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Unit 1: NUR 28 Lecture Notes 6/18/25

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Twins occur in ______ pregnancies in the United States.

a)

33.5/1000

b)

5/1000

c)

100/1000

d)

1/1000

2.

Which of the following statements about monozygotic twins is TRUE?

a)

They are always of different sex

b)

They develop from two separate fertilized ova

c)

They are genetically identical and often called identical twins

d)

They tend to repeat in families

3.

Dizygotic twins are also called ______ twins.

a)

fraternal

b)

identical

c)

conjoined

d)

mirror

4.

Define the term: Gravida.

a)

A woman who is or has been pregnant, regardless of the pregnancy outcome.

b)

A woman who has never been pregnant.

c)

A woman who is currently breastfeeding.

d)

A woman who has had multiple miscarriages.

5.

Define the term: Nulligravida.

a)

A woman who has never been pregnant.

b)

A woman who has had multiple pregnancies.

c)

A woman who is currently pregnant.

d)

A woman who has had only one pregnancy.

6.

Define the term: Primigravida.

a)

A woman who is pregnant for the first time.

b)

A woman who has had multiple pregnancies.

c)

A woman who has never been pregnant.

d)

A woman who is pregnant with twins.

7.

Define the term: Multigravida.

a)

A woman who has been pregnant more than once.

b)

A woman who is pregnant for the first time.

c)

A woman who has never been pregnant.

d)

A woman who has delivered twins.

8.

Define the term: Para.

a)

A woman who has given birth to one or more viable children.

b)

A woman who has never been pregnant.

c)

A woman who is currently pregnant.

d)

A woman who has had multiple miscarriages.

9.

Define the term: Primipara.

a)

A woman who has given birth once.

b)

A woman who has never been pregnant.

c)

A woman who has had multiple miscarriages.

d)

A woman who is currently pregnant.

10.

Define the term: Multipara.

a)

A woman who has given birth two or more times.

b)

A woman who has never been pregnant.

c)

A woman who is currently pregnant for the first time.

d)

A woman who has had only one miscarriage.

11.

Define the term: Nullipara.

a)

A woman who has never given birth.

b)

A woman who has had twins.

c)

A woman who has had multiple miscarriages.

d)

A woman who has given birth once.

12.

Define the term: Abortion (in the context of pregnancy).

a)

The termination of pregnancy before the fetus is viable.

b)

The process of fertilization of an egg.

c)

The development of the fetus to full term.

d)

The delivery of a healthy baby.

13.

Define the term: Gestational age.

a)

The age of the fetus or embryo from the first day of the woman's last menstrual period.

b)

The age of the fetus from the date of conception.

c)

The time from fertilization to delivery.

d)

The period between ovulation and implantation.

14.

Define the term: Fertilization age.

a)

The age of the embryo or fetus from the time of fertilization.

b)

The age of the mother at the time of conception.

c)

The time period between ovulation and implantation.

d)

The duration of pregnancy from the last menstrual period.

15.

Define the term: Age of viability.

a)

The earliest gestational age at which a fetus can survive outside the uterus.

b)

The age at which a child can legally vote.

c)

The age at which puberty begins in humans.

d)

The age at which a person can obtain a driver's license.

16.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of pregnancy?

a)

Antepartum

b)

Intrapartum

c)

Postpartum

d)

Interpartum

17.

What is the goal of prenatal care according to the notes?

a)

The goal of prenatal care is no longer limited to the outcome of a healthy mother and newborn; it also expands to the prevention of adult disease in the developing fetus and newborn infant.

b)

The goal of prenatal care is solely to monitor the mother's weight gain during pregnancy.

c)

The goal of prenatal care is to ensure the fetus receives only genetic testing.

d)

The goal of prenatal care is to provide medication for common pregnancy symptoms only.

18.

Which of the following is a major goal of prenatal care?

a)

Ensure a safe birth for mother and child by promoting good health habits and reducing risk factors.

b)

Delay medical care until after birth.

c)

Avoid health education.

d)

Ignore physical care.

19.

Fill in the blank: One of the major goals of prenatal care is to ______ health habits that may be continued after pregnancy.

a)

teach

b)

ignore

c)

discourage

d)

neglect

20.

Which of the following is NOT a major goal of prenatal care?

a)

Educate in self-care for pregnancy.

b)

Provide physical care.

c)

Prepare parents for the responsibilities of parenthood.

d)

Discourage healthy habits.

21.

Fill in the blank: Prenatal care aims to ______ parents for the responsibilities of parenthood.

a)

prepare

b)

ignore

c)

confuse

d)

delay

22.

Which of the following is a component of prenatal health history?

a)

Obstetric

b)

Menstrual

c)

Contraceptive

d)

All of the above

23.

How often should prenatal visits be scheduled from conception to 28 weeks in an uncomplicated pregnancy?

a)

Every week

b)

Every 2 to 3 weeks

c)

Every 4 weeks

d)

Every 6 weeks

24.

Fill in the blank: From 29 to 36 weeks of pregnancy, prenatal visits should be scheduled every ______ to ______ weeks.

a)

2 to 3

b)

1 to 2

c)

3 to 4

d)

4 to 6

25.

At what frequency should prenatal visits occur from 37 weeks to birth in an uncomplicated pregnancy?

a)

Monthly

b)

Weekly

c)

Every 2 weeks

d)

Every 6 weeks

26.

Which of the following is a routine assessment at each prenatal visit?

a)

Risk factors: review known and assess for new

b)

Vital signs and weight: determine if gain is normal

c)

Urinalysis: protein, glucose, and ketone levels

d)

All of the above

27.

Fill in the blank: ______ maneuvers are used to assess presentation and position during prenatal visits.

a)

Leopold

b)

McRoberts

c)

Valsalva

d)

Kegel

28.

Which of the following is checked to determine fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume during prenatal visits?

a)

Fundal height

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Nutrition intake

d)

Fetal heart rate

29.

Fill in the blank: ______ intake is routinely assessed at each prenatal visit to ensure proper nutrition.

a)

Nutrition

b)

Fluid

c)

Oxygen

d)

Calorie

30.

Which test is performed to check for protein, glucose, and ketone levels during prenatal visits?

a)

Urinalysis

b)

Blood glucose screening

c)

Leopold maneuvers

d)

Fetal heart rate

31.

Fill in the blank: At each prenatal visit, any ______ or problems since the last visit should be discussed.

a)

discomforts

b)

medications

c)

appointments

d)

exercises

32.

According to the worksheet, what is the average duration of pregnancy in weeks and days?

a)

40 weeks (280 days)

b)

36 weeks (252 days)

c)

38 weeks (266 days)

d)

42 weeks (294 days)

33.

Which rule is used to estimate the date of delivery by identifying the first day of LNMP, counting backward 3 months, adding 7 days, and updating the year if applicable?

a)

Naegele’s rule

b)

Goodell’s rule

c)

Hegar’s rule

d)

Chadwick’s rule

34.

Which of the following is NOT a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Nausea

c)

Goodell sign

d)

Breast tenderness

35.

Which of the following is a probable sign of pregnancy?

a)

Quickening

b)

Chadwick sign

c)

Fatigue

d)

Nausea

36.

List any two presumptive signs of pregnancy mentioned in the worksheet.

a)

Amenorrhea, Nausea, Breast tenderness, Deepening pigmentation, Urinary frequency, Fatigue and drowsiness, Quickening (any two)

b)

Increased appetite, Weight loss, Hair growth, Joint pain (any two)

c)

Fever, Sore throat, Headache, Rash (any two)

d)

Chest pain, Shortness of breath, Blurred vision, Dizziness (any two)

37.

Quickening is a probable sign of pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The Goodell sign is a probable sign of pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Fill in the blank: The ________ sign, ________ sign, and ________ sign are probable signs of pregnancy.

a)

Goodell sign, Chadwick sign, Hegar sign

b)

Braxton Hicks sign, Ballottement sign, McDonald sign

c)

Piskacek sign, Leopold sign, Kegel sign

d)

Naegele sign, Leopold sign, Ballottement sign

40.

What is the first step in Naegele’s rule for estimating the date of delivery?

a)

Identify first day of LNMP

b)

Calculate gestational age from ultrasound

c)

Subtract three months from conception date

d)

Add 7 days to the expected date of delivery

41.

Which sign is characterized by a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva and is considered a probable sign of pregnancy?

a)

Chadwick sign

b)

Goodell sign

c)

Hegar sign

d)

Ballottement

42.

Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?

a)

Abdominal enlargement

b)

Audible fetal heartbeat

c)

Braxton Hicks contractions

d)

Abdominal striae (stretch marks)

43.

Name two symptoms of supine hypotension syndrome.

a)

Faintness, Lightheadedness, Dizziness, Agitation (any two)

b)

Fever, Cough, Sore throat, Rash (any two)

c)

Chest pain, Blurred vision, Nausea, Vomiting (any two)

d)

Swelling, Itching, Sneezing, Runny nose (any two)

44.

Pregnancy causes changes in which of the following body systems?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Respiratory

c)

Cardiovascular

d)

All of the above

45.

Supine hypotension syndrome is also called ________ or vena cava syndrome.

a)

aortocaval compression

b)

pulmonary embolism

c)

mitral valve prolapse

d)

pericardial tamponade

46.

Turning to which side is preferred to relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava in supine hypotension syndrome?

a)

Right side

b)

Left side

c)

Back

d)

Stomach

47.

Which of the following is NOT a normal physiological change in pregnancy?

a)

Role of microbiomes

b)

Increased muscle mass

c)

Changes in gastrointestinal system

d)

Changes in integumentary system

48.

What is one nutrition education tip mentioned in the worksheet?

a)

Read food labels or Eat foods that are nutrient dense.

b)

Skip breakfast every day.

c)

Eat only one type of food.

d)

Avoid all fruits and vegetables.

49.

Ballottement or fetal outline is a positive sign of pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

What is the recommended weight gain for women of normal weight during pregnancy?

a)

25 to 35 lb (11.4 to 15.9 kg)

b)

10 to 15 lb (4.5 to 6.8 kg)

c)

40 to 50 lb (18.1 to 22.7 kg)

d)

5 to 10 lb (2.3 to 4.5 kg)

51.

How much weight should obese women gain during pregnancy?

a)

11 to 20 lb (5 to 9.1 kg)

b)

25 to 35 lb (11.3 to 15.9 kg)

c)

28 to 40 lb (12.7 to 18.1 kg)

d)

15 to 25 lb (6.8 to 11.3 kg)

52.

In a multifetal pregnancy, how much total weight should a woman gain?

a)

37 to 54 lb (16.5 to 24.5 kg)

b)

25 to 35 lb (11.5 to 16 kg)

c)

15 to 25 lb (7 to 11.5 kg)

d)

28 to 40 lb (12.5 to 18 kg)

53.

During the first trimester, by how many kcal/day should a pregnant woman increase her intake?

a)

300 kcal/day

b)

100 kcal/day

c)

500 kcal/day

d)

700 kcal/day

54.

During the second trimester, by how many kcal/day should a pregnant woman increase her intake?

a)

40 to 340 kcal/day

b)

100 to 200 kcal/day

c)

500 to 700 kcal/day

d)

800 to 1000 kcal/day

55.

During the third trimester, by how many kcal/day should a pregnant woman increase her intake?

a)

110 to 450 kcal/day

b)

50 to 100 kcal/day

c)

500 to 700 kcal/day

d)

900 to 1200 kcal/day

56.

What is the recommended daily intake of protein for pregnant women?

a)

60 g/day

b)

30 g/day

c)

90 g/day

d)

120 g/day

57.

What is the DRI of calcium for pregnant women?

a)

1000 mg

b)

500 mg

c)

1500 mg

d)

2000 mg

58.

What is the DRI for folic acid for a pregnant woman during 0 to 4 months?

a)

400 mcg (0.4 mg) per day

b)

200 mcg (0.2 mg) per day

c)

600 mcg (0.6 mg) per day

d)

1000 mcg (1 mg) per day

59.

What is the DRI for iron for pregnant women?

a)

30 mg/day

b)

10 mg/day

c)

18 mg/day

d)

45 mg/day

60.

Caloric intake during lactation should be about ___ calories more than the nonpregnant woman's RDA.

a)

500

b)

200

c)

1000

d)

300

61.

What should the protein intake be during lactation?

a)

50 g/day

b)

65 g/day

c)

80 g/day

d)

100 g/day

62.

Calcium and iron intake during lactation are the same as during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Vitamin supplements are often continued during lactation.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

List two substances whose intake should be limited during lactation.

a)

Caffeine and alcohol

b)

Vitamin C and iron

c)

Calcium and protein

d)

Fiber and water

65.

Drugs should only be taken on the advice of the health care provider during lactation.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Which of the following is NOT a special nutrition consideration during pregnancy?

a)

Vegetarian

b)

Sodium intake

c)

Pica

d)

Pregnant adolescent

e)

High protein diet

67.

Gestational diabetes mellitus is first diagnosed during _____

a)

pregnancy

b)

childhood

c)

old age

d)

adolescence

68.

Why are women with gestational diabetes susceptible to hypoglycemia during the night?

a)

Because the fetus continues to use glucose while the mother sleeps.

b)

Because insulin production increases at night.

c)

Because the mother eats more carbohydrates at night.

d)

Because the placenta stops functioning at night.

69.

Glycemic control during the first and second trimesters is most important in preventing complications such as ____ and spontaneous abortion.

a)

macrosomia

b)

polyhydramnios

c)

oligohydramnios

d)

pre-eclampsia

70.

Uncontrolled diabetes and high fasting blood glucose levels in the last trimester have an increased risk of _____

a)

stillbirth

b)

preterm labor

c)

neural tube defects

d)

polyhydramnios

71.

Maternal cardiac status and fetoplacental reserve should be the basis for determining exercise levels during all trimesters of pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The goal of exercise during pregnancy should be ____ of fitness, not improvement of fitness or weight loss.

a)

maintenance

b)

increase

c)

reduction

d)

neglect

73.

Air travel is generally safe during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________.

a)

Fatigue

b)

Headache

c)

Cough

d)

Broken bone

75.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________

a)

Nasal stuffiness

b)

Tooth loss

c)

Frequent nosebleeds

d)

Sudden weight loss

76.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________

a)

Nausea

b)

Headache

c)

Fever

d)

Cough

77.

One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________.

a)

Heartburn

b)

Headache from loud music

c)

Broken bone

d)

Tooth decay

78.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________

a)

Constipation

b)

Headache

c)

Fever

d)

Toothache

79.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________.

a)

Hemorrhoids

b)

Broken bones

c)

Color blindness

d)

Baldness

80.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________

a)

Vaginal discharge

b)

Tooth loss

c)

Hair color change

d)

Vision improvement

81.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________

a)

Backache

b)

Headache

c)

Toothache

d)

Earache

82.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________

a)

Varicose veins

b)

Broken bones

c)

Tooth loss

d)

Hair growth on palms

83.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________

a)

Leg cramps

b)

Tooth decay

c)

Hair loss

d)

Vision improvement

84.

Fill in the blank: One common discomfort in pregnancy is _________.

a)

Edema of the lower extremities

b)

Loss of vision

c)

Male pattern baldness

d)

Deep voice changes

85.

Fill in the blank: The first step in the Prenatal Education ADPIE process is to ________ the history and cultural needs.

a)

Assess

b)

Plan

c)

Implement

d)

Evaluate

86.

Fill in the blank: In the Prenatal Education ADPIE process, the step where you identify the knowledge deficit is called _________.

a)

Diagnose

b)

Assess

c)

Plan

d)

Implement

87.

Fill in the blank: In the Prenatal Education ADPIE process, the step where you set goals and priorities is called _________.

a)

Plan

b)

Assessment

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

88.

Fill in the blank: In the Prenatal Education ADPIE process, the step that clarifies expected outcomes is called _________.

a)

Outcomes identification

b)

Assessment

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

89.

Fill in the blank: In the Prenatal Education ADPIE process, the step where you intervene with facts and rationales is called _________.

a)

Teach

b)

Assess

c)

Plan

d)

Evaluate

90.

Fill in the blank: In the Prenatal Education ADPIE process, the step where you check knowledge gained and goals achieved is called _________

a)

Evaluate

b)

Assess

c)

Plan

d)

Implement

91.

Which of the following statements is true about pregnancy and medications?

a)

Pregnancy does not affect the metabolism of medications.

b)

Drugs cannot cross the placenta.

c)

Parenteral medications may be absorbed more rapidly due to increased cardiac output during pregnancy.

d)

All medications are safe during pregnancy.

92.

Fill in the blank: Drugs can cross the _______ and can be passed through breast milk.

a)

placenta

b)

esophagus

c)

trachea

d)

diaphragm

93.

According to the FDA Pregnancy Risk Category for Drugs, which category indicates absolute fetal abnormalities and should not be used at any time during pregnancy?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category D

d)

Category X

94.

Which FDA Pregnancy Risk Category is described as: 'No risk demonstrated to the fetus in any trimester'?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

95.

Category B drugs have no adverse effects in animals, but no human studies are available.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Which of the following is contraindicated during pregnancy?

a)

Influenza (injectable form)

b)

Tdap

c)

Live virus vaccines (e.g., LAIV, MMR)

d)

All of the above

97.

Fill in the blank: Thimerosal should not be given during pregnancy because of the risk of _______ poisoning.

a)

mercury

b)

lead

c)

arsenic

d)

zinc

98.

How long should pregnancy be avoided after receiving an MMR vaccine?

a)

At least 1 month

b)

At least 1 week

c)

At least 6 months

d)

At least 3 days

99.

Select immunizations, such as influenza (injectable form) and Tdap, are allowable during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False