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High Acuity Care - Day 1 - Foundations of High Acuity Care

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does 'dogma' mean?

a)
A type of dog breed.
b)
A philosophical theory about existence.
c)
A principle or set of principles laid down by an authority as incontrovertibly true.
d)
A method of training animals.
2.

What makes up the principles of Clinical Governance meetings?

a)

Moulage, Skills assurance, Longitudinal audits, 'Death & Disability' discussions, 'The pub chat'

b)
Staff scheduling
c)
Marketing strategies
d)
Accountability, patient involvement, continuous improvement, evidence-based practice, risk management.
3.

The pre-hospital assessment of the trauma patient begins with which of the following?

a)

Assessment of scene safety and situation

b)

Information provided by the dispatcher

c)

The initial assessment

d)

The primary survey

4.

What is the definition of a Dynamic Risk Assessment?

a)

The continuous process of identifying hazards,
assessing risk, taking action to eliminate or reduce risk,
monitoring and reviewing, in the rapidly changing
circumstances of an operational incident.

b)

A Dynamic Risk Assessment is a fixed evaluation that does not change over time.

c)

A Dynamic Risk Assessment is a historical analysis of past risks.

d)

A Dynamic Risk Assessment is a theoretical approach to risk management without real-time data.

5.

What does this model stand for?

a)

Crisis Management Model for Emergency Services

b)

Disaster Recovery Framework for Emergency Services

c)

Joint Emergency Services Interoperability Programme

d)

Joint Emergency Services Response Plan

6.

How can the JESIP model principles apply to high-acuity incidents?

a)
The JESIP model focuses solely on resource allocation during incidents.
b)
The JESIP model principles enhance communication and coordination among emergency services in high acuity incidents.
c)
The JESIP model is only applicable to low acuity incidents.
d)
The JESIP model eliminates the need for communication between services.
7.

What is "square breathing"?

a)
A method of deep meditation
b)
A type of yoga pose
c)

Square breathing is a breathing technique that involves inhaling through the mouth, holding, and and exhaling through the nose.

d)

Square breathing is a breathing technique that involves inhaling through the nose, holding, exhaling through the mouth, and holding the breath for equal counts.

8.

How can 'square breathing' decrease stress levels during the assessment and treatment of a critically unwell patient?

a)
Square breathing is ineffective in high-pressure situations.
b)
Square breathing distracts from patient care.
c)

Square breathing decreases heart rate during stress.

d)
Square breathing can decrease stress levels by promoting relaxation and focus during high-pressure situations.
9.

What does the acronym 'RRPPP' stand for?

a)
Rapid Recovery, Preparedness, and Planning Program
b)
Rapid Response, Preparedness, and Planning Program
c)

Rapport with colleagues, Rapport with patient, Primary Survey, Plan suggest, Plan deploy

d)

Report to colleagues, Repeat with patient, Primary Survey, Prepare the patient, Plan extrication

10.

In the context of trauma, what does the acronym cABCDE stand for?

a)

Critical Airway, Breathing, Compression, Defibrillation, Environment Evaluation

b)

Critical Haemorrhage, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure/Environment

c)

Critical Safety, Assessment, Breathing, Circulation, Diagnosis, Evaluation

d)

Critical Haemorrhage, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Diagnosis, Examination

11.

What is the primary goal of the primary survey in trauma care?

a)

To establish a patient's medical history

b)

To perform a detailed head-to-toe examination

c)

To identify and treat life-threatening conditions

d)

To administer pain relief

12.

What does the acronym 'COMA' mean when treating a highly critical patient?

a)

Clothes Off, Oxygen, Monitoring, Access

b)

Clothes On, Oxygen, Multi Task, Assign

c)

Coma

d)

Clothes Off, Oxygen, Mitigate Risks, Assess

13.

What are the benefits of having two points of IV access in a critically unwell patient?

a)

Increased risk of infection and complications

b)

Reduced need for monitoring and assessment

c)

Limited access to emergency interventions

d)

Increased medication and fluid administration efficiency, redundancy, and compatibility management.

14.

Which of the following is an essential component of trauma care?

a)

Ensure adequate airway, ventilation and oxygenation

b)

Complete a thorough head-to-toe survey before initiating treatment

c)

Rescuer safety is secondary to caring for the patient

d)

Use chilled intravenous fluids to promote hypothermia

15.

What does the acronym 'HOTT' stand for?

a)

Hypovolemia, Oxygen, Tension Pneumothorax, Tamponade

b)

Hyperventilate, Oxygen, Tension Pneumothorax, Tamponade

c)

Hypo/Hyperthermia, Oxygen, Tamponade, Toxins

d)

Hypoxia, Oxygen, Tamponade, Toxins

16.

Should chest compressions be performed in a traumatic cardiac arrest (TCA) before the HOTT algorithm is completed?

a)

Yes

b)

No

17.

What are the 4 H’s and 4 T’s?

a)

Hypo / Hyperthermia, Hypoxia, Hypocapnia, Hypo/Hyperglycaemia, Tamponade, Tension Pneumothorax, Toxins, Thermometer

b)

Hypoxia, Hypovolemia, Hypo/Hyperkalaemia, Hypo/Hyperthermia, Thrombus, Tension Pneumothorax, Tamponade, Toxins

c)

Hypoxia, Hypovolemia, Hypo/Hyperglycaemia, Hypo/Hyperthermia, Thrombus, Tension Pneumothorax, Tamponade, Toxins

d)

None of the above

18.

When performing a patient assessment, what information provides the most essential information in determining a working diagnosis?

a)

A thorough head-to-toe examination on all patients

b)

Medical history

c)

Ordering and correctly interpreting all diagnostic information

d)

Obtaining information from bystanders

19.

The determination of a working diagnosis is dependent on the clinician's assessment, critical thinking, and _____________ skills.

a)

written documentation

b)

treatment intervention

c)

radio communication

d)

cognitive control and composure

20.

Clinical reasoning requires the healthcare provider to:

a)

gather information and analyze data to make informed decisions.

b)

ignore patient history and focus on symptoms only.

c)

rely solely on intuition to make decisions.

d)

consult only with colleagues without analyzing data.