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5.6 HW Mid-Winter Break Cumulative Review 2308

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 5hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which particles surround the nucleus of a neon atom?

a)

electrons

b)

neutrons

c)

positrons

d)

protons

2.

Which conclusion was proposed as a result of an experiment during which some alpha particles were deflected while passing through a thin sheet of gold foil?

a)

Atoms are hard, indivisible spheres

b)

Atoms have small, dense, positive nuclei

c)

Atoms contain negatively charged particles

d)

Atoms have electrons with wavelike properties

3.

The mass of each proton and each neutron is approximately equal to

a)

1 g

b)

1 mL

c)

1 u

d)

1 mol

4.

Which statement describes the relationship between two electrons in an atom of magnesium in the ground state?

a)

An electron in the first shell has the same amount of energy as an electron in the second shell.

b)

An electron in the first shell has a greater amount of energy than an electron in the second shell.

c)

An electron in the second shell has the same amount of energy as an electron in the third shell.

d)

An electron in the third shell has a greater amount of energy than an electron in the second shell.

5.

Which element in Period 2 has the highest first ionization energy?

a)

boron

b)

lithium

c)

neon

d)

nitrogen

6.

As an atom in the ground state changes to an atom in an excited state, the atom

a)

absorbs energy

b)

releases energy

c)

increases in mass number

d)

decreases in mass number

7.

Which statement describes a chemical property of copper?

a)

Copper has a red-orange color

b)

Copper can be flattened into sheets

c)

Copper reacts with oxygen

d)

Copper conducts an electric current

8.

At STP, two forms of solid carbon, diamond and graphite, have different properties because

a)

diamond has a different percent composition than graphite

b)

diamond has more electrons per atom than graphite

c)

diamond has stronger hydrogen bonding than graphite

d)

diamond has a different crystal structure than graphite

9.

Which phrase describes a specific compound?

a)

can contain only one element

b)

can be physically separated into elements

c)

is composed of elements chemically combined in a definite ratio

d)

is composed of elements mixed in proportions that can vary

10.

Which type of chemical formula shows the arrangement of the atoms in a molecule?

a)

empirical formula

b)

general formula

c)

molecular formula

d)

structural formula

11.

A 2.5 L sample of SO₂(g) at STP and a 2.5 L sample of CO₂(g) at STP can be differentiated by comparing their

a)

masses

b)

phases

c)

temperatures

d)

volumes

12.

Which terms identify the two different major categories of compounds?

a)

covalent and molecular

b)

covalent and thermal

c)

ionic and molecular

d)

ionic and thermal

13.

Which molecule of an element contains a multiple covalent bond?

a)

Br₂

b)

F₂

c)

H₂

d)

O₂

14.

Which molecule is symmetrical in both shape and distribution of charge?

a)

HCl

b)

H₂O

c)

NH₃

d)

CH₄

15.

What occurs when two atoms of bromine react to form a molecule of bromine?

a)

A bond is broken as energy is released

b)

A bond is broken as energy is absorbed

c)

A bond is formed as energy is released

d)

A bond is formed as energy is absorbed

16.

Atoms of which element have the strongest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?

a)

fluorine

b)

nitrogen

c)

phosphorus

d)

potassium

17.

Heat flows from an object at a temperature of 20.°C to an object at a temperature of

a)

15°C

b)

25°C

c)

35°C

d)

45°C

18.

All chemical systems at equilibrium have equal

a)

masses of reactants and products

b)

concentrations of reactants and products

c)

rates of forward and reverse reactions

d)

activation energies of forward and reverse reactions

19.

Which expression represents the heat of reaction for a chemical change?

a)

(PEₚᵣₒdᵤcₜₛ) + (PEᵣₑₐcₜₐₙₜₛ)

b)

(PEₚᵣₒdᵤcₜₛ) – (PEᵣₑₐcₜₐₙₜₛ)

c)

(PEₚᵣₒdᵤcₜₛ) ÷ (PEᵣₑₐcₜₐₙₜₛ)

d)

(PEₚᵣₒdᵤcₜₛ) × (PEᵣₑₐcₜₐₙₜₛ)

20.

Which phase change represents an increase in entropy?

a)

liquid to gas

b)

liquid to solid

c)

gas to solid

d)

gas to liquid

21.

Systems in nature tend to change toward

a)

lower energy and less disorder

b)

lower energy and greater disorder

c)

higher energy and less disorder

d)

higher energy and greater disorder

22.

Which formula represents an electrolyte?

a)

H₂O

b)

CCl₄

c)

H₂SO₄

d)

C₆H₁₂O₆

23.

Which elements are present in the mixture?

a)

L and G

b)

L and J

c)

E and G

d)

E and J

24.

Which particle model diagram represents a noble gas at STP?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

25.

Determine the molecular formula for a compound that has the empirical formula CH₂O and a molar mass of 180. grams per mole.

4 lines
26.

A student determines the density of a copper sample at room temperature to be 9.46 g/cm³. Based on Table S, what is the student's percent error in determining the density of copper?

a)

0.50%

b)

5.0%

c)

5.3%

d)

5.6%

27.

What is the gram-formula mass of Mg(NO₃)₂?

a)

86 g/mol

b)

134 g/mol

c)

148 g/mol

d)

172 g/mol

28.

Compared to a rubidium atom, a Rb⁺ ion has

a)

one more electron and a larger radius

b)

one more electron and a smaller radius

c)

one fewer electron and a larger radius

d)

one fewer electron and a smaller radius

29.

Which ion in the ground state has the same electron configuration as an atom of neon in the ground state?

a)

K⁺

b)

Li⁺

c)

F⁻

d)

Cl⁻

30.

Which substance can not be broken down by a chemical change?

a)

barium

b)

butanal

c)

methane

d)

methanol

31.

The difference in which property allows the separation of a sample of water and sand by using filter paper and a funnel?

a)

boiling point

b)

melting point

c)

particle size

d)

sample volume

32.

What is the temperature, in degrees Celsius, of a sample of matter at 35 K?

a)

–238°C

b)

–308°C

c)

35°C

d)

308°C

33.

Which equation represents a physical change?

a)

H₂(g) + I₂(g) → 2HI(g)

b)

N₂(g) + 2O₂(g) → 2NO₂(g)

c)

I₂(s) → I₂(g)

d)

3O₂(g) → 2O₃(g)

34.

Which combination of reactants would result in the fastest reaction rate?

a)

a 1.0 g strip of zinc with 10 mL of 0.20 M HCl(aq)

b)

a 1.0 g strip of zinc with 10 mL of 2.0 M HCl(aq)

c)

1.0 g of powdered zinc with 10 mL of 0.20 M HCl(aq)

d)

1.0 g of powdered zinc with 10 mL of 2.0 M HCl(aq)

35.

State the trend in atomic radius for bromine, chlorine, fluorine, and iodine as they are considered in order of increasing atomic number.

4 lines
36.

Determine the mass of a sample of iodine that has a volume of 2.5 cm³ at room temperature and standard pressure.

4 lines
37.

State, in terms of electrons, why bromine, chlorine, fluorine, and iodine have similar chemical properties.

4 lines
38.

State the molecular polarity of a CO₂ molecule.

4 lines
39.

Based on Table S, determine the electronegativity difference between oxygen and calcium in calcium oxide.

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40.

State evidence from Table I that indicates that this dissolving process is endothermic.

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41.

State, in terms of particle distribution, why a solution is classified as a homogeneous mixture.

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42.

Identify the interval during which the average distance between the particles is the greatest.

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43.

State what happens to the potential energy of the particles during the melting of the substance.

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44.

Base your answer to the following question on the information below and on your knowledge of chemistry. A 30.0-milliliter sample of HCl(aq) was exactly neutralized by 18.0 milliliters of 0.10 M KOH(aq). During this laboratory activity, appropriate safety equipment was used and safety procedures were followed. State the number of significant figures used to express the concentration of KOH(aq).

4 lines
45.

Compare the number of protons to the number of electrons in an atom of oxygen-18.

4 lines
46.

Draw a Lewis electron-dot diagram for an atom of oxygen.

47.

State, in terms of neutrons, why a water molecule containing an O-18 atom has a greater mass than a water molecule containing an O-16 atom.

4 lines
48.

Show a numerical setup for calculating the percent composition by mass of oxygen in the sodium hydrogen carbonate (gram-formula mass = 84 g/mol).

4 lines
49.

Determine the number of moles of K₂CO₃ produced when 3.50 moles of KO₂ completely reacts, as represented in equation 1.

4 lines
50.

Balance equation 2 for the heating of NaHCO₃(s), using smallest whole-number coefficients.

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51.

Determine the volume of this sample of helium gas at 350 K.

4 lines
52.

Compare the average kinetic energy of the helium atoms in the sample at 200 K to the average kinetic energy of the helium atoms at 300 K.

4 lines
53.

Explain, in terms of collision theory, why reacting hydrogen and nitrogen at high temperature increases the rate of the reaction.

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54.

Determine the net quantity of heat released when 1.0 mole of ammonia gas, NH₃(g), is produced by this reaction.

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55.

Using the axes below, draw a potential energy diagram for the reaction.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + 91.8 kJ

56.

State, in terms of activation energy and reaction pathway, why the addition of a catalyst increases the rate of production of ammonia.

4 lines