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Topic 7 IB Biology

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What part of a nucleotide is part A?

a)

Phosphate: attaches to 5 C of deoxyribose

b)

Sugar: 5 Carbon Sugar of deoxyribose

c)

Base: Attach to 1 Carbon

d)

A covalent bond that bonds each of the structures together

2.

What part of a nucleotide is part B?

a)

Phosphate: attaches to 5 C of deoxyribose

b)

Sugar: 5 Carbon Sugar of deoxyribose

c)

Base: Attach to 1 Carbon

d)

A covalent bond that bonds each of the structures together

3.

What part of a nucleotide is part C?

a)

Phosphate: attaches to 5 C of deoxyribose

b)

Sugar: 5 Carbon Sugar of deoxyribose

c)

Base: Attach to 1 Carbon

d)

A covalent bond that bonds each of the structures together

4.

What do the Lines in between the structures of a nucleotide represent?

a)

Phosphate: attaches to 5 C of deoxyribose

b)

Sugar: 5 Carbon Sugar of deoxyribose

c)

Base: Attach to 1 Carbon

d)

A covalent bond that bonds each of the structures together

5.

Purine include what type of bases and structures?

a)

Double Ring Structure

b)

Adenine and Guanine

c)

Single Ring Structure

d)

Thymine and Cytosine

6.

Pyrimidine include what type of bases and structures?

a)

Double Ring Structure

b)

Adenine and Guanine

c)

Single Ring Structure

d)

Thymine and Cytosine

7.

Which of the following is not a base in RNA?

a)

Adenine (A)

b)

Guanine (G)

c)

Thymine (T)

d)

Cytosine (C)

8.

Which of the following is not a base in DNA?

a)

Adenine (A)

b)

Guanine (G)

c)

Uracil (U)

d)

Cytosine (C)

9.

What type of bond is between phosphate , sugar, and base in a nucleotide?

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Hydrogen Bond

d)

Covalent Bomb

10.

What type of bond is formed between the base pairs in a nucleotide?

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Hydrogen Bond

d)

Hydrogen Bomb

11.

Why is a molecule of DNA/RNA anti-parallel?

a)

One strand is the leading strand, and the other strand is the the lagging strand

b)

One strand runs 3' to 5' while the other runs 5' to 3'

c)

One strand likes to connect the way it wants to when it does

d)

Because

12.

Which enzyme untwists strands of DNA and separates the bases?

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA Polymerase III

c)

Gyrase

d)

Ligase

13.

Which enzyme adds nucleotides to template strands?

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA Polymerase III

c)

Gyrase

d)

Ligase

14.

DNA replication is which of the following?

a)

semi-conservative

b)

Conservative

c)

dispersive

d)

Doesn't really get into politics

15.

Why are complementary base pairs important during DNA replication?

a)

The pairs code for specific genes

b)

It helps with conserving the base sequence during replication

c)

Codons are important in maintaining the sequence

d)

Base pairs are not important

16.

Why dos the generation 2 in Messelson and Stahl's experiment support the semi-conservative model of DNA replication?

a)

It does not support the semi-conservative model

b)

The E coli had one strand of 15 N DNA and one strand of 14 N DNA

c)

RNA was found after use of both proteins

d)

The E Coli coded differing proteins after exposed to the composite chemicals

17.

What is the correct order for the process of transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase opens the DNA; RNA polymerase binds the promoter region; RNA and DNA nucleotides are paired up; RNA nucleotides provide energy to create a RNA strand; Transcription stops at terminator;

b)

RNA polymerase binds the promoter region; Transcription stops at terminator; RNA polymerase opens the DNA; RNA and DNA nucleotides are paired up; RNA nucleotides provide energy to create a RNA strand;

c)

RNA nucleotides provide energy to create a RNA strand; Transcription stops at terminator; RNA polymerase opens the DNA; RNA and DNA nucleotides are paired up; RNA polymerase binds the promoter region;

d)

Transcription stops at terminator; RNA nucleotides provide energy to create a RNA strand; RNA polymerase opens the DNA; RNA and DNA nucleotides are paired up; RNA polymerase binds the promoter region;

18.

Transcription begins with...

a)

Promoters

b)

Terminator

c)

Nucleus

d)

RNA polymerase

19.

Transcription ends with...

a)

Promoters

b)

Terminator

c)

Nucleus

d)

RNA polymerase

20.

Transcription happens in...

a)

Promoters

b)

Terminator

c)

Nucleus

d)

RNA polymerase

21.

Transcription uses...

a)

Promoters

b)

Terminator

c)

Nucleus

d)

RNA polymerase

22.

Translation begins with...

a)

mRNA

b)

Protein

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Ribosome

23.

Translation ends with...

a)

mRNA

b)

Protein

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Ribosome

24.

Translation happens in...

a)

mRNA

b)

Protein

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Ribosome

25.

Translation uses...

a)

mRNA

b)

Protein

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Ribosome

26.

Define a codon

a)

Sequence of 3 nucleotides

b)

A waste of DNA

c)

A sequence of meaningless letters

d)

Letters that mean something

27.

On what type of molecule can anti-codons, which are complementary to codons, be found?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

DNA

d)

DNA Polymerase

28.

An mRNA strand codes has 90 codons; how many amino acids will be in the polypeptide?

a)

270

b)

90

c)

30

d)

9

29.

A polypeptide contains 100 amino acids; How many base pairs long is the gene?

a)

50

b)

300

c)

30

d)

25

30.

How has information about methods of hormone production impacted the medical field?

a)

The same gene codes for insulin in humans and in E. coli

b)

Money, Money, Money

c)

People are healthier

d)

The bacteria was eraticated

31.

Which part of the cell cycle would DNA be the most visible and super-coiled?

a)

Replication

b)

Cell Division

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

32.

In what direction does DNA polymerase add bases onto the template strands? What implication does this have for the addition of bases on the growing strands?

a)

5' to 3'

b)

Only the antisense strand is transcribed

c)

3' to 5'

d)

Only the sense strand is transcribed

33.

Enzyme that releases strain that develops when helicase unwinds DNA

a)

DNA Gyrase

b)

DNA Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase II

d)

RNA Primase

34.

Unwinds DNA (unzips genes)

a)

DNA Gyrase

b)

DNA Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase II

d)

RNA Primase

35.

Adds nucleotides to template strands?

a)

DNA Gyrase

b)

DNA Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase II

d)

RNA Primase

36.

Adds short segments of RNA primers to provide a place for DNA polymerase III to start

a)

DNA Gyrase

b)

DNA Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase II

d)

RNA Primase

37.

Removes RNA primer and replaces it with DNA nucleotides

a)

DNA Polymerase I

b)

DNA Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase II

d)

RNA Primase

38.

Covalently bonds fragments of DNA from the lagging strand together

a)

DNA Ligase

b)

DNA Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase II

d)

RNA Primase

39.

Distinguish between coding and non-coding regions of DNA

a)

Coding sequences code for production of a specific protein, and non-coding is structural DNA at the end of DNA

b)

Non-coding code for production of a specific protein, and coding sequences is structural DNA at the end of DNA

c)

Proteins are used to make non-coding parts of the DNA and enzymes are used to make the coding parts

d)

Enzymes are used to make non-coding parts of the DNA and proteins are used to make the coding parts

40.

How can non-coding regions can be involved in gene expression?

a)

It defines the structure of the chromosomes

b)

It does not impact the gene expression

c)

When DNA uncoils due to outside factors; the non coding parts unravel quicker

d)

DNA does not have non-coding parts

41.

Why are non-coding tandem repeats more useful than coding regions in DNA profiling?

a)

They show variation between people , and can be used more efficiently in DNA profiling

b)

They are not used in DNA profiling

c)

The codons are easier to read when they are non-codons

d)

They are shorter and easier to define

42.

Give instructions to begin transcription...

a)

Promoters

b)

Histones

c)

RNA polyemerase

d)

DNA Polyemerase II

43.

DNA wraps around _____to form nucleosomes and stop transcription

a)

Histomes

b)

A Blanket

c)

Helicase

d)

DNA Replication

44.

In what direction does transcription occur?

a)

5' to 3'

b)

3' to 5'

c)

5' to 5'

d)

3' to 3'

45.

Are expressed or direct the synthesis of proteins...

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

c)

Phenotype

d)

Genome type

46.

Are not expressed and must be spliced out of RNA before it leaves the nucleus...

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

c)

Phenotype

d)

Genome type

47.

The process in which gene expression is prevented?

a)

Methylation

b)

Acetylation

c)

Carbonization

d)

Reduction

48.

What letter stands for the growing peptide chain?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

E

d)

F

49.

What letter stands for the amino acid?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

E

d)

F

50.

What letter stands for the mRNA?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

E

d)

F

51.

What letter stands for the ribosome small subunit?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

E

d)

F

52.

What letter stands for the tRNA?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

D

d)

F

53.

What letter stands for the ribosome large subunit?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

d)

F

54.

Which type of ribosome produces proteins for use in the cell and are found in the cytoplasm?

a)

Bound Ribosomes

b)

Free Ribosomes

55.

Which type of ribosome synthesizes proteins for secretion and lysosomes?

a)

Bound Ribosomes

b)

Free Ribosomes

56.

Why can translation occur immediately after transcription in prokaryotes?

a)

Several ribosomes can work on one strand of mRNA

b)

Because that's the way it is

c)

The DNA is not wound

d)

It is directly in the Nuclues