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Macro Unit 1

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In calculating GDP of that sector, we know that the total value added of that sector is .......

a)

$3.5

b)

$10.0

c)

$15.5

d)

$31.0

2.

Daffa buys stock $1,000. He has to pay $50 for broker fee. How much can be counted in GDP?

a)

$1000 (only the stock)

b)

$1050 (stock + broker fee)

c)

$0 (neither stock nor broker fee)

d)

$50 (only the broker fee)

3.

Which of these following example can be counted in GDP?

a)

Your grandmother wins $10 million in the lottery

b)

Company A takeover by purchasing all the assets of Company B

c)

Buy mozzarella cheese to store it as restaurant's inventory

d)

You buy a used copy of this textbook

4.

Gross National Product minus Net National Product is called ...

a)

Net National Product

b)

Gross Domestic Product

c)

Indirect Tax

d)

Depreciation

5.

Gross National Product minus Net National Product is called ...

a)

Net National Product

b)

Gross Domestic Product

c)

Indirect Tax

d)

Depreciation

6.

Please calculate Nominal GDP in 2017...

a)

$6.7

b)

$5.1

c)

$8.4

d)

No answers are correct

7.

How much Deflator GDP in 2018?

a)

100

b)

123.45

c)

125.37

d)

127.35

8.

Please calculate economic growth from the data above!

a)

37.13%

b)

33.17%

c)

30.37%

d)

31.37%

9.

The term when govt budget deficit raising real interest rate and decrease investment is called

a)

Ricardo-barro effect

b)

Crowding - in effect

c)

Multiplier effect

d)

Crowding - out effect

10.

if we pay tax and consume goods, but still have money left, we keep the money in the bank as

a)

Private Saving

b)

Public Saving

c)

National Saving

d)

Investment Saving

11.

Which one is considered to be business fixed investment?

a)

Build a new house

b)

Increase stock in warehouse

c)

Build a new factory plant

d)

Buy a sharia mutual fund

12.

How do we calculate Real GDP?

a)

Price Index = Price of the market basket/price of the same basket times 100

b)

nominal GDP / real GDP

c)

nominal GDP /price index(in hundredths)

d)

CPI(year 2) - CPI(year 1)/CPI(year 1) times 100

13.

What is the consumer price index formula?

a)

nominal GDP /price index in hundredths

b)

nominal GDP/ real GDP

c)

Price of the market basket/price of the same basket times 100

14.

What is the GDP deflator formula?

a)

Price of the market basket/price of the same basket times 100

b)

nominal GDP / real GDP

c)

nominal GDP /price index

15.

Are used goods counted in GDP?

a)

No

b)

Yes

16.

Are stocks counted in GDP?

a)

NO

b)

YES

17.

Are used goods counted in GDP?

a)

No

b)

Yes

18.

Who gains from Unanticipated inflation?

a)

borrowers

b)

sellers

19.

Who is hurt by unanticipated inflation?

a)

savers

b)

lenders

c)

people on fixed incomes

d)

all of them

20.

What is the difference between real GDP and nominal GDP?

a)

Real GDP is adjusted for price changes; nominal GDP is not adjusted for price changes

b)

nominal GDP is adjusted for price changes; real GDP is not adjusted for price changes

21.

The base year is always ......

a)

1

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

22.

If the price index is greater than 100, there is ....

a)

inflation

b)

deflation

23.

What is a method to calculate GDP of year x ?

a)

quantity of good produced in year x times base prices

b)

nominal /price index in hundredths

c)

both

24.

How do you calculate nominal GDP ?

a)

quantity of good produced in year x times base prices

b)

price times quantity of everything added up

c)

neither

25.

Which of the costs of inflation does the following statement illustrate?, " When there is inflation, grocery stores have to update the prices associated with the bar codes on their products."

a)

menu costs

b)

shoe leather costs

c)

unit of account costs

d)

nominal costs

e)

time costs

26.

When the actual inflation rate is greater than the anticipated inflation rate, which of the following is most likely to suffer?

a)

retired persons with a cost of living adjustment in their benefits

b)

those who lend with flexible interest rates

c)

those who lend at a fixed interest rate

27.

Unexpected increases in inventories usually precede...

a)

decreases in production

b)

decreases in unemployment

c)

increase in imports

d)

decreases in production/ recession

28.

What type of unemployment would increase if workers lost their jobs because of a recession?

a)

cyclical

b)

frictional

c)

seasonal

d)

search

29.

In 1 year, spending on consumption, investment, and government purchases was equal to 103 percent of a country's gross domestic product. This would be possible if only if...

a)

the money supply increases

b)

net exports are (+)

c)

net exports are (-)

d)

the government ran a budget surplus

30.

Which of the following is a leakage from the circular flow of economic activity?

a)

saving

b)

investment

c)

exports

d)

government spending

e)

income

31.

Suppose a factory added 5k worth of output this year. Incidentally, the waste from this factory caused 1k worth of loss to the neighboring waterways. As a result, gross domestic product will...

a)

increase by 1k

b)

decrease by 1k

c)

increase by 5k

d)

decrease by 4k

32.

Which of the following is true if real GDP in Year 1 is 5000 and in Year 2 is 5200?

a)

the economy is experiencing a recession

b)

the economy is experiencing 4 percent inflation

c)

output change is uncertain

d)

output has declined by 4 percent

e)

output has increased by 4 percent

33.

Consider a country that can produce only two goods: cars and computers. The country is currently operating on its Production Possibility Curve (PPC). If the country decides to produce more cars, what is the opportunity cost of this decision?

a)

The additional resources needed to produce more cars.

b)

The decrease in the production of computers.

c)

The increase in the production of both cars and computers.

d)

The total cost of producing cars.

34.

A new technology is introduced that makes the production of both goods more efficient. How would this affect the Production Possibility Curve (PPC) of an economy?

a)

The PPC would shift inward.

b)

The PPC would remain unchanged.

c)

The PPC would shift outward.

d)

The PPC would become a straight line.

35.

Assume the market for smartphones is initially in equilibrium. If there is a sudden increase in consumer income and smartphones are a normal good, what is the likely effect on the equilibrium price and quantity of smartphones?

a)

Equilibrium price will decrease, and equilibrium quantity will increase.

b)

Equilibrium price will increase, and equilibrium quantity will decrease.

c)

Equilibrium price and quantity will both increase.

d)

Equilibrium price and quantity will both decrease.

36.

A government imposes a price ceiling on rental apartments below the current equilibrium price. What is the most likely outcome in the rental market?

a)

A surplus of rental apartments.

b)

A shortage of rental apartments.

c)

No change in the rental market.

d)

An increase in the quality of rental apartments.

37.

If the demand for a product is price elastic, what would be the effect of a price increase on the total revenue of the firm selling the product?

a)

Total revenue would increase.

b)

Total revenue would decrease.

c)

Total revenue would remain unchanged.

d)

Total revenue would first increase, then decrease.

38.

A country is considering reallocating resources from the production of consumer goods to capital goods. What is the long-term impact of this decision on the country's economic growth?

a)

Economic growth will decrease.

b)

Economic growth will remain unchanged.

c)

Economic growth will increase.

d)

Economic growth will first decrease, then increase.

39.

Consider a market where the supply curve is perfectly inelastic. If there is an increase in demand, what will happen to the equilibrium price and quantity?

a)

Equilibrium price will increase, and equilibrium quantity will remain unchanged.

b)

Equilibrium price will decrease, and equilibrium quantity will increase.

c)

Equilibrium price and quantity will both increase.

d)

Equilibrium price will remain unchanged, and equilibrium quantity will increase.

40.

If a country is operating inside its Production Possibility Curve (PPC), what does this indicate about the country's resource utilization?

a)

The country is using all its resources efficiently.

b)

The country is experiencing economic growth.

c)

The country is not using all its resources efficiently.

d)

The country is producing at maximum capacity.

41.

In the context of opportunity cost, which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept?

a)

A student chooses to study for an exam instead of going to a movie.

b)

A company increases its production of goods without any additional cost.

c)

A government decides to print more money to stimulate the economy.

d)

A farmer uses a new type of fertilizer to increase crop yield.

42.

How would an increase in the price of a substitute good affect the demand for a product?

a)

Demand for the product would decrease.

b)

Demand for the product would increase.

c)

Demand for the product would remain unchanged.

d)

Demand for the product would first decrease, then increase.

43.
What is the fundamental problem of economics? 
a)
How to keep consumers out of debt?
b)
How to fulfill our unlimited wants and needs with limited resources?
c)
How to figure out the way to make the most money?
d)
How do we ensure all people get a college education?
44.
What is the definition of the economic term Opportunity Cost?
a)
the value of the next best alternative that is given up due to the choice you made 
b)
The price you pay to purchase something 
c)
The benefit you gain by making a decision 
d)
The amount of debt you take on by making a decision 
45.

What does point B represent?

a)

Production at greater than the country's minimum potential

b)

Production is less than the country's minimum potential

c)

Production is greater than the country's maximum potential

d)

Production at the country's maximum potential

46.
What does point Y represent on the PPC?
a)
Efficiency
b)
Unattainable / impossible
c)
Inefficency
d)
Nothing
47.
What is the fundamental problem of economics? 
a)
How to keep consumers out of debt?
b)
How to fulfill our unlimited wants and needs with limited resources?
c)
How to figure out the way to make the most money?
d)
How do we ensure all people get a college education?
48.
What is the definition of the economic term Opportunity Cost?
a)
the value of the next best alternative that is given up due to the choice you made 
b)
The price you pay to purchase something 
c)
The benefit you gain by making a decision 
d)
The amount of debt you take on by making a decision 
49.

What does point B represent?

a)

Production at greater than the country's minimum potential

b)

Production is less than the country's minimum potential

c)

Production is greater than the country's maximum potential

d)

Production at the country's maximum potential

50.
What does point Y represent on the PPC?
a)
Efficiency
b)
Unattainable / impossible
c)
Inefficency
d)
Nothing
51.

The following diagram shows the production possibility frontier for an economy that produces bread and honey.


If the economy is initially at point W, then the opportunity cost of moving to point X is

a)

6 units of honey.

b)

8 units of honey.

c)

12 units of bread.

d)

23 units of bread.

52.

The table shows the production possibilities for a country. Based on the table, which of the following production combinations is a possibility?

a)

5 pairs of shoes and 28 pizzas

b)

3 pairs of shoes and 23 pizzas

c)

2 pairs of shoes and 20 pizzas

d)

4 pairs of shoes and 15 pizzas

53.

Products that we usually use/consume together.

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Related goods

d)

Pairs

54.

Products that we can use instead of each other.

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Related goods

d)

Pairs

55.

Which graph shows an increase in demand?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

56.

Which graph shows an increase in the quantity demanded?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

If demand for a good decreases when people's income increases

a)

The good is an inferior good

b)

The law of demand is violated

c)

The good is a normal good

d)

The good's demand curve is upward sloping

58.

New technology advances the rate at which furniture can be assembled. Why does this change the supply?

a)

Change in cost of production

b)

Changes in number of producers

c)

Changes in expectations

59.

If only the price for a good or service changes, does the demand curve shift? Why or why not?

a)

Yes, Price shifts the demand curve to the right because less people are being goods

b)

Yes, Price shifts the demand curve to the left because more people are buying goods

c)

No, Because price does not shift the curve. Price stays on the line

d)

No, because price does not impact the points on the curve

e)

Yes and No. The price shifts the curve sometimes, but not always

60.
What is the Equilibrium Price?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
61.

When quantity supplied is smaller than quantity demanded, you have a ____________.

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

deficit

d)

equilibrium

62.

What is the difference between a shortage and scarcity?

a)

A shortage is temporary but scarcity always exists

b)

A shortage results from rising prices; scarcity results from falling prices

c)

A shortage is lack of all goods and services; scarcity concerns a single item

d)

There is no real difference between a shortage and scarcity

63.
The simplified production possibilities curves for country A and B are shown. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a)
Country A has the comparative advantage in both goods
b)
Country A has the comparative advantage in chairs & Country B has the comparative advantage in shirts
c)
Country B has the absolute advantage in shirts only
d)
Country A has the comparative advantage in shirts & Country B has the comparative advantage in chairs
64.
Money loses its value when it
a)
It becomes too plentiful
b)
becomes too portabale
c)
is divisible
d)
is durable
65.

Unlimited wants, limited resources

a)

Revenue

b)

Scarcity

c)

Marginal Cost

d)

Opportunity Cost

66.

The study of choices a society makes in response to scarcity

a)

Marginal Cost

b)

Utility

c)

Trade-offs

d)

Economics

67.

The most desirable alternative given up when a choice is made:

a)

Theoretical Economics

b)

Opportunity Cost

c)

Marginal Analysis

d)

Marginal Economics

68.

The producer that can produce the most output or require the least amount of resources for production is:

a)

Input

b)

Output

c)

Absolute Advantage

d)

Comparative Advantage

69.

The producer with the lowest opportunity cost.

Example: The only one country can have the __________ in one good, but never both.

a)

Normative Statements

b)

Comparative Advantage

c)

Absolute Advantage

d)

Marginal Benefit

70.

Allie is shopping when she finds a pair of running shoes priced at $90. When Allie uses her debit card to pay, it is declined because her balance is insufficient to cover the cost of the running shoes. Allie's situation best illustrates which economic concept?

a)

opportunity cost

b)

trade

c)

unlimited resources

d)

scarcity

e)

trade

71.

A city government received a $1 million grant to build swimming pools and skating rinks for youth. Based on the data provided in the graph, what is the opportunity cost of building one swimming pool.

a)

.50 skating rink

b)

.50 swimming pool

c)

2 skating rinks

d)

2 swimming pools

e)

5 skating rinks

72.

The table above shows the maximum amount of trucks or coffee that China and Malaysia can produce using the same amount of resources. Based on the data provided, which of the following terms of trade are mutually beneficial for the two countries?

a)

1 ton of coffee for 3 trucks

b)

1 ton of coffee for 4 trucks

c)

1 ton of coffee for 5 trucks

d)

1 truck for 1 ton of coffee

e)

1 truck for 5 tons of coffee

73.

Home Nation can produce five autos or one hundred computers using all its available resources in a year. Foreign Nation can produce five autos or fifty computers using all its available resources in a year.

Based on the information provided above, which of the following are mutually beneficial terms of trade at which both Home and Foreign Nation will be willing to specialize and exchange?

a)

1 auto for 1 computer

b)

1 auto for 10 computers

c)

1 auto for 17 computers

d)

1 auto for 20 computers

e)

1 auto for 25 computers

74.

Which of the following statements is accurate given the chart?

a)

Country B has an absolute advantage in the production of cars and a comparative advantage in the production of bikes.

b)

Country B has an absolute advantage in the production of cars and a comparative advantage in the production of cars.

c)

Country A has an absolute advantage in the production of cars and a comparative advantage in the production of bikes.

d)

Country A has an absolute advantage in the production of bikes and a comparative advantage in the production of bikes.

e)

Country A has an absolute advantage in the production of both goods.

75.

If two nations specialize according to their individual comparative advantages and engage in trade, then which of the following must be true?

a)

Nations would be better off if they were self-sufficient.

b)

If one nation gains from trade with the other nation, then the other nation will lose.

c)

Both nations can consume only what they produce.

d)

Both nations can consume beyond their individual production possibilities.

e)

Both nations will lose from trade.

76.

Based on the information in the table above, which of the following is true?

a)

Peru has a comparative advantage in producing wheat.

b)

Peru has an absolute advantage in producing wheat.

c)

Brazil has an absolute advantage in producing wheat.

d)

Peru has a comparative advantage in producing coffee.

e)

Brazil has a comparative advantage in producing coffee.

77.

Which of the following is always true of an economy operating on its production possibilities frontier?

a)

It will necessarily operate on the same frontier the following year.

b)

It cannot trade with other nations because it is the most efficient producer of tradeable goods.

c)

It is allocatively efficient.

d)

Its resources are fully employed.

e)

It must be a command economy.

78.
The opportunity cost of producing an additional unit of product A is
a)
all of the human and capital resources used to produce product A
b)
the retail price paid for product A
c)
the amount of product B that cannot now be produced because of product A
d)
the profit that was earned from producing product A
79.
Two nations, Mars and Venus, each produce food and clothing. The table gives points on each nation’s PPF. The asterisks indicate their current point of production.
In Mars, the opportunity cost of obtaining the first two units of food is how many units of clothing?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
6
d)
12
80.
Two nations, Mars and Venus, each produce food and clothing. The table gives points on each nation’s PPF. The asterisks indicate their current point of production.
In Venus, the opportunity cost of the first unit of
a)
food is two units of clothing
b)
food is eight units of clothing
c)
clothing is two units of food
d)
clothing is eight units of food
81.
Two nations, Mars and Venus, each produce food and clothing. The table gives points on each nation’s PPF. The asterisks indicate their current point of production.
Which of the following statementsis correct based on the concept of comparative advantage?
a)
Mars and Venus should continue producing the quantities indicated by the asterisks.
b)
Mars should specialize in the production of food.
c)
Mars should specialize in the production of clothing.
82.
If there is an increase in demand for a good, what will most likely happen to the price and quantity of the good exchanged?
a)
Increase Price; Increase Quantity
b)
Decrease Price; Increase Quantity
c)
Increase Price; Decrease Quantity
d)
Decrease Price; Decrease Quantity
83.
If the demand for a good or service decreases, the equilibrium price and quantity are most likely to change in which of the following ways?
a)
Increase Price; Increase Quantity
b)
Decrease Price; Increase Quantity
c)
Increase Price; Decrease Quantity
d)
Decrease Price; Decrease Quantity
84.
An increase in the price of peanut butter will cause the demand curve for jelly to shift in which of the following directions?
a)
To the right, if jelly is purchased by people with lower incomes and peanut butter is a luxury good for them
b)
To the right, if peanut butter and jelly are complementary goods
c)
To the left, if peanut butter and jelly are complementary goods
d)
To the left, if peanut butter and jelly are substitute goods
85.
An increase in the price of gasoline will most likely cause the demand curve for tires to change in which direction?
a)
To the left, because gasoline and tires are substitutes
b)
To the left, because gasoline and tires are complements
c)
To the right, because gasoline and tires are substitutes
d)
To the right, because gasoline and tires are complements
86.
All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except
a)
a decrease in the price of beef
b)
a change in people’s tastes with respect to beef
c)
an increase in the money incomes of beef consumers
d)
expectations that beef prices will fall in the future
87.
Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the supply of peanut butter?
a)
The price of peanuts 
b)
The wages of peanut butter factory workers 
c)
The income of peanut butter consumers
d)
Existing peanut butter making technology
88.
Which of the following will cause an increase in demand for snowboards?
a)
More costly production methods 
b)
A decrease in the price of lift tickets at resorts in Colorado 
c)
A decrease in consumer income   
d)
A decrease in the population 
89.
What does a “surplus” (extra amount) of goods in a market imply?
a)
Prices are too high
b)
Prices are too low
c)
Supply is too low
d)
Demand is too high
90.
In general, if the price of a good or service goes down, what happens to the demand for that good or service?
a)
demand goes up
b)
demand stays the same
c)
demand goes down
d)
none of the above
91.
Amazon Prime is selling Smencils.  There are only a few packs left and they are very popular.  What will happen to the price?
a)
The price will go up.
b)
The price will go down.
92.
The amount of goods or services available is called?
a)
supply
b)
demand
c)
producer
d)
consumer
93.
An individual or group who purchases goods.
a)
producer
b)
consumer
c)
goods
d)
services
94.
A group of buyer and sellers of a particular good or service
a)
Supply
b)
Demand
c)
Agency
d)
Market
95.

The diagram represents a(n)

a)

increase in supply

b)

decrease in supply

c)

change in quantity supplied

d)

none of the above

96.

The diagram represents a

a)

increase in demand

b)

decrease in demand

c)

change in quantity demand

d)

none of the above

97.
What is the fundamental problem of economics? 
a)
How to keep consumers out of debt?
b)
How to fulfill our unlimited wants and needs with limited resources?
c)
How to figure out the way to make the most money?
d)
How do we ensure all people get a college education?
98.
What is the definition of the economic term Opportunity Cost?
a)
the value of the next best alternative that is given up due to the choice you made 
b)
The price you pay to purchase something 
c)
The benefit you gain by making a decision 
d)
The amount of debt you take on by making a decision 
99.

What does point B represent?

a)

Production at greater than the country's minimum potential

b)

Production is less than the country's minimum potential

c)

Production is greater than the country's maximum potential

d)

Production at the country's maximum potential

100.
What does point Y represent on the PPC?
a)
Efficiency
b)
Unattainable / impossible
c)
Inefficency
d)
Nothing
101.

What is the Opportunity Cost of moving from C to A? (Think in the terms of what do we have to forgo in the process.)

(a)  

102.

The following diagram shows the production possibility frontier for an economy that produces bread and honey.


If the economy is initially at point W, then the opportunity cost of moving to point X is

a)

6 units of honey.

b)

8 units of honey.

c)

12 units of bread.

d)

23 units of bread.

103.

The table shows the production possibilities for a country. Based on the table, which of the following production combinations is a possibility?

a)

5 pairs of shoes and 28 pizzas

b)

3 pairs of shoes and 23 pizzas

c)

2 pairs of shoes and 20 pizzas

d)

4 pairs of shoes and 15 pizzas

104.

Products that we usually use/consume together.

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Related goods

d)

Pairs

105.

Products that we can use instead of each other.

a)

Complements

b)

Substitutes

c)

Related goods

d)

Pairs

106.

Which graph shows an increase in demand?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

107.

Which graph shows an increase in the quantity demanded?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

108.

If demand for a good decreases when people's income increases

a)

The good is an inferior good

b)

The law of demand is violated

c)

The good is a normal good

d)

The good's demand curve is upward sloping

109.

If the demand for flat screen TV's increase when consumers income rise, then TV's are

a)

A normal good

b)

An inferior good

c)

A substitute good

d)

A complement good

110.

New technology advances the rate at which furniture can be assembled. Why does this change the supply?

a)

Change in cost of production

b)

Changes in number of producers

c)

Changes in expectations

111.

If only the price for a good or service changes, does the demand curve shift? Why or why not?

a)

Yes, Price shifts the demand curve to the right because less people are being goods

b)

Yes, Price shifts the demand curve to the left because more people are buying goods

c)

No, Because price does not shift the curve. Price stays on the line

d)

No, because price does not impact the points on the curve

e)

Yes and No. The price shifts the curve sometimes, but not always

112.
What is the Equilibrium Price?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
113.

When quantity supplied is smaller than quantity demanded, you have a ____________.

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

deficit

d)

equilibrium

114.

Which of these demonstrates a surplus of goods?

a)
b)
c)
d)
115.

What is the difference between a shortage and scarcity?

a)

A shortage is temporary but scarcity always exists

b)

A shortage results from rising prices; scarcity results from falling prices

c)

A shortage is lack of all goods and services; scarcity concerns a single item

d)

There is no real difference between a shortage and scarcity

116.

This economic concept deals with facts and statistics

a)

Normative Economics

b)

Economics

c)

Macroeconomics

d)

Positive Economics

117.

This economic concept deals with ethics and opinions

a)

Normative Economics

b)

Economics

c)

Macroeconomics

d)

Positive Economics

118.

What is a Command Economy?

a)

CAPITALISTIC economy in which there is free competition and prices are determined by interaction of supply and demand

b)

An economic system COMBINING private and public enterprise.

c)

When production, investment, price, and income are determined centrally by a GOVERNMENT.

d)

A system that relies on customs, history, and time-honored beliefs.

119.

Government involvement in a market economy is.

a)

low

b)

high

120.
The simplified production possibilities curves for country A and B are shown. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a)
Country A has the comparative advantage in both goods
b)
Country A has the comparative advantage in chairs & Country B has the comparative advantage in shirts
c)
Country B has the absolute advantage in shirts only
d)
Country A has the comparative advantage in shirts & Country B has the comparative advantage in chairs
121.
Improvements in technology for producing all goods must result in:
a)
An inward shift in the production possibilities curve 
b)
A flatter production possibilities curve 
c)
An outward shift in the production possibilities curve 
d)
A steeper production possibilities curve 
122.

Other things being equal or constant.

a)

Ceteris paribus

b)

Citiris paribus

c)

Ceteris parebus

d)

Ceteris paribous

123.

The Business Cycle measures ___ over time.

a)

wealth

b)

inflation

c)

economic growth

124.

The business cycle rises above the trendline during-

a)

rescessions

b)

expansions

c)

troughs

125.

Economic recovery begins-

a)

above the trend line

b)

at the end of a recession (trough)

c)

at the "boom" period

126.

If a news headline says, "3 months of consecutive job losses is impacting consumer confidence."

Where on the business cycle is the current economy?

a)

Peak

b)

Contraction/Recession

c)

Trough

d)

Expansion/Growth/Recovery