Free Printable Unit 6 AP Biology Review

1.

Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?

a)

antiparallel double helix

b)

contains ribose

c)

made of amino acids

d)

contains Uracil

2.

Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG

a)

ATG TGA CAG

b)

TAC ACT GTC

c)

GTA AGT GAC

d)

CAT TCA CTG

3.

Seals the Okazaki fragments together

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

helicase

d)

primase

4.

This repetitive sequences of DNA on the ends of chromosomes (TTAGGG) for protection.

a)

telomeres

b)

telomerase

c)

Okazaki fragments

d)

primer

5.

Which enzyme is needed to start DNA replication?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

6.

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

a)

The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.

b)

One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.

c)

The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.

d)

Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands

7.

What is meant that DNA replication follows a “semi-conservative” model?

a)

After DNA replication, each strand contains one side that is a parental strand and the other side is a daughter strand.

b)

After DNA replication, one completed strand contains only parental DNA while the other contains only daughter DNA.

c)

None of these identify the “semi-conservative” model.

d)

After DNA replication, one completed strand contains a mixture of both parental DNA and daughter DNA dispersed throughout the strand.

8.

Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Rough E.R.

9.

What is the complementary tRNA anticodon to the following mRNA codon: AUG

a)

UAC

b)

TAC

c)

ATG

d)

AAC

10.

Transcribe the following DNA sequence:

TAT GGC ACT

a)

TAT GGC ACT

b)

ATA CCG TGA

c)

AUA CCG UGA

d)

UAU GGC ACU

11.

Translate the following RNA sequence:

AUG AAU UGU UGA

a)

Met-Phe-Cys-STOP

b)

Met-Asn-Cys-STOP

c)

Met-Asn-Cys-Trp

d)

Tyr-Leu-Thr-Thr

12.

A frameshift mutation could result from

a)

a base insertion only.

b)

a base deletion only.

c)

a base substitution only.

d)

either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

13.

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is

a)

complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.

b)

complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.

c)

the part of tRNA that bonds with a specific amino acid.

d)

catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.

14.

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until

a)

the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.

b)

several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.

c)

the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.

d)

the DNA introns are removed from the template.

15.

Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?

a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

silent

d)

transverse

16.

In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______.

a)

cytosine

b)

adenine

c)

guanine

d)

thymine

17.

The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

replication

18.

The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____

a)

transcription

b)

rRNA

c)

replication

d)

translation

19.

Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism?

a)

Nitrogen Bases

b)

Sugar-Phosphate Backbone

c)

Hydrogen bonds

20.

What is the location in the cell for translation?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosome

d)

chloroplast

21.

What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?

a)

Anticodon

b)

Codon

c)

Protein

22.

Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic gene expression but does occur in eukaryotic gene expression?

a)

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed

b)

RNA polymerase binds to the promotor

c)

a poly-A tail is added to the ends of the mRNA

d)

Translation can begin as soon as transcription has begun even a little

23.

Which of the follwoing best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?

a)

it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor

b)

it sets the reading frame of the mRNA

c)

it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding

d)

it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene

24.

What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?

a)

to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA

b)

to indicate the site of translational termination

c)

to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA

d)

to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes

25.

What is a ribozyme?

a)

enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate

b)

RNA with enzymatic activity

c)

an enzyme that catlyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits

d)

an enzyme tha synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication

26.

What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?

a)

it must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER

b)

its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi

c)

Its signal sequence must be cleaved off

d)

Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane

27.

What is the effect of a nucleotide-pair substitution that results in a nonsense mutation in a gene?

a)

it changes an amino acid in the encoded protein

b)

It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein

c)

it introduces premature stop codon into the mRNA

d)

it alters the reading frame of the mRNA

28.

Which is the best description of a gene?

a)

a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product; either RNA or polypeptide

b)

a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein

c)

a DNA-RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product

d)

a descrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids

29.

A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be?

a)

5'-TTG-CTG-CAG-TAG-3'

b)

3'-AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA-5'

c)

3'-AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA-5'

d)

3'-AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA-5'

30.

What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'

a)

met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser

b)

met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu

c)

met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu

d)

met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu

31.

Students subjected three samples of five different molecules to gel electrophoresis as shown in the Figure.

Which of the following statements best explains the pattern seen on the gel with regard to the size and charge of molecules A and B?

a)

Molecules A and B are positively charged, and molecule A is smaller than molecule B.

b)

Molecules A and B are positively charged, and molecule A is larger than molecule B.

c)

Molecules A and B are negatively charged, and molecule A is smaller than molecule B.

d)

Molecules A and B are negatively charged, and molecule A is larger than molecule B.

32.

Which of the technologies listed below is a valuable method for mass-producing genes and other useful proteins?

a)

gene targeting

b)

recombinant DNA technology

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

metabolism

33.

What is a restriction enzyme?

a)

An enzyme that cuts DNA

b)

An enzyme that add to the DNA strand

c)

An enzyme that builds proteins

d)

An enzyme that breaks down lipids

34.

Based on these DNA fingerprints, whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?

a)

Bob

b)

Sue

c)

John

d)

Lisa

35.

In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear

a)

closest to the starting wells

b)

farthest from the starting wells

c)

three quarters away from the starting wells

d)

it depends on how many fragments there are

36.

What is the end goal of PCR?

a)

Look at banding patterns of DNA

b)

Increase amount of DNA

c)

Decrease the amount of DNA

d)

Fingerprinting

37.

Manufacturing recombinant DNA molecules involves cutting a gene from its normal location, inserting it into a circular piece of DNA from a bacterial cell, and then transferring the circle of DNA to cells of another species. Which of the tools below is used to cut the gene from its normal location?

a)

bacteriophage

b)

restriction enzyme

c)

vector

d)

plasmid

38.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized above. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria

growing include which of the following?

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

IV only

d)

I and II

39.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized above. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

Which of the following best explains why there is no growth on plate II?

a)

The initial E. coli culture was not ampicillin resistant.

b)

The transformation procedure killed the bacteria.

c)

Nutrient agar inhibits E. coli grow

d)

The bacteria on the plate were transformed.

40.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized above. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

Plates I and III were included in the experimental

design in order to

a)

demonstrate that the E. coli cultures were viable.

b)

demonstrate that the plasmid can lose its ampr gene.

c)

demonstrate that the plasmid is needed for E. coli growth.

d)

prepare the E. coli for transformation.

41.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized above. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

Which of the following statements best explains why there are fewer colonies on plate IV than on plate III?

a)

Plate IV is the positive control.

b)

Not all E. coli cells are successfully transformed.

c)

The bacteria on plate III did not mutate.

d)

The plasmid inhibits E. coli growth.

42.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized above. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

In a second experiment, the plasmid contained the gene for human insulin as well as the ampr gene. Which of the following plates would have the highest percentage of bacteria that are expected to produce insulin?

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

IV only

d)

I and III

Unit 6 AP Biology Review

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

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