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67 Question Sec+ Quiz

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the CIA Triad?

a)

Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication

b)

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

c)

Control, Integrity, Availability

d)

Compliance, Integrity, Authentication

2.

What is the primary function of a firewall?

a)

Encrypting sensitive data

b)

Blocking unauthorized access while permitting legitimate communication

c)

Detecting and removing malware

d)

Managing user authentication

3.

Which attack involves an attacker intercepting and modifying communications between two parties?

a)

Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)

b)

Phishing

c)

Denial-of-Service (DoS)

d)

SQL Injection

4.

What is the purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?

a)

To require users to answer multiple security questions

b)

To ensure users reset their passwords regularly

c)

To provide an additional layer of security by requiring two or more authentication factors

d)

To replace password-based authentication

5.

Which of the following is an example of a physical security control?

a)

Antivirus software

b)

Firewall

c)

Security badge access

d)

Password policy

6.

What type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into installing it?

a)

Worm

b)

Trojan Horse

c)

Rootkit

d)

Ransomware

7.

Which security measure is commonly used to prevent brute-force attacks?

a)

Account lockout policy

b)

Antivirus software

c)

Content filtering

d)

Network segmentation

8.

What is the main function of a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?

a)

To detect network intrusions

b)

To provide secure remote access by encrypting data transmission

c)

To prevent unauthorized access to files

d)

To replace traditional firewalls

9.

What does the principle of least privilege (PoLP) state?

a)

Users should have access to all resources on a system

b)

Users should only have the minimum access necessary to perform their job functions

c)

Users must change their passwords every 30 days

d)

Users should be granted administrator rights by default

10.

What is the primary purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

a)

To actively block unauthorized access attempts

b)

To detect and alert on suspicious activity

c)

To replace firewalls in network security

d)

To encrypt network traffic

11.

Which of the following best describes the concept of least privilege?

a)

Users are granted only the minimum access necessary to perform their job functions.

b)

Users are given administrative privileges to troubleshoot system issues.

c)

Users must use multifactor authentication for all logins.

d)

Users have unrestricted access to all resources.

12.

Which of the following is a common technique used in social engineering attacks?

a)

SQL injection

b)

Phishing

c)

MAC filtering

d)

Port scanning

13.

What is the primary purpose of a VPN?

a)

To scan networks for vulnerabilities

b)

To encrypt data transmitted over a network

c)

To prevent malware infections

d)

To block unauthorized access to files

14.

Which of the following attacks involves an attacker inserting malicious code into a website's input fields?

a)

DDoS

b)

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

c)

Man-in-the-middle (MITM)

d)

ARP poisoning

15.

A company wants to implement a security measure that ensures a user's identity is verified based on multiple authentication factors. Which method should they use?

a)

Single sign-on (SSO)

b)

Multifactor authentication (MFA)

c)

Role-based access control (RBAC)

d)

Mandatory access control (MAC)

16.

What is the main purpose of a honeypot in cybersecurity?

a)

To increase network speed

b)

To detect and analyze attacks

c)

To prevent malware infections

d)

To encrypt network traffic

17.

Which of the following cryptographic concepts ensures that data cannot be modified without detection?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Availability

c)

Integrity

d)

Non-repudiation

18.

A company suspects an insider threat. Which of the following security controls would be most effective in detecting suspicious user activity?

a)

Security information and event management (SIEM)

b)

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

c)

Antivirus software

d)

Network segmentation

19.

Which of the following encryption algorithms is considered the most secure for modern symmetric encryption?

a)

DES

b)

3DES

c)

AES

d)

RC4

20.

Which type of cryptographic attack attempts to find two different inputs that produce the same hash value?

a)

Brute-force attack

b)

Birthday attack

c)

Side-channel attack

d)

Man-in-the-middle attack

21.

Which key exchange protocol is commonly used in modern cryptographic applications to securely establish shared keys over an insecure channel?

a)

RSA

b)

Diffie-Hellman

c)

MD5

d)

SHA-256

22.

What is the primary purpose of a digital signature?

a)

Encrypt messages for confidentiality

b)

Provide integrity and non-repudiation

c)

Establish a secure communication channel

d)

Generate random cryptographic keys

23.

Which of the following best describes the process of encrypting data with a recipient's public key?

a)

Ensures confidentiality

b)

Provides integrity

c)

Verifies authenticity

d)

Generates a hash

24.

What is the primary function of a certificate authority (CA) in a public key infrastructure (PKI)?

a)

Encrypts messages for secure communication

b)

Issues and manages digital certificates

c)

Provides hashing services

d)

Generates encryption keys

25.

Which cryptographic hashing algorithm is considered the most secure among the following?

a)

MD5

b)

SHA-1

c)

SHA-256

d)

DES

26.

What type of attack is mitigated by using perfect forward secrecy (PFS) in cryptographic protocols?

a)

Brute-force attack

b)

Key compromise attack

c)

SQL injection

d)

Phishing

27.

Which of the following encryption modes should be used to prevent pattern leakage in a block cipher?

a)

ECB (Electronic Codebook)

b)

CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)

c)

OFB (Output Feedback)

d)

CFB (Cipher Feedback)

28.

What is the main advantage of elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) over traditional RSA?

a)

ECC uses symmetric encryption

b)

ECC requires larger key sizes for the same security level

c)

ECC provides strong security with shorter key lengths

d)

ECC is less efficient than RSA

29.

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a risk assessment?

a)

To eliminate all risks in an organization

b)

To identify, analyze, and prioritize risks

c)

To implement security controls without assessing risks

d)

To ensure compliance with security policies

30.

A company purchases cyber liability insurance to cover financial losses from a potential data breach. What type of risk response is this?

a)

Risk transference

b)

Risk avoidance

c)

Risk mitigation

d)

Risk acceptance

31.

Which of the following BEST describes qualitative risk assessment?

a)

Assigning numerical values to risk probabilities and impacts

b)

Using experience and judgment to assess risk severity

c)

Relying solely on financial loss estimates

d)

Calculating the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)

32.

A company's security team calculates that an attack could cost $500,000 and is likely to occur once every 10 years. What is the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

a)

$50,000

b)

$100,000

c)

$10,000

d)

$500,000

33.

What is the primary purpose of implementing a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

a)

To identify the most critical business functions and their impact if disrupted

b)

To assess compliance with government regulations

c)

To eliminate cybersecurity threats

d)

To replace a risk assessment

34.

Which document defines how an organization will respond to security incidents?

a)

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

b)

Incident Response Plan (IRP)

c)

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

d)

Risk Register

35.

An IT manager implements additional security controls to reduce the impact of a potential cyberattack. What type of risk treatment is this?

a)

Risk transference

b)

Risk avoidance

c)

Risk mitigation

d)

Risk acceptance

36.

What role does a risk register play in risk management?

a)

It lists security controls implemented in the organization

b)

It records identified risks, their impact, likelihood, and treatment plans

c)

It is used only for financial reporting purposes

d)

It replaces a business continuity plan

37.

A company decides to discontinue a vulnerable application instead of securing it. Which risk management strategy is being used?

a)

Risk acceptance

b)

Risk transference

c)

Risk avoidance

d)

Risk mitigation

38.

What is the primary purpose of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?

a)

Detect and respond to physical security threats

b)

Centralize log collection and analyze security events

c)

Encrypt stored sensitive information

d)

Prevent zero-day attacks through firewall rules

39.

Which of the following best describes a SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) platform?

a)

A system designed to prevent malware infections

b)

A technology that automates and integrates security response workflows

c)

A software used only for network security monitoring

d)

A database for storing security policies

40.

What is the main advantage of an Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solution over traditional antivirus software?

a)

It only detects known malware signatures

b)

It offers real-time monitoring and behavioral analysis

c)

It does not require cloud connectivity

d)

It replaces the need for firewalls

41.

Which of the following best defines the concept of "least privilege"?

a)

Granting users access to all systems for efficiency

b)

Restricting access to only what is necessary for a user’s role

c)

Rotating access permissions weekly

d)

Granting admin rights to all employees

42.

What is the primary function of a Security Operations Center (SOC)?

a)

To develop software security patches

b)

To monitor, analyze, and respond to security threats

c)

To manage an organization's HR policies

d)

To physically secure the data center

43.

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect against insider threats?

a)

Implementing a strict password policy

b)

Conducting regular security awareness training and user activity monitoring

c)

Disabling all USB ports on company devices

d)

Hiring more security personnel

44.

A security analyst notices repeated failed login attempts on a privileged account. What is the BEST immediate action?

a)

Disable the account and investigate the activity

b)

Increase the password complexity requirement

c)

Ignore the attempts unless they succeed

d)

Notify the user to change their password

45.

What is a major security concern with Shadow IT?

a)

It increases IT department efficiency

b)

It creates potential security risks due to unapproved applications and devices

c)

It improves compliance with industry regulations

d)

It reduces attack surface by limiting IT resources

46.

An organization wants to improve its incident response process. Which framework would BEST help establish a structured approach?

a)

ISO 27001

b)

NIST SP 800-61

c)

GDPR

d)

SOC 2

47.

Which type of attack involves overwhelming a target system with excessive requests to render it unavailable?

a)

Phishing

b)

Denial-of-Service (DoS)

c)

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

d)

Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

48.

What is the primary purpose of a buffer overflow attack?

a)

To inject malicious SQL commands

b)

To steal user credentials

c)

To execute arbitrary code on a system

d)

To overload a system with traffic

49.

Which of the following BEST describes a zero-day vulnerability?

a)

A vulnerability that has been patched by the vendor

b)

A vulnerability that remains unpatched and is actively exploited

c)

A vulnerability that requires user interaction to exploit

d)

A vulnerability that only affects legacy systems

50.

Which security control is MOST effective in preventing phishing attacks?

a)

Installing a firewall

b)

Implementing user awareness training

c)

Using network segmentation

d)

Disabling JavaScript in web browsers

51.

An attacker intercepts communication between two parties to eavesdrop or alter messages. Which attack is this?

a)

SQL Injection

b)

Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

c)

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

d)

Credential stuffing

52.

What is the purpose of a honeypot in cybersecurity?

a)

To detect and analyze attack patterns

b)

To provide a secure storage solution

c)

To prevent malware infections

d)

To encrypt sensitive data

53.

Which of the following is an example of an insider threat?

a)

A hacker using SQL injection to steal data

b)

A disgruntled employee leaking sensitive information

c)

A phishing attack targeting employees

d)

A botnet launching a DDoS attack

54.

Which technique is used to mitigate SQL Injection attacks?

a)

Disabling JavaScript in web browsers

b)

Using prepared statements and parameterized queries

c)

Implementing strong password policies

d)

Blocking all outgoing network traffic

55.

What is the primary purpose of network segmentation?

a)

To increase internet speed

b)

To isolate critical systems and limit lateral movement

c)

To prevent phishing attacks

d)

To allow unrestricted access to all users

56.

Which security measure is MOST effective in preventing brute-force attacks on user accounts?

a)

Disabling unused ports

b)

Implementing account lockout policies

c)

Using WEP encryption

d)

Deploying network firewalls

57.

Which of the following best describes a zero-trust architecture?

a)

A security model that assumes all network traffic is safe if it originates internally

b)

A model where users and devices must be continuously verified, regardless of their location

c)

A security model that relies solely on perimeter-based defenses

d)

A model where employees only need to authenticate once for full network access

58.

Which of the following best enhances security in a microservices-based enterprise architecture?

a)

Implementing a monolithic application structure

b)

Using service mesh for secure communication between services

c)

Allowing unrestricted API access for better performance

d)

Eliminating identity and access management (IAM) for internal services