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Honors Biology BM 2 Review: Enz, Cell cyc, Photo, Resp

Total questions: 181

Worksheet time: 3hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
2.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
3.

Enzymes are an example of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

4.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
5.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
6.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
7.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
8.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
9.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
10.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.
11.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shape of the enzyme are changed and it denatures

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

12.
The molecule an enzyme is working on is called the:
a)
Substrate
b)
Solvent
c)
Allosteric Inhibitor
d)
CoEnzyme
13.
Which of these is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction. 
c)
Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. 
14.
Based on the graph, what temperature does this enzyme work best? 
a)
15 C
b)
40 C
c)
30 C
d)
47 C
15.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
16.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants 
17.
Enzymes will make a reaction go _______ and use ______ energy.
a)
faster, less
b)
faster, more
c)
slower, less
d)
slower, more
18.
What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
a)
Activation energy is lowered.
b)
It becomes stronger.
c)
It loses its shape.
d)
Activation energy is raised.
19.
Every enzyme has a optimal temperature and pH. True or False?
a)
True 
b)
False
20.
Enzymes are composed of which of the following monomers? 
a)
amino acids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
nucleotides
d)
monosaccharides
21.

At which stage does the E/S complex first form?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

22.

At which stage does the active site lose its shape if the enzyme becomes denatured?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

23.

When an enzyme becomes denatured, its active site loses it shape. This means that the ______________ chains in the protein (enzyme) become disrupted and cause the protein to unravel and lose its shape.

a)

hyrocarbon

b)

amino acid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

glycoprotein

24.

Enzymes are what type of biomolecule?

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

25.

Ava is studying human physiology and is looking at a graph comparing enzyme activity at different temperatures. Which enzyme would function best in the human body?

a)

A (blue)

b)

B (red)

c)

Both

d)

Neither

26.

James is conducting an experiment on an enzyme commonly found in the human stomach. At a pH of 4, what could happen to this enzyme?

a)

It would catalyze the digestion of proteins at a faster rate.

b)

It would have no effect on its activity.

c)

It would function at its optimum activity level.

d)

It would possibly denature and lose function.

27.

In a science fair experiment, Oliver and Emma observed that under optimal pH, Catalase can speed up the complete decomposition of H2O2 in about _____ seconds.

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

80

28.

During a science fair, Michael presented an experiment on the enzyme Catalase. He explained that if the pH of Catalase were altered, it would function better at a pH of ____.

a)

1-2

b)

4

c)

12

d)

7 or 8

29.

The rate of enzymatic activity decreases after optimum temperature because enzymes start to (a)   .

30.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
31.
When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________ can result
a)
Competitive lnhibition
b)
Allosteric Regulation
c)
Non-Competitive Inhibition
d)
Feedback Inhibition
32.

A receptor site that a molecule can bind to that changes the shape of the active site is called a(n):

a)

Allosteric Site

b)

Active Site

c)

Activation site

d)

Reactant site

33.

How does pH affect enzyme action?

a)

B. Enzymes denature at neutral pH

b)

D. Enzymes are not affected by pH

c)

A. Enzymes work best at all pH levels

d)

C. Each enzyme has an optimum pH for activity

34.

What is the effect of temperature on enzyme activity?

a)

D. Enzymes are not affected by temperature

b)

C. Enzymes denature at extreme temperatures

c)

B. High temperatures prevent enzyme reactions

d)

A. Low temperatures speed up enzyme reactions

35.

What happens when enzymes are denatured?

a)

D. Enzymes increase in activity

b)

A. Enzymes lose their substrate specificity

c)

B. Enzymes become more efficient

d)

C. Enzymes change shape and lose function

36.

What happens when the active sites of enzymes become saturated?

a)

The enzyme denatures

b)

The reaction rate increases

c)

The reaction rate decreases

d)

No further increase in reaction rate

37.

What is the purpose of increasing enzyme concentration in a reaction?

a)

To stabilize the substrate

b)

To inhibit the enzyme

c)

To decrease the rate of reaction

d)

To increase the rate of reaction

38.

What type of inhibition occurs when a molecule binds to the active site of an enzyme?

a)

Competitive inhibition

b)

Non-competitive inhibition

c)

Mechanism-based inhibition

d)

Feedback inhibition

39.

How do non-competitive inhibitors affect enzyme activity?

a)

Increase the rate of reaction

b)

Decrease the rate of reaction

c)

Denature the enzyme

d)

Have no effect on the rate of reaction

40.

How does substrate concentration affect enzyme activity?

a)

A. High substrate concentration speeds up enzyme activity

b)

B. Low substrate concentration denatures enzymes

c)

C. Substrate concentration has no effect on enzyme activity

d)

D. Enzymes work best at all substrate concentrations

41.

How do allosteric inhibitors affect enzyme activity?

a)

They bind to the active site of the enzyme

b)

They increase enzyme activity

c)

They bind to a site other than the active site, altering enzyme shape

d)

They prevent substrate binding to enzymes

42.

What is the effect of substrate specificity on enzyme activity?

a)

Enzymes with high substrate specificity can bind to a wide range of substrates

b)

Enzymes with low substrate specificity can only bind to a specific substrate

c)

Substrate specificity has no impact on enzyme activity

d)

Enzymes with high substrate specificity can only bind to a specific substrate

43.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
44.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
45.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
46.
What is the correct equation for photosynthesis?
a)
C6H12O+ 6O--> 6CO2 + 6H2O
b)
6CO2 + 6O--> C6H12O + 6H2O
c)
 6CO+ 6O--> 6H2O + C6H12O6
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O  -->  6O+ C6H12O6
47.
The cell organelle that is the site for photosynthesis is called:
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleus
c)
cytoplasm
d)
chloroplast
48.

Where in the cell does cellular respiration take place?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplasts

49.

Where in the cell does photosynthesis take place?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Golgi Apparatus

50.

If carbon dioxide is removed from a plant's environment, what would you expect to happen to its production of sugar (glucose)?

a)

More sugars would be produced

b)

No sugars would be produced

c)

The same number of sugars would be produced, but without carbon dioxide

d)

Carbon dioxide does not affect the production of sugars in plants

51.

An acorn that weighs one or two ounces can grow into an oak tree weighing as much as 3 to 4 tons! Where does all of that matter come from?

a)

Mostly from the carbon dioxide found in the air

b)

Mostly from the oxygen found in the air

c)

Mostly from the water absorbed by the roots of the tree

d)

Mostly from the nutrients found in the soil

52.
Why is photosynthesis an essential process for life?
a)
It creates oxygen for animals to breathe
b)
Most food chains and food web depend on it
c)
It creates glucose for plants to use as energy
d)
All of these are correct
53.

Where does the Calvin Cycle take place?

a)

Thylakoid

b)

Grana

c)

Stroma

d)

Stoma

54.

Where does the light reaction take place?

a)

Thylakoid

b)

Grana

c)

Stroma

d)

Stoma

55.

Which of the following happens in the light reaction?

a)

Water is split into hydrogen and oxygen.

b)

Organic molecules are formed.

c)

ATP is generated.

d)

NADPH is oxidized.

56.

Chlorophyll absorbs all wavelengths of light.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

It is the process where light splits water into hydrogen and oxygen.

a)

Carbon fixation

b)

Reduction

c)

Photolysis

d)

Hydrolysis

58.

Which wavelength of light is reflected by the chlorophyll?

a)

Blue

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

59.

The Calvin cycle is also called the dark reaction because it does not need light energy, but it doesn't usually occur at night. Why?

a)

It is too cold for the reaction to take place.

b)

CO2 concentrations decrease at night.

c)

The Calvin cycle depends on the products of the light reaction.

d)

Plants usually open their stomata at night.

60.
The stacks of disks in the chloroplast are called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
61.
The interior space of the chloroplast is called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoids
62.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

63.
Glucose is a ...
a)
sugar
b)
carbohydrate
c)
source of quick energy
d)
all are correct
64.
What is the chemical formula for glucose?
a)
C6H12O6
b)
C6H6O12
c)
C12H6O12
d)
C6O2H6
65.
Which organisms perform Photosynthesis?
a)
Only Autotrophs
b)
Only Heterotrophs
c)
Autotrophs and Heterotrophs
66.
What three things are needed for a plant to do photosynthesis?
a)
Glucose, Oxygen, Sunlight
b)
CO2, Oxygen, Sunlight
c)
CO2, Water, Sunlight
d)
Oxygen, Water, Sunlight
67.
What supplies the electron that is lost in PS II?
a)
oxygen
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
rubisco
68.
How would light intensity generally affect the rate of photosynthesis?
a)
Increases the rate, up to a point
b)
Increases the rate
c)
Decreases the rate
d)
No relationship to the rate
69.

Why does the rate of photosynthesis decrease at high temperatures?

a)

Enzymes are denatured

b)

Enzymes do not have enough kinetic energy

70.

The light-DEPENDENT reaction of photosynthesis needs... (multi-select)

a)

Water

b)

Light

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Carbon Dioxide

71.

The light-INDEPENDENT reaction of photosynthesis needs...

a)

Water

b)

Light

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Carbon Dioxide

72.

What is the electron carrier molecule for photosynthesis?

a)

FAD

b)

NADP+

c)

NAP+

d)

GLUT+

73.

The light-DEPENDENT reactions produce (select all that apply)

a)

ATP

b)

NADPH

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sugar

74.

The light-INDEPENDENT reactions produce (select all that apply)

a)

ADP

b)

NADP+

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sugar

75.

What is the name for the light-INDEPENDENT reaction of photosynthesis?

a)

Krebs Cycle

b)

Water Cycle

c)

Calvin Cycle

d)

Carbon Cycle

76.

Identify what is shown in the picture

a)

chlorophyll

b)

stomata

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

veins

77.

What protects Stomata and helps it in opening and closing?

a)

Guard Cells

b)

Leaf

c)

Stem

d)

Carbon Dioxide

78.

Of the selection given, select all that are correct parts of a leaf.

a)

Palisade Mesophyll

b)

Upper Epidermis

c)

Esophagus

d)

Guard cell

79.

What is the relationship between the plant and the duck?

a)

"A" represents oxygen produced by the duck and "B" represents carbon dioxide produced by the plant

b)

"A" represents carbon dioxide produced by the plant and "B" represents oxygen produced by the duck

c)

"A" represents oxygen produced by the plant and "B" represents carbon dioxide produced by the Duck

d)

"A" represents the sunlight received by the plant and "B" represents the oxygen produced by the duck

80.

Which describes the transfer in this image?

a)

Carbon Dioxide from the air becomes glucose in the plant. The deer ingest the glucose and it becomes carbon.

b)

Carbon Dioxide from the air becomes water in the plant. The deer ingest the water and it becomes oxygen.

c)

Oxygen from the air becomes carbon dioxide in the plant. The deer ingest the carbon dioxide and it becomes carbon.

d)

Water from the air becomes Oxygen in the plant. The deer ingest the Water and it becomes Oxygen.

81.

What is released as a waste product from photosynthesis?

a)

CO₂

b)

H₂O

c)

C₆H₁₂O₆

d)

O₂

82.

Which "energy-carrying molecules" are produced from the light-dependent reaction?

a)

Carbon-Dioxide & Water

b)

ATP & NADPH

c)

Glucose & ATP

d)

Glucose & Water

83.

What is produced from the light-independent reaction in photosynthesis?

a)

Glucose

b)

NADPH

c)

ATP

d)

Oxygen

84.

What does the prefix "chemo" mean? Ex: CHEMO-synthesis

a)

Light

b)

Color

c)

Cell

d)

Chemical

85.

What is another name for the light-dependent reaction in photosynthesis?

a)

Calvin Cycle

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Chlorophyll

86.

What are the PRODUCTS of photosynthesis?

a)

CO₂ and O₂

b)

H₂O and O₂

c)

CO₂ and H₂O

d)

C₆H₁₂O₆ and O₂

87.

What are the REACTANTS for photosynthesis?

a)

CO₂ and O₂

b)

H₂O and O₂

c)

CO₂ and H₂O

d)

C₆H₁₂O₆ and O₂

88.
What does carbon combine with to form glucose? 
a)
NADPH
b)
ATP
c)
RuBP
d)
G3P
89.

One molecule of G3P is made during a single turn of the Calvin Cycle. How many G3P molecules does it take to make one glucose?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

90.

Where in the chloroplast does the Calvin Cycle take place?

a)

thylakoids

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

nucleus

91.
Chloroplasts are...
a)
Structures of animal cells to produce ATP
b)
Organelles where lipids are elaborated
c)
Specialized structures of plants where food is made
d)
Waste organelle of plants
92.
What happens to NADPH and ATP after they are used in the Calvin Cycle?
a)
they recycle back to the light reactions
b)
they are used to make G3P
93.
What is the product of the Calvin Cycle?
a)
Rubisco
b)
Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate (G3P)
c)
Oxygen
d)
Starch
94.

What does light do when it strikes the chlorophyll molecules of photosystems I and II?

a)

Light causes glucose to be synthesized directly inside the chlorophyll molecules of the photosystems.

b)

Light causes electrons to get excited (gain energy) and travel down the electron transport chain embedded in the thylakoid membrane.

c)

Light causes the conversion of water into carbon dioxide, oxygen, and electrons.

d)

Light directly causes carbon dioxide to attach to RuBP during the carbon fixation stage of the Calvin Cycle.

95.
Where do the light reactions happen?
a)
mitochondria membrane
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
stroma
d)
central vacuole
96.
It is important to create a concentration of H+  in the thylakoid space so that the H+ can diffuse through_________ to create ______.
a)
ATP synthase, ATP
b)
NADH, NADPH
c)
proton pump, protons
97.

Which of the following is true?

a)

PS1 comes before PSII

b)

PSII comes before PS1

98.
What is the ultimate source of energy for life on Earth?
a)
glucose
b)
sunlight
c)
ATP
d)
H2O
99.
What is the purpose of splitting water in PS2 of the light dependent reaction?
a)
Provides e- for PS2 and H+ for the thylakoid space
b)
To produce Oxygen for animals
c)
There is no purpose
100.
According to this absorption spectrum, what color is not used by the chlorophyll pigments?
a)
green
b)
blue
c)
yellow
d)
red
101.

Water splits into what three things?

a)

oxygen, electrons, hydrogen ions

b)

electrons, ATP, and NADPH

c)

Rubisco, RuBP, G3P

d)

hydrogen ions, electrons, carbon dioxide

102.

ATP and NADPH are made in the _______________ and used in the _________________

a)

Stroma, Chlorophyll

b)

Calvin cycle, Krebs cycle

c)

dark reactions, light reactions

d)

light dependent reactions, light independent reactions

103.

ATP stands for

a)

After the product

b)

photosynthesis

c)

ADP

d)

adenosine triphosphate

104.

ADP stands for

a)

cytoplasm

b)

Adenosine diphosphate

c)

mitochondria

d)

Automatic data process

105.

Glycolysis occurs in which part of the cell?

a)

ADP

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

106.

What three things are needed for cellular respiration to happen?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

kreb cycle

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

107.

Examine the illustration of the photosynthesis equation. How does the equation relate to both photosynthesis and cellular respiration, and what is the connection between the two processes?

a)

Photosynthesis utilizes energy to build carbohydrates, while cellular respiration metabolizes carbohydrates.

b)

Photosynthesis utilizes energy to metabolize carbohydrates, while cellular respiration builds carbohydrates.

c)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both utilize carbon dioxide and water to produce carbohydrates.

d)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both metabolize carbohydrates to produce carbon dioxide and water.

108.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to 
a)
make water
b)

make energy

c)
make glucose
d)
make  oxygen
109.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
110.

Where does Glycolysis occur inside the cell? (first step in the overall process)

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Nucleus

111.
Cellular respiration is...
a)
the process by which cells break down glucose into energy. 
b)
the process by which cells break light down into energy. 
c)
the process by which cells communicate with other cells. 
112.
Why must chemical equations be balanced?
a)
So that the equation doesn't explode
b)
The reaction won't happen until it is balanced
c)

Atoms cannot be created or destroyed, merely rearranged

d)
None of these
113.

_________________ are the molecules and atoms that exit or are made from a chemical reaction.

a)

Reactants

b)

Products

114.

Which molecule is NOT a high energy hydrogen carrier?

a)

FADH2

b)

NADH

c)

oxygen

115.

Where does the Citric acid cycle take place?

a)

matrix of mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

cytoplasm

d)

Inner membrane of mitochondria

116.
This is referred to as the energy currency of the cell
a)
ADP
b)
ATP
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Nucleus
117.

Each glucose (6C) produces how many pyruvic acid (3C) molecules?

a)

5

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

118.

Which step of aerobic cellular respiration makes the most ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Citric Acid Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Light Dependent Reactions

119.

Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of

a)

2 ATP

b)

4 ATP

c)

32 ATP

d)

36 ATP

120.

What is the fate of pyruvic acid if oxygen is not present?

a)

Stored in muscles for later use

b)

Enters citric acid cycle

c)

Converted to acetyl CoA through linking step

d)

Converted to lactic acid via fermentation pathway

121.

What happens to the carbon atoms in glucose during cellular respiration?

a)

They are exhaled as CO2CO_2  

b)

They disappear

c)

They are broken down and dissolve

d)

They stay in the mitochondria forever

122.

What statement best describes what happens in the electron transport chain?

a)

NADH and FADH2 drop off hydrogens to form large quantities of ATP

b)

pyruvic acid is formed from breaking down glucose

c)

CO2 is released and H2O and ATP

d)

glucose is broken down and ATP is formed

123.

What is the role of oxygen in cellular respiration?

a)

combines with other oxygen atoms and is liberated from cells

b)

it is a waste product

c)

provides the energy for the whole process of respiration

d)

acts as the final electron acceptor

124.

If oxygen is not present, pyruvate molecules undergo what?

a)

Fermentation

b)

Degradation

c)

Biosynthesis

d)

Biology

125.

Where exactly does the citric acid cycle take place within the cell?

a)

The cell membrane

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

The inner membrane of the mitochondria

d)

the mitochondria

126.

In the final stage of the electron transport chain what do hydrogen ions and electrons combine with to form water?

a)

Oxygen

b)

ATP synthase

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

ADP

127.

What are the products of fermentation in plant cells and yeast?

(a)  

128.

What product of photosynthesis is used during cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose

b)

Oxygen

c)

ATP

d)

ADP

129.

What is the purpose of a cell constantly producing ATP?

a)

provide the cell with energy

b)

provide the cell with energye

c)

To keep the cell running

d)

To help it stay alive

130.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

131.

True or False? Before cells undergo meiosis they pass through interphase first.

a)

true

b)

false

132.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

133.

In which stage of MEIOSIS does crossing over occur? (The exchange of genetic material between chromosomes in a tetrad.)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Telophase I

134.

In Metaphase I, tetrads line up along the _______.

a)

mitotic spindle

b)

centrosomes

c)

equatorial plane

d)

contractile ring

135.

In Anaphase I, the _________ are separated by the pulling of the spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

centrosomes

136.

Check all of the following that DO occur during Telophase I and cytokinesis.

a)

The separated homologous chromosomes are at opposite poles of the cell.

b)

The cell divides in two.

c)

The chromosomes do not uncoil, since they are getting ready for Meiosis II.

d)

Sister chromatids are pulled away from each other.

137.

At the start of Meiosis II, which of the following is NOT true?

a)

There are two cells.

b)

The cells are haploid.

c)

The chromosomes are paired up as homologues.

d)

DNA is present as two sister chromatids joined at the centromere.

138.

In Prophase II, the_________ reforms and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome.

a)

mitotic spindle

b)

centrosomes

c)

nucleus

d)

cell plate

139.

In Metaphase II, _________ line up on equatorial plane.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

single chromosomes (made up of 2 sister chromatids)

c)

tetrads

d)

centrosomes

140.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

141.

How many cells are formed at the end of Meiosis II?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

142.

True or False. In Meiosis II, there are TWO cells that go through each phase at the same time.

a)

true

b)

false

143.

Which of the following does NOT happen during Telophase II?

a)

the nuclei reform

b)

each cell begins to split evenly in two

c)

the chromosomes duplicate

d)

the nuclei contain a haploid number of chromosomes

144.

Which of the following are CORRECT observations about the differences between MITOSIS and MEIOSIS? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Mitosis produces cells that identical to the parent cell.

b)

Meiosis produces cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

All cells go through INTERPHASE as part of the cell cycle, whether it goes to mitosis or meiosis next.

d)

In both types of cell division, the chromosomes are only duplicated once.

e)

Only in Mitosis, do you see chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad.

145.

Which part of MEIOSIS is identical to MITOSIS?

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

146.

The products of MEIOSIS have _______ number of chromosomes.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

147.

Gorillas have 48 chromosomes in their skin cells. How many chromosomes would a female gorilla have in her egg cells?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

48

d)

96

148.

Mangos have a diploid number of 40. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in the peel of a mango?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

80

149.

The G1, S, and G2 are parts of which phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

150.

Cells of organisms must replicate for?

a)

Growth

b)

Replacement of dying cells

c)

Repair of damaged cells

d)

All of the above

151.

Why do cells go through mitosis?

a)

to make food from sunlight

b)

to get air into the cells

c)

to create proteins

d)

to reproduce, grow, and repair/replace cells

152.

How many chromosomes does a human somatic (body) cell have?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

42

d)

26

153.
Programmed cell death refers to..... 
a)
Apoptosis 
b)
Helionisis 
c)
Karyokinesis
d)
Meiosis 
154.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
Gap 1 
b)
Synthesis
c)
Gap 2
d)
Gap 0
155.

What is this phase of Mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

156.
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
157.
Identify the process.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis I
c)
Meiosis II
d)
Interphase
158.

Is the following cell diploid or haploid?

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

159.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
160.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
161.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
162.
Structure B is pointing to the _____. 
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
163.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
164.
Which phase comes NEXT?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
165.
Which of the following is NOT occuring during interphase?
a)
Cell growth
b)
DNA being copied
c)
DNA condensing
d)
Two new cells are made
166.
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
167.
In which phase does the cell spend most of it's life?
a)
Interphase
b)
Nuclear Division
c)
Telophase
d)
Mitosis
168.

Check the two correct boxes:

a)

Plant Cell - cell plate; Animal Cell - cleavage furrow

b)

Plant Cell - cleavage furrow; Animal Cell - cell plate

169.

A disorder in which some of the body's cells lose the ability to control growth.

a)

growth factor

b)

human growth hormone

c)

cancer

d)

tumor

170.

Mass of rapidly dividing cells that can damage surrounding tissue.

a)

growth factor

b)

human growth hormone

c)

cancer

d)

tumor

171.

Apoptosis is

a)

the process of programmed cell death

b)

the process of programmed cell growth

c)

the process of programmed cell birth

d)

the process of programmed cell regulation

172.

Cyclin is a family of proteins that regulates what?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Cell Cycle

d)

Interphase

173.

Which type of tumor causes more damage?

a)

malignant

b)

benign

c)

premalignant

174.

Which is a function of cyclins?

a)

Cyclins are carbohydrates that regulate DNA replication during the mitosis phase of the cell cycle.

b)

Cyclins are glycoproteins that repair DNA in the beginning of cell cycle.

c)

Cyclins are proteins that regulate when and how often a cell divides.

175.

What is the purpose of interphase in the cell cycle?

a)

active cell growth and cytokinesis

b)

active growth and metabolism of the cell

c)

active division of the plasma membrane before mitosis

d)

None of These

176.

An organism is living in a rapidly changing environment. Sexual reproduction is advantageous to an organism in this situation because–

a)

sexual reproduction produces more offspring than asexual reproduction within a given time period.

b)

sexual reproduction produces offspring with more variation, some of which may be better adapted to a new environment.

c)

sexual reproduction requires more time to complete, allowing the environment to become more stable.

d)

offspring produced by sexual reproduction grows to maturity more rapidly

177.

Scientists can determine whether a colony of sea anemones was produced sexually or asexually by ___________.

a)

counting the number of individual polyps

b)

Examining the diet of each polyp

c)

Examining the genetic diversity of each polyp

d)

Looking at environmental stability over time.

178.

Which of the following is a characteristic of asexual reproduction?

a)

It involves male and female gametes.

b)

It produces genetically identical offspring.

c)

It produces small number of offspring.

d)

It is most common in humans

179.

In meiosis, the original cell is __________ . This means it has __________ sets of chromosomes.

a)

diploid; 2

b)

diploid; 3

c)

haploid; 2

d)

haploid; 3

180.

After duplication, at what point does a cell become two cells with identical DNA?

a)

starting in prophase

b)

end of anaphase

c)

end of cytokinesis

d)

at the end of interphase

181.

SB1b. A diagram of meiosis is provided below. The diagram clearly represents meiosis because of which of the following items?

a)

The process happens in exactly three steps.

b)

The number of chromosomes remains constant throughout.

c)

The end result is cells with half the genetic material.

d)

There is a representation of genetic mutation.