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Worksheets

Physics NEET Test Series

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The dimensional formula of refractive index is:

a)

[LT–1]

b)

[LT–2]

c)

[MLT–2]

d)

dimensionless

2.

Which of the following is a self-adjusting force?

a)

Static friction

b)

Limiting static friction

c)

Kinetic friction

d)

Both (1) and (2)

3.

If the magnitude of kinetic energy of a satellite is E, the binding energy of the satellite would be:

a)

– E

b)

E

c)

2E

d)

–2E

4.

A and B are two wires of equal lengths, the radius of A is twice that of B and B is stretched by half the tensile load of A. The normal stress on B is: (Young’s modulus of both wires are equal)

a)

same as that on A.

b)

2 times that on A.

c)

3 times that on A.

d)

9 times that on A.

5.

To increase the temperature of 1 kg ice from –10°C to –6°C, the heat required is x. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg water by 4°C is:

a)

x

b)

4x

c)

8x

d)

2x

6.

The number of significant figures in 02.002 is:

a)

2

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

7.

A cyclist comes to skidding stop in 6 m. During this process the force on cycle due to road is 160 N and is opposing the motion. How much work does road do on cycle?

a)

–720 J

b)

–960 J

c)

960 J

d)

720 J

8.

An object of mass m is projected from earth’s surface at an angle of 30° from horizontal with escape velocity (ve). The kinetic energy of the object in outer space would be:

a)

1/8 mv^2

b)

1/16 mv^2

c)

zero

d)

1/4 mv^2

9.

A perfectly inelastic collision has coefficient of restitution e. The value of e^2 + 2e is:

a)

3

b)

5/4

c)

0

d)

7/9

10.

Two identical bodies A and B at temperature 4000 K and 400 K respectively are kept in air at room temperature. Which of the following options is correct?

a)

B cools at faster rate than A

b)

A cools at faster rate than B

c)

A and B both cool at same rate

d)

No relation can be established about cooling rate.

11.

The value of sin53° + sin37° is:

a)

3/5

b)

7/5

c)

1/5

d)

4/5

12.

The potential energy U of a body as a function of x coordinate is given as U(x) = (x^2 - 6x). The conservative force acting on body at x = 2 m will be:

a)

–22 N

b)

8 N

c)

12 N

d)

22 N

13.

Two particles of mass 20 kg each, experience 2 N gravitational attraction due to each other when placed x distance apart. If the set up is moved under water, the separation required between particles to experience same attractive force would be:

a)

2x

b)

x

c)

3x

d)

4x

14.

The mercury barometer reads 114 cm of Hg at depth d underwater, the value of d is: (g = 10 m/s^2) (consider atmospheric pressure = 10^5 Pa)

a)

5 m

b)

0.5 m

c)

10 m

d)

50 m

15.

Zero degree Fahrenheit is approximately equal to:

a)

0°C

b)

0 K

c)

255 K

d)

290°C

16.

A ball dropped from a high tower covers 45 m in the last second of its fall. The time taken by ball to fall from top of tower to ground is: (g = 10 m/s^2)

a)

9 s

b)

3 s

c)

4 s

d)

5 s

17.

A uniform rod of length L kept slanted against a wall at an angle of 53° with horizontal. Considering point P as origin, the coordinates of center of mass are:

a)

(23/5, 10L)

b)

(43/5, 5L)

c)

(32/10, 5L)

d)

(34/5, 5L)

18.

A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of radius 2RE around the earth. The energy required to transfer it to a circular orbit of radius 4RE is: (where RE is radius of Earth)

a)

2E mgR

b)

7/8 E mgR

c)

8E mgR

d)

4E mgR

19.

A 40 g needle of length 4 cm floats on liquid. The surface tension is: (g = 10 m/s^2)

a)

1 N/m

b)

2 N/m

c)

0.1 N/m

d)

5 N/m

20.

The relation between coefficient of linear expansion (alpha) and coefficient of volume expansion (gamma) for solids is:

a)

2γ = α

b)

3γ =

21.

The relation between coefficient of linear expansion (alpha) and coefficient of volume expansion (gamma) for solids is:

a)

2γ = α

b)

3γ = α

c)

3γ = α

d)

23γ = α

22.

The position (x) of an object moving along x-axis is given by, x = 10 + 15t + 5t^2, where x is in meter and t is in second. The velocity of body at t = 3 s is:

a)

15 m/s

b)

30 m/s

c)

40 m/s

d)

45 m/s

23.

A ring has mass of 6 kg and radius of 2 m. What is moment of inertia of this ring about a tangent to the ring in its plane?

a)

24 kg-m^2

b)

12 kg-m^2

c)

30 kg-m^2

d)

36 kg-m^2

24.

Time period of a satellite revolving at an altitude of 2RE from earth surface is T, the time period of satellite revolving at altitude of RE above earth surface would be: (RE = radius of earth)

a)

27/8 T

b)

8/27 T

c)

4/9 T

d)

9/4 T

25.

If the radius of capillary is tripled, the mass of water rising in capillary is:

a)

reduced to one-third

b)

increased 9 times

c)

tripled

d)

unchanged

26.

If both the pressure and volume of a certain quantity of an ideal gas is doubled, then its temperature becomes:

a)

Doubled

b)

One fourth

c)

Four times

d)

Remains same

27.

A projectile is projected with initial velocity of (10i + 10j) m/s from the ground. The velocity of the projectile just before hitting the ground is: (g = 10 m/s^2) (x is along horizontal and vertically upward direction is along positive y-axis)

a)

(10i + 20j) m/s

b)

(10i - 10j) m/s

c)

(10i - 10j) m/s

d)

(10i - 20j) m/s

28.

The angular momentum of a particle of mass 2 kg about point O at the instant as shown in the figure, is:

a)

6 kgm^2 s–1

b)

9 kgm^2 s–1

c)

18 kgm^2 s–1

d)

93 kgm^2 s–1

29.

If the relative change in edge of cube is 0.01, the volumetric strain is:

a)

0.01

b)

0.02

c)

0.04

d)

0.03

30.

The terminal speed of a solid sphere in air is v, the terminal speed in vacuum would be:

a)

v

b)

2v

c)

2v

d)

there is no terminal speed in vacuum.

31.

Which of the followings is/are assumptions of kinetic theory of gases?

a)

The volume occupied by a molecule of gas is negligible.

b)

The force of attraction between molecules is negligible.

c)

All molecules have same speed at a given temperature.

d)

The collisions of molecules among themselves are elastic in nature.

32.

A man can swim with a speed of 2 km/h in still water to cross a river 1.0 km wide, flowing steadily at 3 km/h, he makes his strokes normal to the river current. The drift distance is:

a)

1.5 km

b)

3 km

c)

1 km

d)

2 km

33.

The area under torque-time graph with time axis gives:

a)

change in angular velocity

b)

change in angular acceleration

c)

change in angular momentum

d)

moment of inertia

34.

The edge of an aluminum cube is 10 cm. One face of the cube is firmly fixed to a vertical wall. A mass of 100 kg is attached to the opposite face of the cube. The vertical deflection of this face is: (shear modulus G = 25 × 10^9 Pa and g = 10 m/s^2)

a)

4 × 10–7 m

b)

3 × 10–6 m

c)

2 × 10–6 m

d)

1 × 10–6 m

35.

When the cubical cart moves with acceleration a, the liquid surface inclines at an angle θ with horizontal as shown in figure. The value of a is:

a)

g

b)

2g

c)

2g

d)

4g

36.

Three moles of a diatomic gas are in a container at 400 K. Under isochoric process, its temperature is changed to 900 K. How much heat is absorbed by the gas during this process?

a)

6.4 kcal

b)

9.4 kcal

c)

7.5 kcal

d)

12.4 kcal

37.

What is the maximum acceleration of a train in which a box lying on its floor remains stationary? (Static friction coefficient between box and train's floor is 0.2 and g is acceleration due to gravity)

a)

2g

b)

5g

c)

g

d)

Zero

38.

Two bodies having equal masses moving with speeds u1 and u2 collide elastically such that their final speeds are v1 and v2 respectively. If u1^2/u2^2 = 3, then v1/v2 is:

a)

2/3

b)

2/5

c)

3/5

d)

3/2

39.

Two particles are moving towards each other due to mutual gravitational attraction. Which of the following options is/are correct?

a)

The heavier particle has greater acceleration.

b)

The lighter particle has greater acceleration.

c)

The force of gravitation is greater for heavier particle.

d)

The force of gravitation is same for both particles.

40.

The temperature at surface of lake drops from 4°C to –2°C, the change in temperature of water at bottom of lake is:

a)

4°C

b)

2°C

c)

10°C

d)

zero

41.

The approximate heat required to raise the temperature of 20 gm nitrogen gas by 25°C at constant pressure is:

a)

250 cal

b)

125 cal

c)

125 J

d)

250 J

42.

Two monkeys of 60 kg each, climb on a rope which can withstand a maximum tension of 1800 N. The rope will not break if acceleration of monkeys is: (Assume both the monkeys have same acceleration, g = 10 m/s^2)

a)

6 m/s^2

b)

4.5 m/s^2

c)

4.8 m/s^2

d)

Both (2) and (3)

43.

Two uniform identical discs rotating clockwise with angular velocities ω and 2ω about their axis of rotation passing through their centres are brought in contact. If the final angular velocity of the combined system is ωf, then fω/ω is:

a)

1.5

b)

2

c)

0.5

d)

4

44.

Area of cross-section of a steel wire is 15 mm^2 and Young’s modulus is 2.0 × 10^10 Nm–2. The force required to stretch by 0.1% of its original length is:

a)

100 N

b)

200 N

c)

300 N

d)

600 N

45.

The ratio of degrees of freedom of a monoatomic gas to linear triatomic gas is:

a)

3 : 5

b)

3 : 1

c)

4 : 5

d)

1 : 1

46.

If gases A, B and C having temperatures TA, TB and TC respectively are in thermal equilibrium, then which of the following is/are correct?

a)

TA = 2TB

b)

TA = TB

c)

TB = TC

d)

2TA = TB + TC

47.

A bob of mass m is suspended by a light string of length l. At lowest position it is imparted a horizontal velocity √(7gl) such that it completes circular trajectory in vertical circle. What is ratio of its kinetic energy at A and C?

a)

2 : 1

b)

7 : 3

c)

5 : 3

d)

3 : 7

48.

Magnitude of angular momentum of particle of mass m moving with constant speed v along y = x, about origin is:

a)

increasing

b)

decreasing

c)

constant

d)

cannot be predicted

49.

The water coming out of orifice at depth h below surface of liquid has speed v. The speed of ball released from rest after falling from same height h will have a speed: (Assuming all ideal conditions)

a)

2v

b)

3v

c)

√2v

d)

v

50.

Assertion A: The work done in isochoric process is zero. Reason R: In isochoric process, volume remains constant.

a)

A is true but R is false.

b)

A is false but R is true.

c)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

d)

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

51.

A 3 m long uniform ladder weighing 10 kg leans on a frictionless wall. Its feet rest on floor.

4 lines
52.

A 3 m long uniform ladder weighing 10 kg leans on a frictionless wall. Its feet rest on floor 1.5 m from the wall as shown. What is the reaction force from the wall? (g = 10 m/s²)

a)

50 3 N

b)

50 3 N

c)

100 3 N

d)

120 N

53.

In which of the following compounds numbering is done incorrectly for their IUPAC naming?

a)

(1)

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

54.

The correct statement(s) among the following is/are:

a)

In a closed system, there is no exchange of matter but exchange of energy is possible between system and the surroundings.

b)

In an isolated system, there is no exchange of energy and matter between the system and the surroundings.

c)

In an open system, there is exchange of both energy and matter between the system and the surroundings.

d)

All of these

55.

Match the List-I with List-II.

a)

A Vapour density of O2(g) I 6.022 × 10²⁴

b)

B Atoms in 6.022 × 10²¹ molecules of N2(g) II 16

c)

C Electrons in 22.4 L of H2O(g) at STP III 12.044 × 10²¹

d)

D Moles in 8.8 g of CO2(g) IV 0.2

56.

The IUPAC name of given compound is:

a)

3-Cyclohexyl-3-methylpropan-2-ol

b)

3-Cyclohexylbutan-2-ol

c)

2-Cyclohexylbutan-3-ol

d)

1-Cyclohexyl-1-methylpropan-2-ol

57.

Match the List-I with List-II.

a)

A Adiabatic process I ΔP = 0

b)

B Isochoric process II q = 0

c)

C Isobaric process III ΔV = 0

d)

D Isothermal process IV ΔT = 0

58.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: At high altitudes, the partial pressure of oxygen is more than that at the ground level. Statement II: To increase the solubility of CO2 gas in soft drinks and soda water, the bottle is sealed under high pressure. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

b)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

c)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

d)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

59.

The IUPAC name of given compound is:

a)

5-Ethylhexa-1, 3-diene

b)

2-Ethylhexa-3, 5-diene

c)

3-Methylhepta-4, 6-diene

d)

5-Methylhepta-1, 3-diene

60.

Match the List-I with List-II.

a)

A Oxidation state of central Br atom in Br3O8 I –1

b)

B Oxidation state of S in S8 II +4

c)

C Oxidation state of H in NaH III 0

d)

D Oxidation state of O in O2F2 IV +1

61.

When 310 J of work is done on the system then 150 J of heat is given out from the system. The change in internal energy;

a)

–450 J

b)

+450 J

c)

+160 J

d)

–160 J

62.

Common name of methoxy benzene is:

a)

Toluene

b)

Aniline

c)

Anisole

d)

Phenol

63.

Which of the following is not a state function among the following?

a)

Internal energy

b)

Pressure

c)

Heat

d)

Temperature

64.

Match the List-I with List-II.

a)

A Number of lobes in 2z d orbital I 1

b)

B Radial nodes in 22xy 4d− orbital II 6

c)

C Orbital angular momentum of 2s orbital III 2

d)

D Maximum electron that can be occupied in p subshell IV 0

65.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The energy of an isolated system is zero. Statement II: A reversible process proceeds infinitely slowly by a series of equilibrium states such that system and the surrounding are always in near equilibrium with each other. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

b)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

c)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

d)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

66.

The number of significant figures in 0.0061 is:

a)

Five

b)

Two

c)

Four

d)

Three

67.

In the given pressure-volume curve, the process A corresponds to:

a)

Isobaric process

b)

Adiabatic process

c)

Isothermal process

d)

Isochoric process

68.

Match the List-I with List-II.

a)

A –CHO I Hydroxy

b)

B –COOR II Formyl

c)

C –CONH2 III Carbamoyl

d)

D –OH IV alkoxycarbonyl

69.

The work done during the process when one mole of gas is allowed to expand freely into vacuum is:

a)

w < 0

b)

w > 0

c)

w = 0

d)

may have any value

70.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: IUPAC name of HC≡C−CH=CH−CH is Pent-4-en-1-yne. Statement II: IUPAC name of CH3COOCH is methylmethanoate. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

b)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

c)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

d)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

71.

The number of primary carbon atoms in 3-Ethyl-2-methylpentane is:

a)

four

b)

three

c)

two

d)

five

72.

Equal masses of NO(g) and H2(g) are taken in a container under identical conditions. The ratio of their volumes at STP is:

a)

1:15

b)

30:1

c)

15:1

d)

1:30

73.

Which gas has the value of pV = C?

a)

He

b)

O2

c)

O3

d)

NH3

74.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: The IUPAC name of given compound is Butylcyclohexane. Reason R: When the carbon ring contains more number of carbon atoms than the alkyl group attached to it, then it is named as a derivative of cycloalkane and the alkyl group is treated as substituent. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false but R is true.

75.

Which among the following in an extensive property?

a)

Density

b)

Temperature

c)

Pressure

d)

Volume

76.

ich among the following in an extensive property?

a)

Density

b)

Temperature

c)

Pressure

d)

Volume

77.

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The wavelength of the radiation having wave number 10 m–1 is 0.1 m. Statement II: The Lyman series of lines are the only lines in the hydrogen spectrum which appear in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

b)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

c)

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

d)

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

78.

The correct order of priority of functional groups for IUPAC naming is:

a)

COOH > SOH > CN > CHO

b)

COOH > SOH > CHO > CN

c)

SOH > COOH > CN > CHO

d)

SOH > COOH > CHO > CN

79.

Standard molar enthalpy of formation is not zero for:

a)

H2(g)

b)

Br2(g)

c)

C(diamond)

d)

Cl2(g)

80.

The value of van’t Hoff factor of ethanoic acid in benzene is:

a)

0.5

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

81.

A gas expands against the external pressure of 2.0 atm from a volume of 0.75 litre to 1.5 litre. The work done is: (Given: 1 L atm = 101.3 J)

a)

+455.85 J

b)

–455.85 J

c)

+151.95 J

d)

–151.95 J

82.

The metal displacement reaction among the following is:

a)

CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)

b)

2KClO3(s) → 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)

c)

2CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

d)

2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)

83.

Melting point of a solid is x K and its latent heat of fusion is 600 cal mol–1. If the entropy change for the fusion of 1 mol solid is 2 cal mol–1 K–1, then the value of x will be:

a)

100 K

b)

200 K

c)

300 K

d)

400 K

84.

The energy of fourth orbit of He+ ion is equal to the energy of:

a)

first orbit of H atom

b)

second orbit of Be3+ ion

c)

second orbit of H atom

d)

third orbit of Li2+ ion

85.

The general formula of ether is:

a)

C2nH2nO

b)

C2nH2n+2O

c)

C2nH2n-2O

d)

C2nH2n+1O

86.

Standard Gibbs energy change is related to equilibrium constant as:

a)

∆rG0 = RT ln k

b)

∆rG0 = –RT ln k

c)

∆rG0 = 2.303RT ln k

d)

∆rG0 = –2.303RT ln k

87.

The compound (CH3)2NH belongs to the class of:

a)

amides

b)

amines

c)

nitriles

d)

esters

88.

An element X exist in two isotopic form, 300X(90%) and 299X(10%). The average atomic mass of the element X is:

a)

299.7 u

b)

299.5 u

c)

299.9 u

d)

299.1 u

89.

The formula of propanenitrile is:

a)

C3H7NC

b)

C2H5CN

c)

C3H7CN

d)

C2H5NC

90.

The incorrect condition for a solution showing negative deviation from Raoult’s Law is:

a)

ΔmixH0 < 0

b)

ΔmixV0 < 0

c)

ΔmixS0 < 0

d)

ΔmixG0 < 0

91.

During isothermal reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from 100 atm to 10 atm at 300K, the work done is: [R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1]

a)

–2.303 × 8.314 × 273 J

b)

–2.303 × 8.314 × 300 J

c)

8.314 × 300 J

d)

8.314 × 273 J

92.

The IUPAC name of the following compound is:

a)

1,2,3-Tricyanopropane

b)

Propane-1,2,3-tricarbylamine

c)

Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile

d)

3-Cyanopropane-1, 5-dinitrile

93.

A reaction will be spontaneous only at low temperature if;

a)

ΔrH0 < 0 and ΔrS0 > 0

b)

ΔrH0 < 0 and ΔrS0 < 0

c)

ΔrH0 > 0 and ΔrS0 < 0

d)

ΔrH0 > 0 and ΔrS0 > 0

94.

Which of the following set of quantum numbers is possible for an electron in 3d-orbital?

a)

n = 3, l = 1, m = 0, s = 1/2

b)

n = 4, l = 3, m = –3, s = 1/2

c)

n = 3, l = 2, m = –1, s = 1/2

d)

n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = 1/2

95.

For which of the following reaction, ΔrS is positive?

a)

CaO(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s)

b)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

c)

H2O(l) → H2O(s)

d)

PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

96.

IUPAC name of HOOC(CH3)2COOH:

a)

Propane-1, 3-dioic acid

b)

1,3-dicarboxypropane

c)

Pentane-1, 5-dioic acid

d)

1,5-dicarboxypentane

97.

Calculate the ΔH for the given reaction, if the bond energy for C–H, C–C, C=C and H–H bond are 99, 83, 147 and 104 kcal mol–1 respectively.

a)

–85 kcal mol–1

b)

–59 kcal mol–1

c)

–30 kcal mol–1

d)

–48 kcal mol–1

98.

Match the List-I with List-II. List-I: A Molarity of solution containing 4 g of NaOH in 500 mL of solution, B Sum of mole fraction of solute and solvent in a solution, C Molality of solution prepared by dissolving 0.2 mole of solute in 100 g of solvent, D Molarity of pure water (density of H2O = 1 g/mL).

a)

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

b)

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

c)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

d)

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

99.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: ClO4− does not show disproportionation reaction. Reason R: Cl in ClO4− is present in its highest oxidation state (+7). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b)

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c)

A is true but R is false.

d)

A is false but R is true.

100.

The incorrect IUPAC name among the following is:

4 lines
101.

If the enthalpy of formation of HF(g) is –268.3 kJ mol–1, then the enthalpy of formation of HCl(g) is:

a)

–63.4 kJ mol–1

b)

–92.21 kJ mol–1

c)

–84.32 kJ mol–1

d)

–76.91 kJ mol–1