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CRM 3.5 Earth Space

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A group of science students question whether the temperature of a liquid affects its pH.. Which of the following steps should the students take first as they attempt to research this question?

a)

Design an experiment

b)

Create a theory

c)

Form a Hypothesis

d)

Make Observations

2.

In an attempt to identify an unknown rock same, a student applies dilute hydrocholoric acid to test the reactivity of the rock. Which of the following safety precautions is it most important for the student to follow this procedure?

a)

Putting eye protection prior to carrying out the procedure

b)

Pulverizing the rock sample prior to testing it

c)

Using a fume hood to trap gases given off during the test

d)

Conducting the procedure wearing latex gloves

3.

Light from the sun traveling at approximately 2.9x10^8 m/s takes about 4.6x10^2 seconds to reach earth. Based on this information, which of the following best represents the distance the light travels from the sun to Earth?

a)

1.3 x 10^11m

b)

2.9 x 10^10m

c)

3.6 x 10^9m

d)

6.3 x 10^5m

4.

In a scientific paper, an entormologist uses the formula shown below to describe a population of insects. Which of the following terms best describes this formula. E/N?

a)

Mean

b)

Mode

c)

Median

d)

Range

5.

The Bohr model of the atom combined the earlier atomic model of Ernest Rutherford with a model derived from which of the following theories?

a)

General Theory of Relativity

b)

Unified Field Theory

c)

String Theory

d)

Quantum Theory

6.

The concept of entropy refers to which of the following characteristics of a closed system?

a)

Tendency of a system to become more disordered over time

b)

Self-Regulation of a system through feedback mechanisms

c)

Maintenance of balance among separate system components

d)

Emergent properties resulting from interaction of system components

7.

A geoscientist using seismology to determine where the transition between two different Earth layers occurs applies which of the following concepts from physics in analyzing the seismic data?

a)

Second law of thermodynamics

b)

Snall's law of refraction

c)

Heisenberg uncertainty principle

d)

Bernoullis Principle

8.

To model the general circulation of Earth's atmosphere, scientists rely on mathematical formulas from which of the following areas of study?

a)

Physics

b)

Computer Science

c)

Geochemistry

d)

Environmental Engineering

9.

Although nuclear power is an energy resource that does not produce carbon emissionss, many people are still concerned about expanding the number of nuclear power plants in use in the United States. The primary concern is that the production of nuclear power...

a)

Requires large amounts of freshwater for cooling systems

b)

Generates hazardous waste that has to be stored for thousands of years.

c)

Depends on a nonrenewable mineral resource that will eventually run out

d)

Creates hazardous work environment for employees

10.

Weather forecasting has changed dramatically over the past century. Today, surface weather observations, as well as data from satellites, provide information for computer models to process into simulations. Which of the following is demonstrated by this example?

a)

Major advances in scientific knowledge depend on the development of new technologies

b)

The practice of science is closely tied to available technologies and societal needs

c)

The accomplishments of science in today's world are more highly valued than in the past

d)

The expansion of scientific literacy is essential to the development of a democratic society

11.

Which of the following changes occurs in the atmosphere between the lower troposphere and the upper mesosphere?

a)

The concentration of nitrogen per unit volume increases

b)

The percentage of nitrogen relative to other gases increases

c)

The concentration of oxygen per unit volume decreases

d)

The percentage of oxygen relative to other gases decreases

12.

The El Nino-Southern Oscillation has two phases traditionally referred to as El Nino and La Nina. Which of the following is a primary factor that drives the transition from an El Nino phase to a La Nina Phase?

a)

Variations in the frequency of sunspots over the course of a full solar cycle

b)

Change in the circulation of deep-ocean currents that transfer heat energy from the equatorial regions to the poles

c)

Fluctuations in the position of the polar front jet stream during different seasons

d)

Reversal of the dominant high and low atmospheric pressure regimes on either side of the equatorial Pacific Ocean

13.

The west coast of the United States experiences a relatively small range in annual temperatures compared with interior parts of the continent. Which of the following is the major geographic factor influencing the climate conditions in the coastal region?

a)

Coastal mountains block warm humid air from the east, reducing summer temperatures

b)

Subtropical surface currents transport warmth northward, increasing winter temperatures.

c)

Prevailing westerly winds bring marine air to coastal regions, moderating coastal temperatures

d)

Evaporation from the heavily forested coastal plain minimizes temperature extremes

14.

Scientists agree that global warming would cause an increase in evaporation rates. Which of the following would be a direct consequence of the hypothesized increased evaporation rates?

a)

An increase in the greenhouse effect

b)

A reduction in the concentration of ozone in the upper athmosphere

c)

A greater albedo of Earth's surface

d)

A reduction in the salinity of surface waters in tropical oceans

15.

As air moves across Earth's surface is is deflected by the Coriolis force. In which of the following locations would the magnitude of the Coriolis force be the greatest if the direction and speed of the winds were the same?

a)

Equatorial regions

b)

Polar latitudes

c)

Subtropical regions

d)

Mid-latitudes

16.

Energy from the sun heats the equatorial regions more than the polar regions. This phenomenon most directly supports which of the following parts of the climate system?

a)

Hadley cell circulation

b)

North Atlantic Oscillation

c)

Cyclical El Nino events

d)

Geostrophic winds

17.

Which of the following is the primary driving force behind the development of polar and subtropical jet streams?

a)

Converging upper level winds in the lower stratosphere

b)

Strong updrifts that carry warn air formed at the surface into the colder air aloft

c)

Differential heating of land areas and the surface of oceans

d)

Steep pressure gradients at the boundaries of colder and warmer air masses

18.

When an air mass cools over Earths surface, the resulting change in density causes air to sink. This sinking air is associated with the development of?

a)

Strong storm systems

b)

converging surface winds

c)

high atmospheric pressure

d)

Counterclockwise rotation of winds

19.

The development of major tornados typically involves which of the following atmospheric phenomena?

a)

Strong vertical wind shear

b)

Adiabatic heating

c)

Steady geostrophic winds

d)

subsidence inversions

20.

Which of the following describes the conditions that produce lake-effect snows in the Great Lakes region?

a)

Extremely cold, dry air from the Arctic flows over relatively warm lake water, causing steady snowfall on the lakes' eastern shores

b)

Cool, moist air from the Ohio valley collides with colder arctic air over lakes, generating lift and heavy snow.

c)

Relatively warn Midwestern air cools as it flows over the ice covered lakes, producing heavy snow in the hills east of the lakes

d)

Moist air masses from the Pacific Ocean flow over cold lake water, causing steady snowfall over the lakes.

21.

Onshore breezes or sea breezes develop in the summer along the Atlantic coast under which of the following conditions?

a)

Cooling of the water surface overnight causes air to sink over the oceans and spread inland

b)

The temperature difference between land and sea moderates during the day, reducing atmospheric pressure over the water

c)

Heating of the land surface during the day causes air to rise, drawing cooler air from the ocean inland

d)

The pressure gradient between land and sea becomes steeper overnight, increasing the flow of cool air off of the water

22.

When air temperature falls toward the freezing point of water, shallow ponds cool, causing dense water to sink. Which of the following is the temperature of the water at the bottom of the pond.

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

23.

Which of the following is the primary cause of water's high viscosity?

a)

The low electronegativity of oxygen atoms

b)

The high specific heat capacity of liquid water

c)

The molecular weight of water molecules

d)

The hydrogen bonding between water molecules

24.

Deforestation in the tropics affects the movement of water through the hydrologic cycle by reducing?

a)

Transpiration

b)

Surface runoff

c)

Percolation

d)

Stream flow

25.

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the gradient of a stream?

a)

The base level of the stream

b)

The carrying capacity of the stream

c)

The sediment load of the stream

d)

The sediments underlying the stream

26.

Which of the following Earth materials has the greatest permeability?

a)

Silty clay

b)

Fractured shale

c)

Medium sand

d)

Massive sandstone

27.

A perched aquifer is best described as an aquifer that is:

a)

Below the regional aquifer and overlain by an aquitard

b)

Part of the regional aquifer, but supplied with water from a different source

c)

Above the regional aquifer and underlain by an aquitard

d)

An aquifer within the saturated zone of the regional aquifer, but isolated from it hydrologically

28.

A mountainside that has many small tributaries draining the region's watershed is likely to have which of the following geologic characteristics?

a)

Shallow soils overlying bedrock that has a low infiltration capacity

b)

Deep sandy soils derived from glacial till that is easily eroded

c)

Shallow soils underlain by highly permeable limestone bedrock

d)

Deep soils derived from granite that support dense forests

29.

In an unpolluted aquifer, the chemical character of groundwater changes as it travels underground. Which of the following characteristics of unpolluted groundwater typically increases over time as groundwater moves through sediments and bedrock?

a)

The proportion of bicarbonate ions

b)

The concentration of dissolved oxygen

c)

The proportion of suspended solids

d)

The concentration of total dissolved solids

30.

In tropical oceans there is usually a high rate of evaporation at the surface of the ocean. Which of the following characteristics of the surface ocean water is most affected by evaporation?

a)

Salinity

b)

Acidity

c)

Turbidity

d)

Viscosity

31.

Which of the following explains the primary reason that open ocean waves in certain regions are consistently larger than others?

a)

Velocity of major currents

b)

Persistence of prevailing winds

c)

Strength of tidal forces

d)

Configuration of the seabed

32.

Prior to the mid-nineteenth century, the Kankakee River in northwestern Indiana was a meandering river that flowed through the vast wetlands that covered the region. Eventually the entire Kankakee wetland region was drained and the river was channelized and dredged. Which of the following is a predictable consequence of this modification of the Kankakee River and the surrounding wetlands?

a)

The river has downcut its channel, heavily eroding wetland sediments

b)

The elevation of the water table in the river's watershed has risen significantly

c)

The river has become particularly susceptible to seasonal flooding

d)

The recharge of groundwater underlying the watershed has decreased significantly

33.

Calculations based on the sun's brightness, temperature, and rate of fuel consumption indicate that the age of the solar system is approximately:

a)

2.5 billion years

b)

4.6 billion years

c)

14.1 billion years

d)

17 billion years

34.

Which of the following substances is most abundant in the nucleus of a comet?

a)

Iron

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Ice

d)

Methane

35.

Which of the following best describes how asteroids were most likely formed?

a)

A large planet located between Jupiter and Mars was torn apart by Jupiter's gravity

b)

Planetesimals never coalesced into a planet due to the influence of Jupiter and broke into smaller pieces as they collided with one another

c)

A planetesmial struck Mars and ejected large amounts of material into space

d)

Individual asteriods coalesced out of small concentrations of dust and gas in the solar nebula when the solar system began to form

36.

The think atmosphere surrounding Venus is made up primarily of?

a)

Methane

b)

Water vapor

c)

Ozone

d)

Carbon Dioxide

37.

The plane of the moon's orbit around Earth is tilted relative to the plane of Earth's orbit around the sun. This tilt is the reason that?

a)

A solar eclipse occurs in one Earth hemisphere at the same time as a lunar eclipse occurs in the other

b)

A lunar eclipse occurs somewhere on Earth every month

c)

A solar eclipse occurs somewhere on Earth approximately every six months

d)

A lunar eclipse never occurs within six months of a solar eclipse

38.

Which of the following only occurs during a new moon?

a)

A solar eclipse

b)

A neap tide

c)

A lunar eclipse

d)

A spring tide

39.

Large solar flares that eject a quantity of particles from the corona of the sun often give rise on Earth to unusually:

a)

High tides

b)

High temperatures

c)

Colorful sunrises and sunsets

d)

Bright and extensive auroras

40.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the formation of the moon?

a)

The moon coalesced as a smaller twin of Earth from two adjacent concentrations of debris and gases in the solar nebula

b)

The moon was formed from material ejected after a violent collision between Earth and a smaller planet

c)

The moon was a small planet that was captured by Earths gravity as it passed by on an eccentric orbit around the sun

d)

The moon was formed from a bulge on the molten Earths surface that formed and ripped free when Earths rotation was much faster

41.

In the early 1600s, Johannes Kepler described the orbits of the planets around the sun as ellipses. Which of the following is one important consequence of the elliptical nature of planetary orbits?

a)

All planets exhibit some form of seasonal variation in temperature

b)

The orbits of adjacent planets intersect twice a year

c)

Each planet's orbit lies in a different plane relative to all other planets

d)

The speed of each planet varies as it orbits around the sun

42.

Which of the following best explains the apparent retrograde motion of Mars as seen from the surface of Earth?

a)

The speed of Mars varies greatly at different points in its orbit

b)

Earth's distance from Mars varies greatly because the orbit of Mars is highly eccentric

c)

The orbit of Mars intersects the orbit of Earth

d)

Earth completes its orbit more quickly than Mars and overtakes and passes Mars every 780 days

43.

In 1965, scientist Arno Penzias and Robert Wilson discovered microwave radiation emanating uniformly from all directions in the sky. This discovery provided important evidence supporting:

a)

The steady-state theory of the universe

b)

The cosmological principle

c)

The Big Bang theory of the origin of the universe

d)

The law of universal gravitation

44.

Which of the following events provided evidence to support the idea that the universe is expanding?

a)

The discovery that distant astronomical objects are receding from Earth at a faster rate than those that are nearer

b)

The determination that dark matter has altered the rate of expansion of the universe since shortly after the Big Bang

c)

The calculation that the total mass of the universe is insufficient to counteract the effects of cosmological inflation

d)

The detection of the bending of light waves from distant parts of the universe through the gravitational lensing effect

45.

Which of the following processes is most directly responsible for the formation of the heaviest elements found in the universe?

a)

The collision of stars during galactic mergers

b)

High-energy meteor impacts

c)

The expansion of space during the Big Bang

d)

Supernovae of massive stars

46.

Astronomers have been able to verify the existence of supermassive black holes in a particular region of space primarily by analyzing which of the following types of data?

a)

The effects that black holes have on the behavior of surrounding matter

b)

The distribution of younger and older stars surrounding suspected black holes

c)

The distortion of space and time by a black hole's large gravitational field

d)

The energy released as a matter is annihilated within a black hole's event horizon

47.

Which of the following is the main factor that determines whether or not a particular star will become a supernova at the end of its life cycle?

a)

Mass

b)

Location

c)

Composition

d)

Diameter

48.

The Milky Way Galaxy is classified as which of the following types of galaxy?

a)

Elliptical

b)

Spiral

c)

Irregular

d)

Disk

49.

Galaxies such as the Milky Way galaxy and other relatively large local galaxies are known to contain spherical clusters of stars called globular clusters. These globular clusters orbit a galaxy's galactic center and typically contain stars that:

a)

Are rich in carbon and oxygen and are surrounded by clouds of dust and gas

b)

Formed early in the evolution of the galaxy and that are metal poor

c)

Are dense and massive and formed relatively late in the galaxy's evolution

d)

Formed outside of the galaxy and were pulled in as the galaxy grew by accretion

50.

The most massive galaxies in the universe are elliptical in shape. These types of galaxies typically appear to have limited star formation and most often occur in relatively crowded regions of the universe. In addition, observation of elliptical galaxies indicates they were less common in the early universe and are primarily composed of old stars. Astronomers believe that many of these characteristics are the result of the manner in which elliptical galaxies come into existence. which of the following explanations best describes current theory on the evolution of elliptical galaxies?

a)

Rotating galactic clusters that lack black holes at their center can develop into much larger elliptical galaxies

b)

Various types of galaxies can collide and eventually merge through gravitational attraction to form elliptical galaxies

c)

Spiral galaxies eventually expand and cool from inertial forces to form larger, lower-density elliptical galaxies

d)

Multiple globular clusters that are pulled into orbit around a galactic core can evolve into irregular or elliptical galaxies

51.

The development of astronomical interferometry in radio astronomy during the 1940s improved the results of radio astronomy primarily by:

a)

Accounting for the spectral shift of the wavelengths detected from rapidly moving objects

b)

Compensating for the signal distortion caused by the effect of temperature change on receiving antennas

c)

Combining the signals from multiple separate radio antennas into a higher-resolution image

d)

Separating incoming radio waves detected by a radio telescope receiver into their constituent wavelengths

52.

Which of the following components of the atmosphere increases the acidity of water as it moves through the water cycle from the gaseous phase to the liquid phase?

a)

Diatomic nitrogen

b)

Aerosols

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Ozone

53.

The production and use of Portland cement emits a large amount of carbon dioxide. A significant portion of the carbon dioxide is emitted by the burning of fossil fuels during the production, transport, and construction processes. Which of the following processes is an additional major source of carbon dioxide resulting from the production and use of Portland cement?

a)

Formation of calcium carbonate during drying

b)

Decarbonation of limestone to produce free lime

c)

Crushing of limestone to prepare for heating

d)

Chemical weathering of carbonates in old concrete

54.

Excess phosphorus entering the environment as a result of human activity can negatively affect the health of freshwater ecosystems by causing eutrophication. A major consequence of eutrophication is a drop in the concentration of dissolved oxygen in affected freshwater ecosystems. This reduction in dissolved oxygen levels is most directly caused by:

a)

Increasing populations of freshwater invertebrates

b)

Rapid initial growth of aquatic plants

c)

Bacterial breakdown of the biomass from algal blooms

d)

Lowering of the pH of the body of water

55.

Gypsum is an important industrial mineral mined beneath Martin County in Indiana. The gypsum mined in Indiana formed during the Early Carboniferous Period and is now found deep underground in deposits that can be more than 20 feet thick. Which of the following scenarios best describes how the gypsum deposits in Indiana formed?

a)

Windblown carbonate dust produced by the weathering of limestone was deposited into shallow seas

b)

Pressure and heat from burial underground altered the mineral composition of dolomitic limestone

c)

Lime mud containing sulfur settled on the bottom of a deep off-shore basin and lithified over time

d)

Shallow inland seas repeatedly expanded and then dried up, leaving behind a chemical precipitate

56.

Which of the following represents the most significant challenge in the continued development of coal resources?

a)

Managing environmental problems associated with coal mining

b)

Transporting coal from the regions where it is extracted to power plants

c)

Locating deposits of coal that are large enough to be worth developing

d)

Limiting public exposure to coal dust during mining operations

57.

Oil deposits are believed to form primarily from which of the following?

a)

The decay of vegetation that grew in ancient swamps

b)

Plankton and other organisms that accumulated on the ocean floor

c)

The chemical breakdown of carbon-rich rock buried deep underground

d)

Limestone and the organisms associated with coral reefs

58.

Which of the following processes best describes the physical phenomenon that is central to the functioning of a photo-voltaic panel?

a)

Photons in light excite electrons to a higher energy state, allowing them to carry charge and generate direct current electricity

b)

Photons striking a semiconductor in a closed circuit cause a redistribution of charge, producing voltage across the circuit

c)

Electrons struck by photons are moved into a valence state and then fall back again, generating an alternating electric current

d)

Electrons ejected from an electrode by photons travel through a vacuum to another electrode, inducing an electric charge

59.

Indiana homeowners and businesses have taken advantage of geothermal heat to help provide a less-expensive means to heat and cool homes and businesses. A variety of geothermal ground-source heat pump systems have been developed for different uses; however, all of these systems rely on the same characteristic of geothermal heat to operate. The fundamental characteristic of geothermal heat that makes geothermal ground-source heat pump systems practical as an energy source in Indiana is:

a)

the increased rate at which bedrock temperature rises at depths below approximately 1000 feet underground

b)

The relative stability of the year-round average temperature at depths greater than about 20 feet below the ground surface

c)

The change in the thermal gradient between the bedrock and ground surface during the colder months of the year

d)

The thermal conductivity of the sands and gravels that make up much of the regions surface sedimentary deposits

60.

Over the past decades, scientists studying Greenland's ice sheet have observed an increase in the rate of ice loss, mostly from the calving of large glaciers along the coast. Between 2000 and 2008, however, research showed that melting was causing as much mass loss from the ice sheet as calving glaciers and changes in regional snowfall. Between 2011 and 2014, this trend accelerated, with up to 70% of the annual mass lost from the ice sheet coming exclusively from melting. While an increase in the annual average temperature over Greenland has played a role in the acceleration of this seasonal melting, scientist have determined that another factor has been responsible for much of the accelerated melting since 2011. The largest single contributing factor responsible for the increased rate of mass loss from the ice sheet since 2011 has been a change in the what?

a)

Elevation of the grounding line of ice shelves that terminate many of Greenland's glaciers

b)

Temperature and strength of the West Greenland Current along the west coast

c)

Albedo of Greenland's ice sheet caused by darkening of the surface from soot, algae, and water

d)

Level of the primary accumulation zone of the ice sheet in Greenland's interior

61.

Air near Earth's surface that is contaminated with carbon-based compounds and nitrogen oxides can create new pollutants when exposed to sunlight. Which of the following gases is most likely to be produced under these conditions?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Ozone

d)

Molecular Nitrogen

62.

Which of the following is a major risk associated with mercury pollution generated by power plants?

a)

Contamination of drinking water

b)

Destruction of the ozone layer

c)

Production of photochemical smog

d)

Bioaccumulation in organisms

63.

Scientists have determined that the increase in the concentration of particulates in the atmosphere between 1960 and 1990 is likely to have:

a)

Increased the incidence of skin cancer

b)

Reduced the effects of global warming

c)

Increased global average precipitation

d)

Reduced the damage to the ozone layer

64.

Which of the following minerals displays rhombohedral cleavage and reacts strongly with hydrochloric acid?

a)

Gypsum

b)

Orthoclase

c)

Calcite

d)

Quartz

65.

Rocks are classified into three main groups: igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic. Which of the following includes a rock from each of the three groups?

a)

Basalt, shale, gabbro

b)

Andesite, sandstone, siltstone

c)

Rhyolite, conglomerate, limestone

d)

Granite, Breccia, Gneiss

66.

The geologic character of large sections of the crust of westernmost North America indicates that these sections of crust had different geologic histories even though they are now adjacent to each other. The distinct character and history of these different sections, known as terranes, results primarily from which of the following?

a)

The accretion of the geologic regions to the growing continent during tectonic plate subduction

b)

Continental rifting that allowed mantle plumes to rise to the surface, separating related geologic regions

c)

The formation of the geologic regions during period of dramatically different climate

d)

Mountain building that caused intense metamorphism of some geologic regions and not others

67.

Which of the following processes is often responsible for the production of ore deposits of minerals such as gold and silver?

a)

The formation of hydro thermal veins in overlying country rock

b)

The eruption of a mantle plume at the surface of a rift valley

c)

The accumulation of ions from a supersaturated solution of seawater

d)

The solidification of a magma chamber deep underground

68.

The massive flood basalts of the Columbia River Plateau and the Deccan Traps of India are believed to have been produced primarily as a result of:

a)

Fissure eruptions generated by hot spots that are supplied by magma plumes

b)

The impact of meteors in regions of thin continental crust

c)

Caldera eruptions that caused the sudden emptying of underlying magma chambers

d)

The compressional heating of two colliding continental plates

69.

The explosiveness of an eruption from an active composite volcano is primarily related to which of the following?

a)

The size and depth below the surface of the magma chamber

b)

The iron and carbon dioxide content of the magma

c)

The depth and width of the main vent that releases the magma

d)

The silica and water content of the magma

70.

The west coast of South America has experience extremely powerful earthquakes. The strongest earthquake ever recorded occurred along the Chilean coastline. The massive size of these earthquakes and their geographic locations indicate that they are result from:

a)

The rapid horizontal displacement of land caused by a transform fault at the base of the Andes Mountains

b)

The sudden shift in the land surface as magma moves into the extensive system of Andean volcanoes

c)

The rapid downward movement of the hanging wall of a normal fault associated with a horst and graben

d)

The sudden slip of an oceanic plate as it is subducted beneath a continental plate

71.

in 1985 Mexico City was severely damaged by a major earthquake that occurred over 350 km away under the ocean. Which of the following factors is most likely to have made the damage in Mexico City so severe, even though it was far from the earthquake epicenter.

a)

Brittle bedrock underlying the city failed from the prolonged shaking produced by the earthquake

b)

Lake sediments underlying many parts of the city amplified earth movements caused by the shaking

c)

Large faults connecting the city with coastal faults transferred much of the seismic energy

d)

Small faults in the mountains surrounding the city were set in motion by the initial earthquake

72.

Which of the following rocks would be most susceptible to chemical weathering when exposed at Earth's surface?

a)

Basalt

b)

Limestone

c)

Granite

d)

Slate

73.

Many areas of the Midwestern United States are covered by deposits

a)

The overflow of major rivers onto their flood plains

b)

The resorting of dried-up ancient lake-bed clays

c)

The evolution of soils that developed from underlying sedimentary rocks

d)

The erosion of glacial stratified drift by strong winds

74.

In some regions of the world the rate of tectonic uplift of a mountain range is greater than the rate at which the mountain range is worn away.

a)

A V-shaped valley with no sediment deposition

b)

A meandering channel in a broad floodplain

c)

A U-shaped valley with balanced erosion and deposition

d)

A shallow and broad channel interrupted by small ponds

75.

Which of the following is responsible for the plastic flow that causes glaciers to spread beyond their point of origin?

a)

Slippage along fractures between seasonal accumulation layers

b)

Movement of the ice on a thin sheet of water under extreme pressure at the glacier's base

c)

Partial melting of the terminus of the glacier due to warm temperature

d)

Deformation of ice within the glacier as a result of the high pressure created by the overlying mass

76.

Although earth's crust formed approximately 4.6 billion years ago, scientists believe it took another 500 million yeats or more for oceans to form. Which of the following is believed to be the reason the oceans developed so long after the consolidation of Earth's crust?

a)

Earth's atmosphere contained too little oxygen

b)

Earth's surface was too hot

c)

Earth had insufficient volcanic activity

d)

Earth's atmosphere was too thin

77.

The currently accepted scientific theory of Earth's origin suggests that Earth formed:

a)

Through collisions with other small protoplanets

b)

From gases and material ejected from the sun

c)

When an interstellar body was pulled in by the sun's gravitational field

d)

From the accretion of particles of gas and dust in the early solar system

78.

Approximately 4 billion years ago, which of the following was a characteristic of Earth's early oceans that had a significant effect on the rock cycle?

a)

Low pH

b)

High salinity

c)

Low iron content

d)

High calcium content

79.

Which of the following best describes the character of the asthenosphere of the upper mantle?

a)

A solid layer constituting the base of tectonic plates that floats on top of a high-temperature zone of magma

b)

A brittle layer of solidified rock directly below the lithosphere containing pockets of magma

c)

A layer below the lithosphere that is capable of plastic flow due to high-pressure conditions

d)

A fluid layer of magma that supports the overlying tectonic plates of the lithosphere

80.

Which of the following describes the evidence that led to the discovery that Earth has a core that is partially liquid?

a)

S-waves slowed significantly and P-waves stopped as they reached a layer near the bottom of the mantle, indicating a region of dense solids near Earth's center

b)

P-waves were reflected from a layer deep in the mantle, indicating that a boundary with a dense fluid exists near Earth's center

c)

S-waves sped up when traveling near Earth's center, indicating a physical boundary at the bottom of the mantle

d)

P-waves were refracted and S-waves stopped, indicating that a boundary with distinct physical properties exists below the mantle

81.

The electric current that generate Earth's magnetic field are produced primarily as a result of:

a)

The charge separation at the mineralogical transition zone at the core-mantl boundary

b)

The flow of magma enriched in iron and nickel between the lower and upper mantle

c)

The thermally driven convective flow of conductive molten rock in the metallic outer core.

d)

The static charge caused by the different rotation rates of the inner and outer core

82.

The primary mechanism of biological evolution is natural selection. In a population of organisms, which of the following characteristics is most important for the process of natural selection to operate?

a)

Low density of individuals in a population and many available resources in the environment

b)

High behavioral and physiological flexibility for different adaptive strategies in a population

c)

Low rates of offspring mortality in a population and an environment low in predatory pressure

d)

High population growth rates and differential reproductive success within the population

83.

Geophysical surveys of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the rocks on either side of the ridge have revealed strong evidence for which of the following major geologic events?

a)

Meteor impacts

b)

Worldwide volcanic activity

c)

Ice ages

d)

Magnetic Reversals

84.

In the 1980s, scientist discovered an iridium-rich clay layer at the boundary between the Cretaceous and Tertiary periods. This layer is now believed to have been produced by which of the following major events in Earth's history?

a)

The outpouring of volcanic ash during the formation of massive flood basalts

b)

A major meteor impact that caused a worldwide mass extinction

c)

A period of intense weathering caused by changes in atmospheric chemistry

d)

The flooding of low areas of the continents by shallow inland seas

85.

A major principle used in interpreting the fossil record was developed in 1793 when William Smith, a geologist, surveyed the English countryside. He observed that layers of sedimentary rock contained fossils in a definite sequence and that those rocks could be matched with other outcrops that contained the same fossil sequence. Which of the following is the principle developed by Smith based on his observations?

a)

Superpostion

b)

Original horizontality

c)

Faunal succession

d)

Cross-cutting relationships

86.

Which of the following is the primary reason radiocarbon dating can only be used on materials that are younger than 70,000 years old?

a)

Organic compounds are the only source of carbon-14

b)

The half-life of carbon-14 is too short

c)

Objects that contain carbon-12 break down over time

d)

The ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 is not constant

87.

Indiana's bedrock is composed primarily of limestone, shale, sandstone, coal, and other sedimentary rocks underlain by the continental craton. Which of the following geologic events in North America's geologic history provided the depositional environment in which most of Indiana's sedimentary bedrock was formed?

a)

Failed rifting of the basement rocks of the continental craton during the late Precambrian produced a broad structural basin

b)

Repeated continental glaciations during the Paleozoic era scoured out a broad shallow basin in the basement rocks of the continental craton

c)

Appalachian mountain building during the Carboniferous period cause downwarping of the crust west of mountains

d)

Subduction along the western margin of North America in the early Mesozioc produced a shallow inland sea across the continental interior

88.

The standards Resource Guide developed in conjunction with the 2016 Indiana Academic Standards for Earth and Space Science has been designed to help educators implement the academic standards primarily by providing which of the following types of information?

a)

Classroom and laboratory activities that reinforce the content covered in the standards

b)

Standards-linked assessment and instructional strategies for academically diverse learners

c)

Research-based rationales for the inclusion or exclusion of specific topics in the standards

d)

Clarifying statements, crosscutting concepts, and definitions of content-specific vocabulary

89.

The science and Enginnering Process Standards that are part of the Indiana Academic Standards for Science describe the processes and skills that students are expected to learn and be bale to do in the practice of science in the classroom and laboratory. The SEPS standards are separate from the content standards in the Indiana Academic Standards for Science primarily to emphasize that the skills and:

a)

Habits of mind necessary for active science learning and scientific thinking should be taught as part of the general curriculum prior to introducing science-specific content

b)

Critical thinking strategies required to learn about and practice science are useful tools for learning about subject areas in the curriculum unrelated to the sciences

c)

Scientific practices students develop while simultaneously learning science content constitute an extremely important part of their science education

d)

Processes involved in learning science are supplementary and that teachers need to assess them differently from understanding of scientific concepts

90.

The International Society for Technology in Education standars are designed to support student success through the integration of new educational technologies into the educational process. One of the primary educational objectives of the ISTE standards is the development of student centered learning environments that work to stimulate student curiosity and motivation by leveraging technology to support student participation in all aspects of the learning process. Which of the following examples provides the most effective way to achieve this educational objective in a science class?

a)

Students complete online research on a science topic of their choosing and then use presentation software to summarize their findings for the class

b)

Teaches help students develop the skills necessary to troubleshoot common problems with the digital technologies they use in the science classroom

c)

Students collect daily data on local weather conditions with a digital weather station and then use spreadsheet software to plot trends in the data set

d)

Teachers discuss with students how to use social media platforms to connect and interact with others with similar science-related interests

91.

Which of the following teaching strategies would most help students develop scientific habits of mind when learning about controversial scientific topics?

a)

A class discussion in which students identify the scientific and social reasons that the topic is controversial

b)

A moderated debate in which students defend a position on the controversy with logical reasoning and evidence

c)

A research assignment that asks students to explore the underlying historical causes for the controversy

d)

A series of virtual or in-person presentations by professional scientists that take different positions on the controversy.

92.

A new Earth and space science teacher is preparing to teach a class of thirty students with diverse cultural and socioeconomic backgrounds. While developing activities to enrich the curriculum and satisfy required learning goals, it is most important for the teachers to keep in mind that the students should be:

a)

Given flexible assignments and projects that they can all succeed at, but that are graded on a sliding scale that recognizes different levels of achievement as equal accomplishments

b)

Held to the same grade-level standards, but provided with instruction that accommodates their different learning styles and engages with their experiences and backgrounds

c)

Allowed to select the particular content they study as long as the chosen subject matter supports the critical-thinking objectives and science-literacy skills outlined in the curriculum.

d)

Pushed to work on projects and assignments that are somewhat above their ability level so they can experience the personal growth that results from challenging oneself

93.

Which of the following activities best represents an inquiry-based learning approach to an Earth and space science topic?

a)

Two students determine the hardness of tap water taken from several drinking water wells by following the experimental procedures in a laboratory manual

b)

A student graphs temperature records downloaded from a web site to determine how the different elevations of two cities affect their daily temperature range

c)

Two students analyze weekly stream flow data they collected during the school year to test a hypothesis they developed about seasonal changes in runoff rates

d)

A student collects several mineral samples on a field trip and determines what they are by using a variety of diagnostic tests and an identification key

94.

An Earth and space science teacher is planning an introduction to a unit on the atmosphere and weather. The teacher would like to pose some open-ended conceptual questions to get a sense of the students' level of understanding and any misconceptions that they may have about atmospheric phenomena. The teacher also recognizes that an introductory discussion with good class participation can effectively motivate students by stimulating their interest in the topic. The teacher knows from experience, however, that several enthusiastic students will dominate the class discussion, while others will be less willing to participate. Which of the following strategies would most effectively stimulate the participation of the greatest number of students in the classroom discussion the teacher has planned?

a)

Having students first think about the question independently and then join with another student to analyze each other's ideas for five minutes before presenting their ideas as a team in the full-class discussion

b)

Providing students with a choice of questions to answer in a written format so they can select a question they feel most comfortable with and study it before volunteering to present their ideas in front of the class

c)

Asking each student to come up with an appropriate question relevant to the subject and submit it to the teacher who then selects several of the best questions for an open discussion with the class

d)

Providing students with an intrinsically interesting pre-class reading assignment on the subject and a series of associated questions that will be the basis of the following day's class discussion

95.

The Indiana Academic Standards for Content Area Literacy: Science/Technical Subjects are designed to provide guidance to teachers on the literacy skills expected of students in their classes. A teacher of a high school science student would mot clearly know that the student had achieved the college and career readiness literacy level defined in these standards for a high school graduate if the student demonstrates which of the following abilities?

a)

Concisely writing out the steps followed in carrying out an experiment, taking measurements, or performing a technical task.

b)

Integrating and evaluating multiple sources of information presented in diverse formats to address a scientific question

c)

Verbally interpreting a data trend on a graph or in a table that depicts a feedback mechanism in a natural or engineered system

d)

Accurately identifying and summarizing the main topics presented in a scientific or technical text

96.

Flipping is a teaching strategy currently being applied in some science classrooms. The strategy involves more of the time students spend in class for stimulating critical thinking, completing inquiry activities, and conducting informal assessments. This requires students to spend time developing essential content knowledge outside of the classroom. Given the characteristics of flipping, which of the following uses of technology by the students would most clearly be an effective part of a flipped teaching strategy?

a)

Connecting with science students from a different country with communications software to learn about their curriculum

b)

Using computer simulations in class to introduce the idea of negative feedback mechanisms in natural systems

c)

Viewing assigned introductory online videos at home prior to completing related in-class activities or experiemnts

d)

Summarizing the procedures and results of recently completed laboratory activities using presentation software

97.

An Indiana Earth and space science teacher has used an inquiry-based approach during the semester, including a variety of student-centered research and laboratory activities. The most effective assessment strategy for determining the depth and extent of student learning relative to the state's Science and Engineering process Standards by the end of the semester would be to have each student:

a)

Take an end-of-semester test that requires them to summarize complex concepts and correctly use terms they have learned

b)

Research and write an essay analyzing both sides taken in one of the scientific debates they have discussed in class

c)

Maintain a journal to be submitted at the end of the semester that contains activities, laboratory procedures, and class notes

d)

Design, carry out, and summarize the results of an experiment on a topic relevant to the content covered in the class