin) until the swelling subsides.

c)

It is normal for a new cast to feel a little tight for the first few days.

d)

Please come to the clinic today to have your arm checked by the health care provider.

30.

Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs due to the accumulation of __________ in the blood that causes needle-like crystals to form around the joints.

a)
uric acid
b)

purines

c)

creatinine

d)

amino acids

31.

You’re developing a nursing care plan for a patient with gout present in the right foot. What specific nursing interventions will you include in this patient’s plan of care? Select all that apply:

a)

Encourage fluid intake of 2-3 liter per day.

b)

Provide patient with foods high in purine with each meal daily.

c)

Place patient’s right foot in a foot board while patient is in bed.

d)

Administer PRN dose of Aspirin for a pain rating greater than 5 on 1-10 scale.

e)

Apply alternating cold and warm compresses to right foot as tolerated by the patient daily.

32.

You're providing free education to a local community group about the signs and symptoms of Parkinson's Disease. Select all the signs and symptoms a patient could experience with this disease:

a)

Euphoria

b)

Coordination issues

c)

Freezing of exremeties

d)

Tremors with purposeful movement

33.

The nurse should implement which of the following methods of assisting during a seizure? (SATA)

a)

Observe the seizure

b)

Turn the client on their side

c)

Restrain the patient

d)

Provide client privacy

e)

Open the airway with a padded tongue blade

34.

The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following is a PRIORITY nursing action?

a)

Restrain the client during the seizure

b)

Suction the mouth during the convulsion

c)

Insert a tongue blade between the teeth

d)

Protect the client from injury

35.

Your education a patient about transient ischemic attack (TIAs). Which statement by the client would require further teaching (SATA)

a)

TIAs are caused by a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain

b)

TIAs produce signs and symptoms that can last several weeks to months

c)

TIAs are a warning sign that an impending stroke may occur

d)

TIAs don't require medical treatment

36.

A patient has right sided brain damage from a stroke. Which signs and symptoms would be associated with this kind of stroke (SATA)

a)

Aware of limitations

b)

Impulsive

c)

Short attention span

d)

Agraphia

37.

Youre education a group of nursing students about left side brain damage from a stroke. Which signs and symptoms are noted with this type of stroke (SATA)

a)

Disoriented

b)

Depression and anger

c)

Impulsive

d)

Agraphia

38.

In order for Tissue Plasminogen activator (tPA) to be most effective in the treatment of a stroke it must be administered:

a)

within 6 hours after the onset of symptoms

b)

within 3 hours before the onset of symptoms

c)

within 3 hours after the onset of symptoms

d)

within 12 hours before the onset of symptoms

39.

Which patients are NOT candidates for Tissue Plasminogen activator (tPA) for treatment of a stroke? (SATA)

a)

A patient with a CT scan that is negative

b)

A patient whose blood pressure is 200/110

c)

A patient who is showing signs and symptoms of an ischemic stroke

d)

A patient who received heparin 24 hours ago.

40.

Which signs and symptoms are present with angle-closure glaucoma? (SATA)

a)

Nausea and vomitting

b)

Red eyes

c)

no pain

d)

IOP <10 mmHg

41.

The client is three hours postoperative from a left AKA. The client tells the nurse "My left foot is killing me. Please do something." Which intervention should the nurse implement?

a)

Explain to the client that his left leg has been amputated

b)

Medicate the client with a narcotic analgesic immediately

c)

Instruct the client how to perform biofeedback exercises

d)

Place the client's residual limb in a dependent position

42.

The nurse is teaching a patient about non-drug measures to reduce stiffness related to psoriatic arthritis. Which instruction is appropriate?

a)

"Take frequent rest breaks and avoid most physical activity"

b)

"Apply warm compresses or take warm baths in the morning"

c)

"Use ice packs on your joints every morning before exercise."

d)

"perform intense, high-impact exercise daily."

43.

A patient with psoriatic arthritis is discharged on methotrexate. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

"I will avoid live vaccines while on this medication."

b)

"I'll keep up with routine blood work as my provider orders."

c)

"I will double the dose if I miss a weekly pill."

d)

"I will call my provider if I notice mouth sores or unusual bleeding."